Current Affairs

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   PM Vishwakarma Scheme Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: As per recent data, the PM Vishwakarma Scheme, launched by the Centre has received over 21 lakh applications in two and a half months. Background:- The highest number of applications came from Karnataka (6.28 lakh), followed by West Bengal (4.04 lakh), Assam (1.83 lakh), Uttar Pradesh (1.53 lakh) and Andhra Pradesh (1.21 lakh). About PM Vishwakarma Scheme:- Launched: September 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). It is a Central Sector Scheme. Objectives of PM Vishwakarma scheme:- To strengthen and nurture the Guru-Shishya parampara or family-based practice of traditional skills by artisans and craftspeople working with their hands and tools. To improve the quality, as well as the reach of products and services of artisans and craftspeople. To ensure that the Vishwakarmas are integrated with the domestic and global value chains. Salient Features of PM Vishwakarma scheme:- The artisans and craftspeople will be provided recognition through a PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card. Credit Support: Credit of up to Rs.1 lakh (First Tranche) and Rs.2 lakh (Second Tranche) will be given with a concessional interest rate of 5%. Skill learning: The Scheme will further provide Skill Upgradation, Toolkit Incentives, Incentives for Digital Transactions, and Marketing Support. Training: Skill development programs encompass both basic and advanced training. Stipend: Participants are entitled to a stipend of Rs 500 per day during their training period. Modern Tools and Equipment: Beneficiaries are eligible for financial support of up to ₹15,000 to procure modern tools, enhancing their efficiency and productivity. Sectors: Eighteen traditional trades will be covered in the first instance under PM Vishwakarma. These trades include (i) Carpenter (Suthar); (ii) Boat Maker; (iii) Armourer; (iv) Blacksmith (Lohar); (v) Hammer and Tool Kit Maker; (vi) Locksmith; (vii) Goldsmith (Sonar); (viii) Potter (Kumhaar); (ix) Sculptor (Moortikar, stone carver), Stone breaker; (x) Cobbler(Charmkar)/ Shoesmith/Footwear artisan; (xi) Mason (Rajmistri); (xii) Basket/Mat/Broom Maker/Coir Weaver; (xiii) Doll & Toy Maker (Traditional); (xiv) Barber (Naai); (xv) Garland maker (Malakaar); (xvi) Washerman (Dhobi); (xvii) Tailor (Darzi); and (xviii) Fishing Net Maker. Eligibility Criteria: – Indian Citizenship: Applicants must be Indian. Artisan or Craftsman: The applicant should be a traditional artisan or craftsman. Age Limit: No Age Limit for applying to the scheme. (Production Linked Incentive Scheme and its Implications) Benefits of PM Vishwakarma scheme:- The scheme will provide support to artisans and craftspeople in rural and urban areas across India. It caters to both urban and rural areas, facilitating employment. ( MSME Sustainable (ZED) Certification Scheme) Funding for training programs to enhance traditional skills. MUST READ: Small savings schemes SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Kavach system Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: As per a recent government release, the Kavach system, has so far been deployed on 1465 route km and 139 locomotives on South Central Railway sections. Background:- The sections include Lingamapalli – Vikarabad – Wadi and Vikarabad – Bidar section (265 Rkm), Manmad-Mudkhed-Dhone-Guntkal section (959Rkm) and Bidar-Parbhsection (241Rkm). About Kavach system:- IMAGE SOURCE: newssimplified.in KAVACH is an Automatic Train Protection (ATP) electronic system designed to help the Indian Railways achieve Zero Accidents. Objective: to achieve safety in train operations across Indian Railways. Development:- It has been indigenously developed. It was developed by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with the Indian industry. Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO): it is a research and development organisation under the Ministry of Railways. Working:- It has a set of electronic devices and Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) devices installed in locomotives, in the signalling system as well as the tracks. (RFID) These connect to each other using ultra-high radio frequencies to control the brakes of trains. It also alerts drivers, all based on the logic programmed into them. (KAVACH) It is a Safety Integrity Level 4 (SIL-4) certified technology. Safety Integrity Level (SIL): it comes from two voluntary standards used by plant owners/operators to quantify safety performance requirements for hazardous operations. There are four SIL Levels (1-4). A higher SIL Level means a greater process hazard and a higher level of protection. KAVACH will be the world’s cheapest automatic train collision protection system. First successful trial: between Gullaguda–Chitgidda Railway stations of South Central Railway in 2022. Salient features:- Automatic activation of the train braking system if the driver fails to control the train speed. Preventing collision between two Locomotives equipped with a functional KAVACH system. Sending continuous updates of Movement. (Mobile Train Radio Communication (MTRC) ) Auto Whistling while approaching Level Crossing Gates Sending SoS Messages during emergency situations. Centralised live monitoring of train movements through the Network Monitor System.  MUST READ: Vande Bharat 2.0 SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following communication technologies: (2022) Closed-circuit Television Radio Frequency Identification Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies? 1 and 2 only. 