Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   India and Australia Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, India and Australia exchanged views on deepening multifaceted ties in several areas in two-plus two dialogues in New Delhi. Background:- The second India-Australia Two plus Two Dialogue was held in New Delhi . About India and Australia:- The Australia-India relationship was upgraded to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership (CSP) in June 2020. (India-Australia relations) It is based on mutual understanding, trust, close connections and a shared vision of a stable, open and prosperous Indo-Pacific. Diplomatic Relationship:- Australia and India established diplomatic relations in 1943 when Lieutenant-General Sir Iven Mackay was appointed Australia’s first High Commissioner to India. India’s first High Commissioner to Australia, Sir Raghunath P Paranjpe arrived in Canberra in 1945. Australia is one of only three countries with which India holds annual leader-level summits. The Prime Ministers of Australia and India also regularly interact at major international meetings, including through the Quad, G20 and East Asia Summit. In addition, Australian and Indian Foreign and Defence Ministers meet every second year to discuss strategic issues in a ‘2+2’ format. People-to-people Relationship:- The Indian community is Australia’s second-largest, and fastest-growing, overseas-born group. In the 2021 Census, the number of people reporting Indian heritage was 976,000. Of these, there were 673,000 Indian-born Australians, representing 2.6 per cent of the Australian population. India remains Australia’s largest source of skilled migrants. India is also the second-largest source of international students. Economic relationship:- According to the International Monetary Fund (IMF), India is the world’s fifth-largest economy in nominal terms and third-largest by Purchasing Power Parity. The IMF estimates India’s GDP will grow by 5.9 per cent in 2023 and 6.2 per cent in 2025. In 2022, India was Australia’s sixth-largest two-way goods and services trading partner and fourth-largest goods and services export market. Two-way goods and services trade with India was $48.4 billion in 2022. Australia’s exports to India totalled $34.8 billion and imports from India totalled $13.5 billion in 2022. Australia’s stock of investment in India was $17.6 billion in 2022. India’s total investment in Australia was $34.5 billion. Environmental Relationship:- During Prime Minister Modi’s visit to Sydney in May 2023, Australia and India agreed on Terms of Reference for the Australia-India Green Hydrogen Taskforce. The task force will be comprised of Australian and Indian experts in green hydrogen production and deployment. It complements the work of the India-Australia Solar Taskforce welcomed by the Prime Ministers of Australia and India in March 2023. The Solar Taskforce will provide advice on opportunities to accelerate solar PV deployment and enhance supply chains. The Australia-India Green Steel Partnership is helping India meet growing steel requirements while supporting the commercialization of innovative technologies that improve efficiencies and environmental outcomes in steel production. Education Relationship:- Education is Australia’s largest service export to India, valued at $4.4 billion in 2022. As of May 2023, almost 88,000 Indian visa holders were studying in Australia. Defence Relationship:- Australia’s defence engagement with India gathered significant momentum in 2022 and has continued to grow. Since signing our CSP in 2020 and the Mutual Logistics Support Agreement in 2021. For the first time in 2023, Australia will host Exercise Malabar – a joint training initiative with India, the US and Japan. They regularly exercise together during Exercise AUSTRAHIND and AUSINDEX, bilateral army and navy exercises. They conduct Maritime Patrol Aircraft deployments to enhance maritime domain awareness.  MUST READ: India-Australia Economic Co-operation and Trade Agreement SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of:(2015) ASEAN BRICS OECD WTO Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) Syllabus Prelims – ECONOMY Context: Recent data shows that the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) added 17.21 lakh net members during September 2023. Background:- This is an increase of 21 thousand 475 net members over the previous month of August. About Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO):- The EPFO is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India. It is one of the World’s largest Social Security Organisations in terms of clientele and the volume of financial transactions undertaken. It into existence with the promulgation of the Employees’ Provident Funds Ordinance on the 15th of November 1951. It was replaced by the Employees’ Provident Funds Act, of 1952. The Employees’ Provident Funds Bill was introduced in the Parliament in the year 1952 as a Bill to provide for the institution of provident funds for employees in factories and other establishments. The Act is now referred to as the Employees’ Provident Funds & Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 which extends to the whole of India. The Act and Schemes framed there under are administered by a tri-partite Board known as the Central Board of Trustees, Employees’ Provident Fund. The Central Board of Trustees : It consists of representatives of Government (Both Central and State), Employers, and Employees. It administers a contributory provident fund, a pension scheme and an insurance scheme for the workforce engaged in the organized sector in India. It is assisted by the Employees’ PF Organization (EPFO), consisting of offices at 138 locations across the country. The Organization has a well-equipped training set-up where officers and employees of the Organization as well as Representatives of the Employers and Employees attend sessions for training and seminars. Vision: An innovation-driven social security organisation aiming to extend universal coverage and ensure Nirbadh (Seamless and uninterrupted) service delivery to its stakeholders through state-of-the-art technology. Schemes under EPFO:- EPF Scheme 1952 It provides for the accumulation plus interest upon retirement and death. Partial withdrawals are allowed for education, marriage, illness and house construction. (Nidhi Aapke Nikat 2.0) Pension Scheme 1995

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   World Television Day Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT DAYS Context: Recently, World Television Day was globally observed. Background:- World Television Day is globally observed today to highlight the importance of visual media and to recognize its increasing impact on decision-making and potential role in shaping global conversations. About World Television Day:- Date: 21st   November Theme for 2023: ‘Accessibility’. Historical Background:- On this day in 1996, the United Nations held the First World Television Forum and decided to observe 21st November every year as World Television Day. TV was invented by a Scottish engineer, John Logie Baird in 1924. TV in India:- It was introduced in India on 15th September 1959 in New Delhi with the assistance of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). Daily transmission began in 1965 as a part of Akashvani. National telecast was introduced in 1982 and in the same year, colour television was introduced in the Indian market. During this time, there was only one national channel, the government-owned ‘Krishi Darshan’ was telecast in 1967 as the first and Indian television’s longest-running programme. ‘Ramayana’ and ‘Mahabharata’ were the first major television series produced. Other shows like ‘Hum Log’, ‘Wagle Ki Duniya’ and ‘Buniyaad’ were also popular. The invention of television revolutionised the way we communicate and consume information. On this day, meet-ups at local and global levels take place to raise awareness among people about the role television plays in communication and globalization. (Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development (BIND) scheme) Significance:- This day also marks the commitment of governments, news organizations and individuals to deliver unbiased information in times when the authenticity of content on social media platforms is questionable. MUST READ: On regulation of Digital media (Sudarshan TV Case) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 54th International Film Festival of India Syllabus Prelims – AWARDS Context: Recently, Veteran Hollywood actor & producer Michael Douglas addressed a Masterclass at the 54th International Film Festival of India in Goa. Background:- The legendary American actor will also be honoured with the Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award at the closing ceremony of IFFI on the same day. About the 54th International Film Festival of India:- Date: 20th to 28th of November. Venue: Goa. Organized by: National Film Development Corporation of India Ltd (NFDC). Ministry: Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. Historical Background:- Since 1952, India has hosted 53 International Film Festival of India (IFFI) both competitive and non-competitive. The festival became an annual event from 1975 onwards. The 54th edition of the festival, which includes a competition for feature films by Directors from all Continents will be held in Goa. Government of India in collaboration with the State Government of Goa and the Indian Film Industry. The Festival is recognized by the International Federation of Film Producers Associations (FIAPF) as a Competitive Feature Film Festival. Objectives:- providing a common platform for filmmakers of the world to project their excellence in film art. contributing to the understanding and appreciation of film cultures of different nations in the context of their social and cultural ethos promoting friendship and co-operation among people of the world. Categories:- The festival programme is broadly divided into the following categories: – International Competition for Feature Films (up to 15 numbers. Up to three Indian Films will be selected for this section. Fiction Films with a minimum duration of 70 minutes and above). Non-Competition (World Panorama) – for feature films from around the world ( Films with a minimum duration of 70 minutes and above). Country Focus & other specially curated packages (Indian & Foreign) and Special Screenings/Gala Premieres. Indian Panorama – for Indian feature films, Indian Panorama Regulations 2023 will be applicable. Technical Workshops/Masterclasses/other Interactive and academic Sessions/Panel Discussions/Talent Hub etc. both virtual and physical. Film Bazaar: IFFI also hosts the Film Bazaar, South Asia’s largest and One of Asia’s most prolific Film Markets showcasing rich content to potential buyers from different countries across the world. National Film Development Corporation Ltd (NFDC) reserves the right to exclude films that are not in conformity with the philosophy and objective of the festival, which could offend the feelings/susceptibilities of any participating country, or are likely to promote discrimination of any kind. Awards & Prizes:- Best Film: A Cash prize of Rs. 40,00,000/- to be shared equally between the Director and Producer. (The urgent need for CBFC reforms) Director to be given the Golden Peacock and a Certificate in addition to the cash component. Producer to be given a Certificate in addition to the cash component. Best Director: Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs.15,00,000/- Best Actor (Male): Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/- Best Actor (Female): Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/- Special Jury Award: Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 15,00,000/- given to a film (for any aspect of the film which the jury wishes to award/acknowledge) or an individual (for his/her artistic contribution to a film). The award, if given to a film, will be given to the Director of the film. Award for Best Debut Feature Film of a Director. Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award for Excellence in Cinema This prestigious award, instituted in the name of

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Ozone Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent reports suggest that the ozone Hole May Not Be Recovering After all. Background:- The hole in the Antarctic ozone layer has been getting deeper in mid-spring over the last two decades, despite a global ban on chemicals that deplete Earth’s shield from deadly solar radiation, new research suggested. About Ozone:- Ozone is a gas composed of three atoms of oxygen. It is both a natural and a man-made product. It occurs in the Earth’s Stratosphere and the Troposphere. Stratospheric ozone is formed naturally through the interaction of solar ultraviolet (UV) radiation with molecular oxygen (O2). Ozone is produced naturally in the stratosphere. But this ozone is gradually being destroyed by man-made chemicals referred to as ozone-depleting substances (ODS), including chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), halons, methyl bromide, carbon tetrachloride, and methyl chloroform. Effects of Ozone Layer Depletion:- Humans may have severe health problems as a result, including skin conditions, cancer, sunburns, cataracts, rapid ageing, and weakened immune systems. Animals that are directly exposed to UV light develop skin and eye cancer. Strong UV radiation may prevent plants from growing, blooming, or