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Atal Pension Yojana (APY) Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, Atal Pension Yojana (APY) enrolments crossed the 6 crore mark. Background:-           The total enrolment under the Atal Pension Yojana (APY) has crossed 6 crore, with over 79 lakh enrolments in the current Financial Year. About Atal Pension Yojana (APY):- Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is an old-age income security scheme for all savings account holders between the age group 18-40 years. The scheme also addresses the longevity risks among the workers in the unorganized sector and encourages the workers to voluntarily save for their retirement. Under APY, the individual subscribers shall have the option to make the contribution on a monthly basis. Banks will be collecting  additional amounts for delayed payments, such amount will vary from a minimum of Rs. 1 per month to Rs 10/- per month as shown below: 1 per month for contributions up to Rs. 100 per month. 2 per month for contributions up to Rs. 101 to 500/- per month. 5 per month for contributions between Rs 501/- to 1000/- per month. 10 per month for contributions beyond Rs 1001/- per month. Discontinuation of payments of contribution amount shall lead to the following:- After 6 months account will be frozen. After 12 months account will be deactivated. After 24 months account will be closed. Upon exit on attaining 60 years The subscriber shall receive the following three benefits on attaining the age of 60: Guaranteed minimum pension amount: Each subscriber under APY shall receive a guaranteed minimum pension of Rs. 1000 per month or Rs. 2000 per month or Rs. 3000 per month or Rs. 4000 per month or Rs. 5000 per month, after the age of 60 years until death. Guaranteed minimum pension amount to the spouse: After the subscriber’s demise, the spouse of the subscriber shall be entitled to receive the same pension amount as that of the subscriber, until the death of the spouse. Return of the pension wealth to the nominee of the subscriber: After the demise of both the subscriber and the spouse, the nominee of the subscriber shall be entitled to receive the pension wealth, as accumulated till age 60 years of the subscriber. The contributions to the Atal Pension Yojana (APY) are eligible for tax benefits similar to the National Pension System (NPS) under section 80CCD(1). Voluntary exit (Exit before 60 Years of age): – The subscriber shall only be refunded the contributions made by him to APY along with the net actual accrued income earned on his contributions (after deducting the account maintenance charges). Exception: In the case of subscribers who joined the scheme before 31st March 2016 and received Government Co-Contribution shall not receive the Government co-contribution and the accrued income earned on the same, if opted for Voluntary exit before 60 years. Age of joining and contribution period The minimum age for joining APY is 18 years and the maximum age is 40 years. The age of exit and start of pension would be 60 years. Exclusions:- Tax Payers will not be eligible to join APY from 1 Oct 2022. Members of the statutory social security scheme are not eligible under this scheme. Members enrolled in statutory social security schemes like:- Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provision Act, 1952. The Coal Mines Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provision Act, 1948. Assam Tea Plantation Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provision, 1955. Seamens’ Provident Fund Act, 1966. Jammu Kashmir Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provision Act, 1961. Any other statutory social security scheme.  MUST READ: National Pension System SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2017) Resident Indian citizens only Persons of age from 21 to 55 only All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April 2004. Indian Tent Turtle Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, DRI rescued 436 baby Indian Tent Turtles in Lucknow. Background:- Acting on the basis of specific intelligence developed by Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI), Zonal Unit, Lucknow, seized 436 baby Indian Tent turtles from a person illegally transporting them interstate. About Indian Tent Turtles:- Family: Geoemydidae Genus :    Pangshura Species :   tentoria The size of the carapace ranges from 20 cm to 26.5 cm depending upon the subspecies. The colour of the turtles also varies according to each subspecies. Subspecies tentoria has an olive or brownish head with a red postocular spot, the carapace is brown in colour with amber or hazel stripe in the first three vertebras and the plastron is yellow with black blotches. A semi-aquatic species, mainly found in rivers and associated systems. Reproduction is oviparous. Distribution:- The species is native to India, Nepal and Bangladesh, with three subspecies recorded from the region viz., P. t. tentoria, P. t. circumdata and P. t. flaviventer. P. t. tentoria occurs in peninsular India and is recorded from Orissa, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Assam and Madhya Pradesh. P. t. circumdata occurs in the western tributaries of the Ganga and the rivers of Gujarat. Threats:- Damming of river (Turtle Conservation) Habitat degradation Conservation Status:- IUCN: Least concern IWPA: Schedule I CITES: Appendix II MUST READ: National Marine Turtle Action Plan SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which of the following organisms perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q2. Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY/ IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context:

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Climate Change Performance Index 2023 Syllabus Prelims-IMPORTANT INDICES Context: Recently, India ranked 7th on the climate change performance index 2023. Background:- India ranked up one spot from the previous one and also remained among the highest performers. About Climate Change Performance Index:- Published since: 2005. Time period: annual. Published by German Watch, New Climate Institute and Climate Action Network International based in Germany. Objective: to enhance transparency in international climate politics and enables comparison of climate protection efforts and progress made by individual countries. Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is an independent monitoring tool for tracking the climate protection performance of 59 countries and the EU. These 59 countries together account for 92% of global greenhouse gas emissions. The climate protection performance is assessed in four categories: GHG Emissions (40% of overall score), Renewable Energy (20% of overall score), Energy Use (20% of overall score) and Climate Policy (20% of overall score). Key highlights:- Denmark retained the top spot with a score of 75.59 per cent. Estonia and the Philippines occupied the second and third ranks respectively, with 72.07 and 70.70. Saudi Arabia was at the bottom 67th in the performance list, The host country United Arab Emirates occupied the 65th position. India’s performance:- While India is the world’s most populous country, it has relatively low per capita emissions, the index said. The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) country experts reported that India is trying to meet its Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), with clear long-term policies in place that focus on promoting renewable energy and providing financial support for domestic manufacturing of renewable energy components. India’s growing energy needs are still being met by its heavy reliance on coal, along with oil and gas, the report pointed out. “This dependence is a major source of greenhouse gas emissions and causes severe air pollution, especially in the cities.( Green future for Indian cities) India has relatively high taxes on petrol and diesel, which are intended to act as carbon taxes. The impact of these taxes on consumption remains disputed. Suggestions:- The policies are largely mitigative, yet they should also focus on transformative adaptation and disaster risk management. The policymakers should also adopt ecosystem-based solutions and consider equity. MUST READ: Mitigating Climate Change SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements: (2021) The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is part of a project led by Climate Change, Agriculture, and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research program. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centres. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) has invested Rs 27,105 crore in exchange-traded funds (ETFs) during the current fiscal till October, Parliament was informed recently. Background:- EPFO had invested Rs 53,081 crore in the ETFs during the fiscal 2022-23, higher than Rs 43,568 crore in 2021-22, Minister of State for Labour and Employment Rameshwar Teli said in a written reply to the Lok Sabha. About Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs):- An exchange-traded fund (ETF) is a collection of investments such as equities or bonds. ETFs will let one invest in a large number of securities at once. They often have cheaper fees than other types of funds. ETFs are also more easily traded. However, ETFs, like any other financial product, are not a one-size-fits-all solution. Advantages of Investing in ETFs:- Easy to trade: they can be bought and sold at any time of day. ETFs are more tax efficient than actively managed mutual funds because they generate less capital gain distributions. They allow investors to avoid the risk of poor security selection by the fund manager while offering a diversified investment portfolio. The stocks in the indices are carefully selected by index providers and are rebalanced periodically. They offer anytime liquidity through the exchanges. Risks of ETFs:- Trading cost: If you invest modest sums frequently, dealing directly with a fund company in a no-load fund may be less expensive. Market risk: ETFs are subject to the same market fluctuations and volatility. Liquidity risk: ETFs may experience low trading volume or wide bid-ask spreads, which can affect their liquidity and price. Regulatory risk: ETFs are subject to changing laws and regulations that may affect their structure, operation, or taxation. About Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO):- The EPFO is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India. It is one of the World’s largest Social Security Organisations in terms of clientele and the volume of financial transactions undertaken. It into existence with the promulgation of the Employees’ Provident Funds Ordinance on the 15th of November 1951. It was replaced by the Employees’ Provident Funds Act, of 1952. The Employees’ Provident Funds Bill was introduced in the Parliament in the year 1952 as a Bill to provide for the institution of provident funds for employees in factories and other establishments. (EPFO’s New Facility on UMANG App started) The Act is now referred to as the Employees’ Provident Funds & Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 which extends