performing photosynthesis. Planktons are greatly affected by exposure to harmful ultraviolet rays. (Ozone Levels Exceeding Permitted Levels) Efforts taken to control ground-level ozone pollution:- Adoption of BS-VI standards The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) for Delhi was prepared by the Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate Change (MoEFCC) after the order of the Supreme Court in December 2016. The Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) is responsible for its implementation. It aims to prevent the worsening of the Air Quality of Delhi-NCR including Ozone pollution. (Ozone Hole Recovery) National Clean Air Programme (NCAP): The government launched this campaign to reduce air pollution in 102 non-attainment cities including Ozone pollution. MUST READ: Preservation of Ozone Hole SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements: (2021) The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is part of a project led by Climate Change, Agriculture, and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research program. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centres. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 ISRAEL-PALESTINE CONFLICT Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi welcomed the agreement for the ongoing  ISRAEL-PALESTINE CONFLICT. Background:- Israel and the Palestinian terror group Hamas agreed to the release of 50 hostages held in Gaza and a temporary pause in fighting. In his remarks at the virtual G20 Leaders Summit last evening, Mr Modi expressed hope that all the hostages will be released soon. About ISRAEL-PALESTINE CONFLICT:- IMAGE SOURCE: express.co.uk Both Israelis and Palestinians have been in a struggle for self-determination and sovereignty over the territory, developing respective movements for their causes. (India, Israel and Palestine) Both Palestinians and Israelis see the territory between the Jordan River and the Mediterranean Sea as their own, and Christians, Jews, and Muslims all hold parts of the land as sacred. The past seven decades have brought war and uprisings. (15th India-Israel Joint Working Group) Historic Timeline:- Ottoman Empire: The Ottoman Empire had controlled that part of the Middle East from the early 16th century until control of most of the region was granted to the British after World War I. In 1916: the Sykes-Picot Agreement secretly negotiated between Britain and France planned to carve up the Middle East into spheres of influence, and determined that the land in question was to be internationalized. In 1917: Britain’s foreign secretary, Lord Arthur Balfour, expressed his government’s support for “the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people. 1947: UN resolution 1947: After World War II, nearing the end of the British Mandate for Palestine, the United Nations General Assembly in 1947 passed Resolution 181, urging the partition of the land into two independent states — one Arab and one Jewish. Religiously significant Jerusalem is to be under special international administration. The plan is not implemented after the Arab side rejects it, arguing that it is unfavourable to their majority population. Violence in the regional conflict grows. 1948: Israel declares independence. Israel declared independence in May 1948. The next day, a coalition of Arab states, allied with Palestinian factions, attacked Israeli forces in what became the first of several Arab-Israeli wars. In the end, Israel gains control of an even larger portion of territory — not including the areas of the West Bank and Gaza Strip. 1967: the Six-Day War In June of 1967, a war known as the “Six-Day War” or the 1967 Arab-Israeli War broke out amid lingering conflicts, including Egypt’s continued blockade of shipping into the Gulf of Aqaba. Israel ultimately takes control of the Gaza Strip, Sinai, the West Bank, the Golan Heights, and predominantly Palestinian East Jerusalem. The Arab armies suffered massive losses. 1987: First intifada A Palestinian uprising, or intifada, brings largely spontaneous clashes, protests, and civil disobedience against Israeli occupation in the West Bank, Gaza, and Israel, leading to harsh Israeli military crackdowns. Unrest continues for years, with many killed or injured

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Malaria Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, experts say that East Africa may experience a surge in El Nino-related malaria infections. Background:- Impending outbreaks of new infections can wipe away gains in malaria control, they say. About Malaria:- It is a life-threatening mosquito-borne blood disease. It is caused by Plasmodium parasites. It is predominantly found in the tropical and subtropical areas of Africa, South America as well and Asia. It is preventable as well as curable. Symptoms:- Symptoms usually begin ten to fifteen days after being bitten by an infected mosquito. Symptoms include fever, tiredness, vomiting, and headaches. In severe cases, it can cause jaundice, seizures, coma, or death. Transmission:- The parasites spread through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. In the human body, parasites initially multiply in liver cells and then attack the Red Blood Cells (RBCs). There are 5 parasite species that cause Malaria in humans and 2 of these species (Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax) pose the greatest threat. Prevention:- Using mosquito nets when sleeping in places where malaria is present Using mosquito repellents (containing DEET, IR3535 or Icaridin) after dusk Using coils and vaporizers. Wearing protective clothing. Using window screens. Treatment:- Artemisinin-based combination therapy medicines like artemether-lumefantrine are usually the most effective medicines. Chloroquine is recommended for the treatment of infection with the vivax parasite only in places where it is still sensitive to this medicine. Primaquine should be added to the main treatment to prevent relapses of infection with the P. vivax and P. ovale parasites. Most medicines used are in pill form. Some people may need to go to a health centre or hospital for injectable medicines. (Malaria Vaccine) India’s status:- In India, malaria elimination efforts were initiated in These were intensified after the launch of the National Framework for Malaria Elimination (NFME) in 2016. It is an initiative under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. NFME is in line with WHO’s 2016-2030 Malaria Strategy. (World Malaria Report 2021) WHO’s 2016-2030 Malaria Strategy: guides the WHO Global Malaria Programme (GMP). Status on elimination: India continues to show a sustained decline in overall malaria but faces several challenges in its malaria elimination journey. MUST READ: New hope for malaria vaccine SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following diseases (2014) Diphtheria Chickenpox Smallpox Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 None Q.2) Widespread resistance of the malarial parasites to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine? (2010) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host Air Quality Index (AQI) Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY/ ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the Air Quality Index in the overall Delhi region was recorded at 323. Background:- The air quality level was recorded in the “Very Poor” category in the National Capital. About Air Quality Index (AQI):- Air Quality Index (AQI) is a number used by government agencies to measure air pollution levels and communicate it to the population. (Air pollution) There are six AQI categories, namely Good, Satisfactory, Moderately polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and Severe. Each of these categories is decided based on ambient concentration values of air pollutants and their likely health impacts (known as health breakpoints). AQ sub-index and health breakpoints are evolved for eight pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb) for which short-term (up to 24-hours) National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed. As the AQI increases, it means that a large percentage of the population will experience severe adverse health effects. The measurement of the AQI requires an air monitor and an air pollutant concentration over a specified averaging period. The results are grouped into ranges. Each range is assigned a descriptor, a colour code and a standardized public health advisory. The pollution sources in India and in most Asian countries are numerous and incompletely understood. In Delhi, for example, it comes mostly from light and heavy-duty vehicle traffic emissions, road dust, solid fuel combustion for heating and cooking, biomass, waste burning, thermal power plants, diesel generators, construction and small-scale local industries. ( Delhi and Air Pollution) Government Initiatives:- The National Air Quality Index Standard (NAQI): It was launched by The Minister for Environment, Forests & Climate Change, Shri Prakash Javadekar, on 17 September 2014. The initiative constitutes part of the Government’s mission to introduce the “culture of cleanliness”, as air pollution has been a huge concern in the country, especially in urban areas The National Air Monitoring Program (NAMP): it covers 240 cities in the country, has been operated by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and developed by the Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur (IIT), providing data in the public domain, on a real-time basis. System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research (SAFAR) Portal. Graded Response Action Plan. Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) Reducing Vehicular Pollution: BS-VI Vehicles, Push for Electric Vehicles (EVs), Odd-Even Policy as an emergency measure. Subsidy to farmers for buying Turbo Happy Seeder (THS) Machine. MUST READ: Initiatives and Measures for Prevention of Air Pollution SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 ug/m3. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Tropical cyclones Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recent studies suggest that Tropical cyclones cause more damage than we think. Background:- India is among the countries facing a high social cost of carbon. About Tropical cyclones:- IMAGE SOURCE: Britannica A cyclone is a pattern of winds (or air mass) that circulates a low-pressure system. It rotates counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. (Naming of Cyclone) It is an intense circular storm that originates over warm tropical oceans. It is characterized by low atmospheric pressure, high winds, and heavy rain. These are formed over slightly warm ocean waters. The temperature of the top layer of the sea, up to a depth of about 60 meters, needs to be at least 28°C to support the formation of a cyclone. April-May and October-December periods are conducive for cyclones. ( Bomb Cyclone) Then, the low level of air above the waters needs to have an ‘anticlockwise’ rotation (in the northern hemisphere; clockwise in the southern hemisphere). During these periods, there was an ITCZ in the Bay of Bengal. MUST READ: (Colour Coded Weather Warning) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Igla-S Syllabus Prelims –DEFENCE Context: Recently, India announced the procurement of Igla-S, a powerful air defence system from Russia. Background:- India is all set to procure a powerful anti-aircraft missile system from Russia — its top weapons supplier which will help boost its defence capabilities along the China and Pakistan borders. About Igla-S:- Igla-S is a prominent and highly effective man-portable air defence system (MANPADS) developed by Russia. The Igla-S is developed and manufactured by the Russian state-owned defence company, KBM (Design Bureau of Machine Building), which specializes in designing missile systems. It entered service with the Russian Army in 2004. (Ballistic missiles) It can be fired by an individual or crew to bring down an enemy aircraft. It is a next-generation surface-to-air missile designed for engaging low-flying aircraft, helicopters, drones, and cruise missiles. It offers superior performance over earlier supplied SA-18 missiles to India. It is designed for use against visible aerial targets at short ranges such as tactical aircraft, helicopters, unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs), and cruise missiles, head-on or receding, in the presence of natural (background) clutter and countermeasures. The Igla-S system consists of the 9M342 missile, which is a part of combat equipment. MUST READ: Intercontinental Ballistic Missile SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) India is a member of which of the following? (2015) Asia-Pacific economic corporation. Association of South-East Asian Nations. East Asia Summit Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2, and 3 India is a member of none of them Q.2) With reference to ‘The Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, Consider the following statements: (2015) It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills It is an alliance meant for maritime security only Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Hindustan Aeronautics Limited Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited the Hindustan Aeronautics Limited site in Bengaluru. Background:- The visit has come at a crucial time as the Indian Air Force recently issued a tender to HAL for the purchase of 12 advanced Su-30MKI fighter jets. About Hindustan Aeronautics