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Vijay Diwas Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT DAYS/DEFENSE Context: Vijay Diwas was commemorated recently. Background:- PM Narendra Modi paid tribute to all the brave hearts who dutifully served India in 1971 on Vijay Diwas. About Vijay Diwas:- Vijay Diwas or Victory Day is commemorated on December 16. It marks the end of the 1971 Indo-Pak War and the liberation of Bangladesh. India declared victory on this day 51 years ago after Pakistan signed the Instrument of Surrender. Ceremonies, parades, wreath-laying, and various events are organized across India, particularly in Delhi and Kolkata, to commemorate this significant day. Historical Background of the war:- After the partition of India following the end of British rule in 1947, two independent countries were formed – India and Pakistan. The latter consisted of East Pakistan (now Bangladesh) and West Pakistan (present-day Pakistan). The two Pakistans had their share of problems since the beginning because of a number of reasons – the most glaring one being the geographical disconnect between them. East Pakistan was often overlooked in terms of administration as the top posts were held by those in the West. In the mid-1960s, leaders such as Sheikh Mujibur Rahman, who is also known as the founder of Bangladesh actively began protesting against these policies and helped form the Awami League. Soon, their demand became one for freedom and greater autonomy. The League ended up winning a stunning 160 of the 162 seats in East Pakistan in the 1970 elections and won no seats in the West. However, instead of recognizing the mandate, on March 25, 1971, the Pakistani military began a brutal crackdown that saw the mass slaughter of Bengalis. India had declared support for the League previously but without direct intervention. But when the Pakistan Air Force launched pre-emptive strikes towards Western India (including Amritsar, Pathankot, Srinagar, Avantipura, Ambala, Sirsa and Agra) on December 3, 1971, India formally declared war on December 4. On December 6, India formally recognised Bangladesh as an independent nation. Two days later, the Indian Navy launched an attack on Karachi. From December 12 to 16, Indian forces pushed through to Dhaka and entered the city, ending the war with a total victory. Significance:- This war not only reshaped regional geopolitics but also underscored the importance of upholding human rights during conflicts. Vijay Diwas is a day to honor the courage, sacrifice, and bravery of the soldiers who fought and to pay tribute to the martyrs. (The new defence systems handed over to Army) MUST READ: India-Bangladesh Relations SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect to the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002: (2023) Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm. Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3: 2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of Constitution Day: (2023) Statement-I: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the chairmanship of Dr B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft ·Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Kashi Tamil Sangamam Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi will inaugurate the second phase of Kashi Tamil Sangamam on 17th December 2023. Background:- The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi today called Kashi Tamil Sangamam forum a testament to the unity and diversity of India, strengthening the spirit of ‘Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat’. About Kashi Tamil Sangamam:- Date: 17th to the 30th of December 2023 VENUE: Varanasi. Inauguration: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi will inaugurate Kashi Tamil Sangamam 2023 at Namo Ghat on 17 December 2023. The second phase of Kashi Tamil Sangamam will commence from 17th to 30th December, 2023 at the holy city of Kashi (Varanasi). It will celebrate the many aspects of the historical and civilizational connection between India’s North and South. Nearly 1400 (7 Groups of 200 persons each) people are expected to be travelling from different parts of Tamil Nadu, representing varied walks of life. The 7 groups of Students (Ganga), Teachers (Yamuna), Professionals (Godavari), Spiritual (Saraswati), Farmers and Artisans (Narmada), Writers (Sindhu) and Traders and Businessmen (Kaveri) have been named after seven sacred rivers of India will travel from Chennai, Coimbatore and Kanyakumari to Kashi. The Ministry of Education, Government of India, will be the nodal agency for this event with participation from the Ministries of Culture, Tourism, Railways, Textiles, Food Processing (ODOP), MSME, Information & Broadcasting, Skill Development & Entrepreneurship, IRCTC and related departments of Government of Uttar Pradesh. IIT Madras will be acting as the implementing agency in Tamil Nadu and Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in Uttar Pradesh. History of ties between Kashi and Tamil Nadu:- Many households in Tamilnadu adopted the names of Kailasanatha and Kashinatha for naming their children, like those who are living in Kashi and Uttar Pradesh. King Adhiveera Rama Pandiyan of the Pandya Dynasty dedicated a Shiva Temple at Tenkasi of Tamilnadu after his pilgrimage to Kashi , whose ancestors established Sivakasi. Saint Kumaragurupara from Sri Vaikundam, Tuthukudi District of Tamil Nadu has excelled in bargaining with the Sultanate of Kashi with audacity and drove a