Limited:- HQ: Bangalore, India. MINISTRY: Ministry of Defense. HAL is a state-owned Indian aerospace and defense firm. VISION: To be a global leader in the Aerospace & Defense Industry. The Company which had its origin as Hindustan Aircraft Limited was incorporated on 23 Dec 1940 at Bangalore by Shri Walchand Hirachand in association with the then Government of Mysore, with the aim of manufacturing aircraft in India. In March 1941, the Government of India became one of the shareholders in the Company and subsequently took over its management in 1942. In collaboration with the Inter Continental Aircraft Company of USA, the Company commenced its business of manufacturing Harlow Trainer, Curtiss Hawk Fighter and Vultee Bomber Aircraft. In January 1951, Hindustan Aircraft Limited was placed under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence, Government of India. It mainly engages in aerospace activities and is presently involved in the fabrication & production of aircraft, design, helicopters, jet engines & their replacement parts. (Dornier aircraft) It has many facilities scattered throughout India, including Bangalore, Kanpur, Nasik, Koraput, Korwa, Lucknow, Kasaragod and Hyderabad.  MUST READ: Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q2. Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Sea buckthorn Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Ladakh is eyeing more production of sea buckthorn post GI tag. Background:- As per official records, at least 600 tonnes of sea buckthorn

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Nidirana noadihing Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, scientists have discovered a new species of ‘music frog’ Nidirana noadihing in Arunachal Pradesh. Background:- The scientists, Bitupan Boruah, V Deepak, and Abhijit Das, detailed their findings in an article published in the November 15 edition of the journal Zootaxa About Nidirana noadihing:- The Noa-Dihing Music Frog boasts a ‘robust’ body. The males measure approximately 1.8 to 2.3 inches and females ranging from about 2.4 to 2.6 inches. ( New Species of frog in Andaman found) It received its name, Nidirana noadihing, as a homage to the Noa-Dihing River, the vicinity where these unique specimens were encountered and collected. They have ’rounded’ snouts and ‘smooth’ skin, adorned with bony protrusions on their backs. They showcase a striking colour palette, featuring a ‘pale cream’ line bordered with dark brown along the centre of their bodies. Light brown limbs, adorned with dark stripes, further enhance their visual distinctiveness. The speciality of this new species of frog, Nidirana noadihing, is that both the male and female are vocal. Noa-Dihing Music Frogs are distinguished not only by their size but also by their oval toe tips, the tubercles on their backs, and a distinctive call. The irregularly shaped and sized spots on their eyelids, along with dark stripes around their moderately large eyes, contribute to their unique visual features. Significance of the Discovery:- This discovery marks the first confirmation of the Nidirana genus’s presence in India, expanding its known habitat beyond regions in Japan, Taiwan, China, Vietnam, Laos, and Thailand. MUST READ: Atelopus or harlequin frogs SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Governor Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the Supreme Court, in a 27-page judgment, has clarified that the rejection of a Bill by a Governor does not mean its death. Background:- The court says Article 200 of the Constitution provides the Governor with three options — consent to the proposed law, withhold consent, or reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President About Governor:- Article 153 of the Constitution provides the provision that there shall be a Governor for each State. Articles 155 and 156: Under Articles 155 and 156 of the Constitution, a Governor is appointed by the President and holds office “during the pleasure of the President”. If this pleasure is withdrawn before the completion of the five-year term, the Governor has to step down. As the President works on the aid and advice of the Prime Minister and the council of ministers, in effect, the Governor can be appointed and removed by the central government. Article 163: says the Governor will normally be aided and advised by the Council of Ministers except in those functions which require his discretion.  Constitutional power of the Governor related to State Bills:- Article 200 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Governor’s powers in relation to assenting to legislation enacted by the State legislature and other functions of the Governor such as reserving the bill for consideration by the President. Article 201 relates to “Bills Reserved for Consideration”: Governors have absolute veto power, suspense veto power (except on money bills), but no pocket veto power. Absolute Veto: This refers to the Governor’s power to refuse to sign a bill passed by the Assembly. Suspensive Veto: A suspensive veto is used by the Governor when he returns a bill to the State Assembly for reconsideration. If the Assembly resends the bill to the Governor, with or without alteration, he must approve it without using any of his veto powers. The Governor may not use his suspensive veto in connection to the Money Bill Pocket Veto: Power of the President, in pocket veto, the bill is held pending indefinitely. He neither rejects nor sends the measure back for review. MUST READ: Delhi CM-LG stalemate SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2018) No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? (2014) Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule Appointing the Ministers Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration by the President of India Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Wasp-107b Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, a Jupiter-sized exoplanet “Wasp-107b” discovered by NASA. Background:- NASA’s James Webb Telescope has discovered a new exoplanet, which is the size of Jupiter. About Wasp-107b:- WASP-107b is an exoplanet. It was discovered in 2017. It orbits the star WASP-107. It is 200 light years away from the Earth. It is located in the constellation Virg. Earlier, scientists believed that the planet was huge in size due to the huge gas envelope that surrounded the planet. Also, the scientists believed that such huge gas envelopes are possible only with massive and dense cores. However, a recent study says that the cores of WASP-107b are not as dense as thought earlier. It orbits the star WASP-107. It is 200 light years away from the Earth. It is located in the constellation Virg MUST READ: Space sustainability SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q2.

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Silkyara Tunnel Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Silkyara tunnel rescue operations entered their 16th day. Background:- The accident when the workers were trapped in the Silkyara Tunnel located on the Uttarkashi-Yamnotri Road. The collapse happened about 270m from the entrance of the Silkyara side. The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF), the State Disaster Relief Force (SDRF) and the police are among the main figures in the multi-agency rescue operations. About Silkyara Tunnel:- Location: Uttarakhand. The total length of the tunnel is 5 km. It is meant to connect Silkyara to Dandal gaon in Uttarkashi district. The double-lane tunnel is pegged as one of the longest tunnels under the Char Dham all-weather road project. (The significance of the Char Dham board verdict) It aims to reduce the journey from Uttarkashi to Yamunotri Dham by 26 kilometres. From the Silkyara side, 2.3km of tunnel has been constructed, while 1.6km of tunnelling work has been completed from the Barkot end. Approximately, a 400m stretch of the tunnel is yet to be constructed. The Silkyara tunnel is part of the ongoing construction between Silkyara and Dandalgaon on the Brahmakhal-Yamunotri stretch of the National Highway under the Char Dham project. Char Dham Project: Launched in December 2016, it aims to enhance connectivity between the four pilgrimage sites of Char Dham—Kedarnath, Badrinath, Yamunotri, and Gangotri. MUST READ: Char Dham Highways SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 New Zealand Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Christopher Luxon sworn in as New Zealand’s prime minister. Background:- The swearing-in ceremony was presided over by Governor-General Cindy Kiro. About New Zealand:- IMAGE SOURCE: Nations Online New Zealand, an island country in the South Pacific Ocean, the southwesternmost part of Polynesia. It lies more than 1,000 miles (1,600 km) southeast of Australia, its nearest neighbour. The country comprises two main islands—the North and the South Island—and a number of small islands, some of them hundreds of miles from the main group. The capital city is The largest urban area in Auckland. The North Island of New Zealand has a ‘spine’ of mountain ranges running through the middle, with gentle rolling farmland on both sides. The central North Island is dominated by the Volcanic Plateau, an active volcanic and thermal area. The massive Southern Alps form the backbone of the South Island. To the east of the Southern Alps is the rolling farmland of Otago and Southland, and the vast, flat Canterbury Plains. India-New Zealand Relations:- Historical Relations: India and New Zealand have a longstanding, friendly and growing relationship. Our ties go back to the 1800s, with Indians settling in Christchurch as early as the 1850s. Political Relations: India and New Zealand have cordial and friendly relations rooted in the linkages of the Commonwealth, parliamentary democracy, and the English language. Economic relations: India NZ Business Council (INZBC) and India NZ Trade Alliance (INZTA) are the two prominent organizations working to promote India-NZ trade and investment relations. ( India and RCEP) Cultural Relations: All Indian festivals including Diwali, Holi, Rakshabandhan, Baisakhi, Guruparv, Onam, Pongal, etc. are celebrated with much enthusiasm all over NZ. MUST READ: India-Australia relations SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (2022) Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Q.2) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco Region along the Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea areas Dead Sea Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, A new school for 400 children evacuated from the Gaza area opened near the Dead Sea. Background:- One month after the start of the war in Gaza, Israel’s Minister of Education Yoav Kish held the official opening ceremony of the first school established in the Tamar Regional Council (by the Dead Sea) for students from first to twelfth grades who were evacuated from their homes. About Dead Sea:- The Dead Sea is a landlocked salt lake between Israel and Jordan in southwestern Asia. The Dead Sea, also known as the Salt Sea. It has the lowest elevation on land and is the world’s lowest body of water. (Global Sea-level Rise and Implications) The water in the Dead Sea is roughly ten times saltier than ocean water in general. This salinity makes for a harsh environment in which animals cannot flourish, hence its name. It lies to the east of the Mediterranean Sea and south of the Sea of Galilee. It lies in the Jordan Rift Valley. It is fed mainly by the Jordan River, which enters the lake from the north. It is 306 m deep, the deepest hypersaline lake in the world. Clinical studies have shown that the high mineral concentration of its water and mud, zinc, and oxygen-rich air can treat a variety of ailments, including psoriasis and other skin conditions, asthma, rheumatism, high blood pressure, and more. MUST READ: Deep-Sea Mining SOURCE: NEWSX PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second-largest gold reserves in the

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Zimbabwe Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS/ GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Zimbabwe announced the construction of its first utility geothermal power plant. Background:- The project aims to reduce Zimbabwe’s reliance on hydropower energy sources, which are under threat due to climate change. About Zimbabwe:- IMAGE SOURCE: WorldAtlas Location: Southern Africa. Capital: Harare. Zimbabwe is a landlocked country. Zimbabwe shares its borders with Zambia, Mozambique, South Africa, and Botswana. The country boasts diverse landscapes, including savannas, mountains (such as the Eastern Highlands), and plateaus. It has the iconic Victoria Falls on the Zambezi River. Zimbabwe, lies to the north of the Tropic of Capricorn. It is completely within the tropics but enjoys subtropical conditions. It is dominated by Savvanah grasslands. Major Rivers:- Zambezi River: The Zambezi, one of Africa’s largest rivers, flows through Zimbabwe, creating the iconic Victoria Falls, one of the world’s largest waterfalls. Limpopo River: Forms part of Zimbabwe’s southern border with South Africa and serves as a vital water source for the region. Save River: A major river in southeastern Zimbabwe, it is a key waterway supporting agriculture and wildlife in the region. Mountains and