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   INDIAN FOREST AND WOOD CERTIFICATION SCHEME Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the Indian Forest & Wood Certification Scheme was launched. Background:- It was launched by Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. This national forest certification scheme offers voluntary third-party certification designed to promote sustainable forest management and agroforestry in the country. About INDIAN FOREST AND WOOD CERTIFICATION SCHEME:- Launched: 2023. Objective: to promote Sustainable Management of forests and agroforestry(Forest Conservation (FC) Act, 1980) Ministry: Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. The scheme includes forest management certification, tree outside forest management certification, and chain of custody certification. The Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme can provide market incentives to various entities that adhere to responsible forest management and agroforestry practices in their operations. This includes state forest departments, individual farmers, or Farmer Producer Organizations engaged in agroforestry and farm forestry, as well as other wood-based industries in the value chain. The Forest Management certification is based on the Indian Forest Management Standard, consisting of 8 criteria, 69 indicators and 254 verifiers, which is an integral part of the National Working Plan Code 2023, launched earlier this year. A separate Trees Outside Forests Standard, is now introduced as a part of the newly launched Indian Forest & Wood Certification Scheme. Supervision: The Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme, will be overseen by the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Council, which will act as a multistakeholder advisory body. The Council is represented by members from eminent institutions such as Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, Forest Survey of India, Quality Council of India, Indian Institute of Forest Management including representatives from the Ministries of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare and Ministry of Commerce and Industry, State Forest Departments, Forest Development Corporations, and representatives from wood-based industries. Implementation: The Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal will act as the scheme operating agency and will be responsible for overall management of the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme. Accreditation: The National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies under the Quality Council of India will accredit the certification bodies which will carry out independent audits and assess adherence of various entities on the standards prescribed under the scheme. MUST READ: Natural Farming SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Surrender value Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, insurance stocks declined up to 5 per cent in trade after the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) proposed a higher surrender value and lower charges for life insurance companies in a consultation paper. Background:- An exposure draft released by the insurance regulator pitched for a significant increase in the surrender value specifically for non-participating insurance products. Some modifications have also been suggested in the calculation of surrender charges. About Surrender value:- In insurance policies, ‘surrender’ indicates the voluntary conclusion of a life insurance policy opted by the policyholder prior to its maturity or before the occurrence of the insured event. It applies only to those term insurance policies with a surrender benefit. The surrender value is usually a percentage of the total premiums paid minus any applicable charges or fees. The IRDAI rules say that anyone with a term plan can give up their insurance policy. (Digital India – Financial Inclusion) However, only after the policy has been in effect for three years will the policyholder get the payout of the surrender value. As per the existing norms, a policy can be surrendered at any time during the policy term, provided two full years’ premiums have been paid. However, in the first year, the regulator now proposes to offer Adjusted Surrender Value to the policyholder. About the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDAI):- Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Finance Head Office: It is an autonomous and statutory body established under the IRDA Act 1999. It is the apex body that supervises and regulates the insurance sector in India. Objective: To protect the interests of policyholders, to regulate, promote and ensure orderly growth of the insurance industry in India. Composition: IRDAI is a 10-member body. It has a Chairman, five full-time members, and four part-time members. They are appointed by the Government of India. Functions:- To have a fair regulation of the insurance industry while ensuring financial soundness of the applicable laws and regulations. Registering and regulating insurance companies. Protecting policyholders’ interests. Licensing and establishing norms for insurance intermediaries. Regulating and overseeing premium rates and terms of non-life insurance covers. MUST READ: The Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) SOURCE: HINDU BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Alternative Investment Funds Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, RBI directed banks to refrain from investing in any scheme offered by Alternative Investment Funds. Background:- RBI has further directed banks to liquidate their investment from such AIFs within thirty days. About Alternative Investment Funds:- Alternative investment funds (AIF) are effectively non-traditional privately pooled investment vehicles that cater to the funding needs of relatively high-risk ventures across a broad spectrum of the investing universe. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), under the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012 (the “AIF Regulations”) regulates all pooling structures in India, including AIFs. (National Investment and Infrastructure Fund) Categories of AIFs:- Category I: Mainly invests in start-ups, SME’s or any other sector which Govt. considers economically and socially viable Category II: private equity funds or debt funds for which no specific incentives or concessions are given by the government or any other Regulator Category III: hedge funds or funds which trade with a view to making short term returns or such other funds which are open-ended and for which no specific incentives or concessions are given by the government Benefits of AIF:- Security against volatility – These schemes do not put their funds in investment options that trade publicly. Hence, they are not related to the broader markets and do not fluctuate with their ups and downs. Excellent portfolio diversification to a wide array of assets Profitable returns – as these funds have numerous investment options, They are a better source of passive income. Further, returns are less prone to fluctuations as these schemes are not linked to the stock market.  MUST READ: Ubharte Sitaare Alternative Investment Fund SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What does venture capital mean? (2014) A short-term capital provided to industries A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses Funds provided for the replacement and renovation of industries Bahmani Kingdom Syllabus Prelims –MEDIEVAL HISTORY Context: Recently, Karnataka HC asked authorities to remove the encroachments of Bahmani Sultans’ fort in Kalaburagi. Background:- The High Court bench in Kalaburagi instructed civic authorities to clear 62 houses constructed inside the fort and 114 houses that have emerged in the surroundings of the fort. About Bahmani Kingdom:- The Bahmani Sultanate was a significant medieval Muslim state in the Deccan region of South India. It is also known as the Bahmanid Empire. It was established in 1347. The Bahmani Sultanate was founded by Hasan Bahman Shah, a governor appointed by the Delhi Sultanate. He declared independence and established his capital at Gulbarga. It lasted until 1527 when it fragmented into five smaller states. The Sultanate was administratively divided into four provinces (Daulatabad, Bidar, Berar, and Gulbarga) with tarafdars or subedars governing each. The sultanate was governed through a decentralized feudal system. Trade and commerce flourished in the Bahmani Sultanate due to its strategic location. The region was a center for international trade, particularly in horses, textiles, and spices. Around 1518, Krishnadeva Raya of the Vijayanagar Empire defeated the last ruler of the Bahmani Empire. (Kingdom of Vijayanagara) Art and Architecture:- The Bahmanis followed the Indo-Islamic style of architecture with a few changes. The buildings were constructed using local materials. An influence of Persian architecture could be seen in the buildings of this period. Examples of architecture could be found at Gulbarga (Shah bazaar mosque, Hafta Gumbaz, Jama masjid), at Bijapur (Gol Gumbaz, Ibrahim Roza, Bara Kaman, etc.), and at Bidar (Rangeen mahal, Janata mahal). It was during this period when a new dialect, ‘Dakhini Urdu’ prevailed. MUST READ: Malik Ahmed and Ahilyabai Holkar SOURCE: THE LAST MINUTE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as “Kulah-Daran”? (2022) Arab merchants Qalandars Persian calligraphists Sayyids Q.2) According to Portuguese writer Nuniz, the women in the Vijayanagara empire were expert in which of the following areas? (2021) Wrestling Astrology Accounting Soothsaying Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Earthquake Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, an earthquake in northwestern China killed at least 131 people. Background:- It has been the deadliest in 9 years. About Earthquake:- An earthquake is the shaking or trembling of the earth’s surface. It is caused by the seismic waves or earthquake waves that are generated due to a sudden movement (sudden release of energy) in the earth’s crust (shallow-focus earthquakes) or upper mantle (some shallow-focus and all intermediate and deep-focus earthquakes). Earthquake are by far the most unpredictable and highly distructive of all the natural disasters Causes of Earthquakes:- Fault Zones Plate tectonics (Anatolian Plate) Volcanic activity Human-Induced Earthquakes Measurement of Earthquakes:- The energy from an earthquake travels through Earth in vibrations called seismic waves. Scientists can measure these seismic waves on instruments called A seismograph, or seismometer,is an instrument used to detect and record earthquakes. Richter magnitude scale is the scale to measure the magnitude of energy released by an earthquake. Hypocentre/Focus:The point where the energy is released. Epicentre:The point on the surface directly above the focus. Isoseismic line: A line connecting all points on the surface where the intensity is the same. About China:- IMAGE SOURCE: guideoftheworld.com Capital: Beijing. Continent: Asia. China, lies in East Asia. It is the largest of all Asian countries. Its topography encompasses the highest and one of the lowest places on Earth. Its relief varies from nearly impenetrable mountainous terrain to vast coastal lowlands. Its climate ranges from extremely dry, desertlike conditions in the northwest to tropical monsoon in the southeast. The country is bounded