Highlands:- Eastern Highlands: This mountainous region, bordering Mozambique, features high peaks, lush forests, and fertile valleys. Mount Nyangani is the highest peak in Zimbabwe, part of the Eastern Highlands. Chimanimani Mountains: A subrange of the Eastern Highlands, known for its scenic beauty, diverse flora, and popular hiking trails. Matobo Hills: Located in the southwest, these granite hills are renowned for their unique rock formations, ancient rock art, and spiritual significance to the local communities. MUST READ: India-Africa Relationship SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                                    Turkey Amhara                                                   Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                          Spain Catalonia                                                   Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 ISSF World Cup Final 2023 Syllabus Prelims –SPORTS Context: Recently, the competitive phase of the ISSF World Cup Final 2023 began. Background:- The ISSF World Cup Final 2023 began with 10m Air Pistol Men and women events. About ISSF World Cup Final 2023:- Date: November 18th, to 26th November, 2023. Venue: Doha, Qatar. The competition will witness 13 Indian shooters competing for top honours across various shooting disciplines. This season finale will showcase the top 15 shooters from this year’s World Cup circuit across 12 shooting events. (Grand Slam) India currently holds the third position in the World Cup medal standings with three gold, one silver and five bronze medals. China is leading the table with seven gold medals. Serbia is in second spot with the same number of golds as India and an additional silver medal. Leading the Indian contingent will be Aishwarya Pratap Singh Tomar, a multiple medal-winner at the Asian Games 2022 and Rudrankksh Balasaheb Patil, a former world number one. Apart from these two, the team comprises the Paris Olympics 2024 quota holders Mehuli Ghosh, Akhil Sheoran, Sarabjot Singh, Anish Bhanwala, and Asian Games 2022 bronze medalist Ramita Jindal. Tokyo Olympian Elavenil Valarivan is another key member of the team. MUST READ: Sports Code SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship: The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Black Stork Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, Black Stork was spotted for the first time in Hastinapur. Background:- A Black Stork, a species rarely seen, has been spotted in the Hastinapur Wildlife Sanctuary in Uttar Pradesh, India. About Black Stork:- Scientific Name: Ciconia nigra. FAMILY: Ciconiidae. The black stork is a large bird in the stork family Ciconiidae. (Blackbuck) It was first described by Carl Linnaeus in the 10th edition of his Systema Naturae. Measuring on average 95 to 100 cm (37 to 39 in) from beak tip to end of tail with a 145-to-155 cm (57-to-61 in) wingspan. The adult black stork has mainly black plumage, with white underparts, long red legs and a long pointed red beak. It is a widespread but uncommon species. It breeds in scattered locations across Europe (predominantly in Portugal and Spain, and central and eastern parts), and east across the Palearctic to the Pacific Ocean. It is a long-distance migrant, with European populations wintering in tropical Sub-Saharan Africa, and Asian populations in the Indian subcontinent. When migrating between Europe and Africa, it avoids crossing the Mediterranean Sea and detours via the Levant in the east or the Strait of Gibraltar in the west. An isolated,

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Finland Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, Finland announced that it will close its last remaining road border with Russia due to its concerns over migration. Background:- Finnish Prime Minister Petteri Orpo has said, that Finland will close its last remaining road border with Russia due to its concerns over migration, as the country accused Moscow of undermining Finland’s national security. About Finland:- IMAGE SOURCE: BRITANNICA Capital: Helsinki Finland, a country located in northern Europe. Finland is one of the world’s most northern and geographically remote countries. It is subject to a severe climate. Finland forms a symbolic northern border between Western and Eastern Europe. Bilateral relations:- Finland has excellent relations with India. Finland established diplomatic relations with India in 1949, after the country had gained independence in 1947. In recent years, the consolidation of the political and economic cooperation between the countries has been reflected in an increase in joint initiatives and the active exchange of delegations. Trade and economic relations:- Finland’s trade and economic relations with India rely on the export of paper, machinery, equipment and industry services from Finland to India. India’s exports to Finland are correspondingly centred on pharmaceutical, chemical and textile products. Services – particularly in the area of ICT and digital solutions also have a significant role in Indian exports to Finland. ( Finland gets world’s youngest PM)  MUST READ: Finlandization SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia Turkey Amhara Ethiopia Cabo Delgado Spain Catalonia Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Pirola Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Pirola, has seen a threefold increase in cases over a two-week period. Background:- Pirola is predominantly circulating in the US northeast, where it ranks as the second most prevalent variant (13%) following HV.1. About Pirola:- Pirola or 2.86 Variant is a new strain of COVID-19 with 35 mutations, causing concerns about immune evasion and vaccine efficacy. It demonstrates distinct symptoms like rashes, conjunctivitis, and diarrhoea. (Second Wave of COVID-19) The Pirola variant has been detected in several countries, including the US, the UK, and others. The fact that these cases are unrelated suggests some degree of international transmission, which is concerning. The concern with such mutations is that they could potentially make the virus more transmissible or resistant to immunity gained from previous infections or vaccinations. The WHO has classified BA.2.86 as a variant under monitoring. The spike protein of the Pirola variant has over 30 mutations, which is the protein that the virus utilizes to bind to human cells. This indicates that the Pirola variant could be more contagious or evade vaccines more than other Omicron subvariants. MUST READ: iNCOVACC SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. VAJRA PRAHAR Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, Indo-US Special Forces Exercise Vajra Prahar Began. Background:- Indian and US special forces on Tuesday started joint exercise “Vajra Prahar” at the Joint Training Node, in Umroi, Meghalaya. About VAJRA PRAHAR:- Date: November 21 to December 11, 2023. Time period: it is conducted annually. Venue: Umroi Cantonment, Meghalaya. Vajra Prahar is an annual exercise alternately hosted by the Special Forces of India and the United States. These Special Forces units are dedicated to covert operations, counterterrorism, and other specialized military tasks. It is crucial for addressing the security challenges both nations face in the current global context. VAJRA PRAHAR has evolved as a platform to exchange ideas, enhance interoperability, and strengthen defence cooperation between the Special Forces of both India and the United States. The exercise is conducted in two phases, involving combat conditioning, tactical-level special missions training exercises, and a subsequent validation phase to assess and confirm the training received by both contingents. Key activities include Combat Free Fall insertion of troops, Waterborne insertion of troops, Precision engagement of targets at long ranges, Combat air controlling of fixed-wing and rotary-wing aircraft, and Airborne insertion and sustenance of troops.  MUST READ: India-USA relations SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin? (2023) Cameroon Nigeria South Sudan Uganda Q.2) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Pneumonia Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently,

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   HH 1177 system Syllabus Prelims – SPACE Context: Recently, for the first time, astronomers have glimpsed a young star HH 1177 system outside the Milky Way galaxy. Background:- Newborn stars with these circumstellar disks had been observed by astronomers only in our Milky Way galaxy – until now About HH 1177 system:- HH 1177 is a massive star, with a rotating disk that was spotted in the Large Magellanic Cloud, a neighbouring dwarf galaxy that’s about 160,000 light-years away. ( Map of Milky Way |) A colossal star such as HH 1177 lives fast and dies young, forming more quickly and only having a life span that’s a fraction of that of a star like our sun. This shortened timeline makes the early stages of a massive star hard to observe in our galaxy, as both the star and its disk are hidden from view by the dusty material from which it forms. HH 1177 is within a stellar nursery, called N180, that has less dust and lower metal abundance. The star isn’t obscured by a cocoon of gas and dust. A newborn star grows in size by pulling in matter from its surroundings. The gas and dust accumulate in a flat disk around the star, known as an accretion disk, as a result of strong gravitational forces. The spinning disk transports the matter onto the star, which gets increasingly larger. The greater the star’s mass, the more powerful its gravitational field becomes, thereby pulling more gas and dust into the disk. MUST READ: Dark galaxy SOURCE: CNN PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q2. Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Rheumatoid arthritis Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY-HEALTH Context: Recent studies show cases of rheumatoid arthritis in young adults. Background:- According to health experts, youngsters with RA may find themselves navigating a world of chronic pain, fatigue and limited physical abilities. About Rheumatoid arthritis:- IMAGE SOURCE: CreakyJoints Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory disorder. It is an autoimmune disorder, which occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks its own body’s tissues. Causes:- In a healthy person, the immune system fights invaders, such as bacteria and viruses. But with an autoimmune disease like RA, the immune system mistakes the body’s cells for foreign invaders and releases inflammatory chemicals that attack those cells. Unlike the wear-and-tear damage of osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis affects the lining of joints, causing a painful swelling that can eventually result in bone erosion and joint deformity. Symptoms:- Tender, warm, swollen joints. Joint stiffness that is usually worse in the mornings and after inactivity. Fatigue Fever Loss of appetite. Risk factors:- Sex: Women are more likely than men to develop rheumatoid arthritis. Age: Rheumatoid arthritis can occur at any age, but it most commonly begins in middle age. ( National Centres for Disease Control (NCDC)) Family history: If a member of your family has rheumatoid arthritis, you may have an increased risk of the disease. Smoking Treatment:- Exercise Medication Surgery MUST READ: Disease Surveillance System SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Air pollution Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY/ GEOGRAPHY Context: Recent studies show that  Air pollution causes over 2 million deaths annually in India. Background:- The research found that air pollution from using fossil fuels in industry, power generation, and transportation accounts for 5.1 million extra deaths a year worldwide. About Air pollution:- Air pollution is the presence of substances in the atmosphere that are harmful to the health of humans and other living beings, or cause damage to the climate or materials. (Delhi and Air Pollution) Different types of air pollutants include– Gases: such as ammonia, carbon monoxide, sulphur dioxide, nitrous oxides, methane, carbon dioxide and chlorofluorocarbons. Particulates: both organic and inorganic. Biological molecules. Air pollution may cause diseases, allergies, and even death to humans. Additionally, it may hurt other living things like animals and food crops, as well as impair the built environment or the natural environment (for instance, by causing climate change, ozone depletion, or habitat destruction) (for example, acid rain). Harmful Impacts of Air Pollution:- It may cause diseases, allergies and even death in humans. It can cause harm to other living organisms such as animals and food crops. Can lead to climate change and may damage the natural environment Ozone depletion or habitat degradation Built hazardous environments (for example, acid rain).  MUST READ: National Clean Air Campaign SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for (2021) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries Assessing the