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   National Geoscience Data Repository Portal Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, the Mines Ministry launched the National Geoscience Data Repository Portal To Foster Innovation in Exploration. Background:- The launch ceremony will be graced by Union Minister of Coal, Mines and Parliamentary Affairs Shri Pralhad Joshi in the presence of Shri Raosaheb Patil Danve, Minister of State for Coal, Mines and Railways. About National Geoscience Data Repository Portal:- Launched on : 19th December 2023. Launched by: Ministry of Mines. The National Geoscience Data Repository (NGDR) Portal will be launched in a ceremony in New Delhi. (National Geoscience Awards -2022) Objective: to Foster Innovation in Exploration. NGDR is a comprehensive online platform for accessing, sharing, and analyzing geospatial information across the nation. The NGDR initiative, spearheaded by the Geological Survey of India (GSI) and Bhaskarachaya Institute of Space Applications and Geoinformatics (BISAG-N). It represents a significant leap forward in democratizing critical geoscience data, empowering stakeholders across industries and academia with unprecedented access to invaluable resources. About the Geological Survey of India:- Established: 1851. HQ: Kolkata. It has six regional offices located in Lucknow, Jaipur, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Shillong and Kolkata and state unit offices in almost all states of the country. GSI is an attached office of the Ministry of Mines. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) was set up primarily to find coal deposits for the Railways. Its main functions relate to creating and updating national geoscientific information and mineral resource assessment. These objectives are achieved through ground surveys, air-borne and marine surveys, mineral prospecting and investigations, multi-disciplinary geoscientific, geo-technical, geo-environmental and natural hazards studies, glaciology, seismo-tectonic study and carrying out fundamental research. About BISAG-N:- Ministry: MeitY, Government of India. (Indian Bureau of Mines) At present, BISAG is a state agency of the Department of Science and Technology Government of Gujarat, located at Gandhinagar, Gujarat. Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics [BISAG (N)] is an Autonomous Scientific Society registered under the Societies Registration Act, of 1860. Objective: to undertake technology development & and management, research & and development, facilitate National and international cooperation, capacity building and support technology transfer & and entrepreneurship development in the area of geo-spatial technology. BISAG has implemented GIS and geospatial technologies for major Ministries and almost all States. For this purpose, geo-spatial science (GIS Remote Sensing, Image Processing, Photogrammetry, GPS, Cell Phone etc.), Information Science Systems (MIS, Database, ERP, Project Management, Web, Artificial Intelligence etc.) and Mathematics Science Systems (Geometry, Fluid, Mechanics, Trigonometry, Algebra etc.) have been integrated in-house by BISAG. MUST READ: ‘Wetlands of India’ Portal SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)? (2022) CCO is the major source of coal Statistics in the Government of India. It monitors the progress of the development of Captive Coal/ Lignite blocks. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to the acquisition of coal-bearing areas. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Kawal Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY/ ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Kawal Tiger Reserve turned into a haven for smooth-coated otters recently. Background:- These creatures live along the banks of the Kadam River, on the bunds of the canals, and also on the banks of the Godavari River. About Kawal Tiger Reserve:- IMAGE SOURCE: adivasiresurgence.com Location: Telangana. Kawal Tiger Reserve is in the North Eastern part of Telangana. The reserve is flanked by the Godavari River on one side and shares its border with Maharashtra on the other. The River Kadam (a tributary of Godavari) flows through this area. It forms a significant part of the Deccan peninsula-central highlands. Additionally, Kawal serves as a catchment for the rivers Godavari and Kadam, both flowing southward within the sanctuary. Kawal Wildlife Sanctuary was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2012. (Amrabad Tiger Reserve) Vegetation: Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest. Flora: Teak and Bamboo stands, Anogeissus latifolia, Mitragyna parviflora, Terminalia crenulata, Terminalia arjuna, Boswellia serrata, and many more. Fauna: nilgai, chousinga, chinkara, black buck, sambar, spotted deer, wild dog, wolf, jackal, fox, tiger, leopard, and jungle cat etc. About Smooth-Coated Otter:- Scientific name: Lutrogale perspicillata. Smooth-coated otter is characterised by a very smooth, sleek pelage. Their eyes and ears are small, the tail is flattened, limbs are short and strong, and the fore and hind paws are large and well-webbed. These otters have generally been described as fish specialists. They are strong swimmers. They hunt in groups. They are mostly found in lowlands, coastal mangrove forests, peat swamp forests, freshwater wetlands, large forested rivers, lakes, and rice paddies. Threats:- Construction of large hydroelectric projects Conversion of wetlands for settlements and agriculture Reduction in prey biomass Poaching and Contamination of waterways by pesticides. Conservation Status:- IUCN Red List: Vulnerable MUST READ: Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS) SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?  (2020) Corbett Ranthambore Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Sundarbans Q.2) The term M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of    (2017) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna Maintenance of Tiger Reservoirs Indigenous Satellite Navigation System Security of National Highways Direct Tax Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Gross Direct Tax collections

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Rozgar Melas Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Rozgar Melas events are being held across the country recently. Background:- New appointees are inducted into various Central Ministries/ Departments/ Central Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs)/ Autonomous Bodies including Health and education Institutes, Public Sector Banks etc. Filling up vacant posts in various Ministries/Departments is a continuous process. All vacant posts are being filled in a Mission Mode. About Rozgar Melas:- 1st Edition of National Rozgar Mela: October 22, 2022. Ministry: Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Objective: To give impetus to the employment initiatives in the country, the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) under the aegis of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE), Government of India has been organizing Rozgar Melas across the nation to provide suitable job opportunities in the private sector to the unemployed youth. A Rozgar Mela is a 1/2-day event where several employers and job seekers come together for the purpose of applying and interviewing for jobs. These Rozgar Melas generally cater to the youth in the age group of 18-35 Years with an academic qualification covering 8th/10th/12th Pass, ITI, Diploma, Graduates etc. including the trained and certified candidates conforming to National Skills Qualifications Framework. The jobseekers for the Rozgar Mela are sensitized & mobilized through various channels including Print Advertisement, Bulk SMS, Social Media & workshops at the College and university Level in & around the districts of the Rozgar Mela. Under the Rozgar Mela Scheme, 10 lakh jobs will be available for candidates to apply in Group A and B Gazetted Posts, Group B Non-Gazetted and Group C Non-Gazetted posts. Activities in  Rozgar Melas:- Counselling Sessions for the jobseekers & their parents, Kaushal Melas for the registration of youth under fresh skill development training (PMKK/PMKVY), and Mudra Loan Facilitation Counters & Skill Exhibition (where SSCs demonstrate the training model, equipment, and job roles of their respective sectors) Goals of Rozgar Mela:- Empowering the youth Providing opportunities for the youth to contribute to the nation’s development Fast-tracking the meeting of job seekers and employers Reflecting the Prime Minister’s vision that development should reach all parts of the country equally Contribution of Rozgar Mela:- Rozgar Mela gives an opportunity for job seekers to learn more about potential employers and various employment opportunities available, including entrepreneurship. It also offers a platform for organizations to meet potential employees in an informal setting. It brings skilled candidates in direct contact with recruiters, HR managers, admission officers, and advisory bodies/training providers. Significance:- It is anticipated that the Rozgar Mela will play a pivotal role in promoting employment opportunities and providing meaningful avenues for the empowerment of the youth, enabling their active participation in the development of the nation. (Self-Reliant India) It serves as a platform for job seekers to apply for jobs and participate in interviews. MUST READ: Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojana SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments, and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (2022) Central Statistics Office Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade Labour Bureau National Technical Manpower Information System Q.2)  Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, ‘medium enterprises are those with investments in plant and machinery between (‘ 15 crores and ’25 crore). All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Consumer Price Index Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The All-India Consumer Price Index Number for Agricultural Labourers and Rural Labourers for the month of November 2023 was increased recently. Key Highlights:- CPI increased by 12 points and 11 points respectively to stand at 1253 and 1262 points respectively. There has been an upward trend in the index across all the states except West Bengal (both CPI-AL and CPI-RL indices decreased) and Himachal Pradesh (the CPI-AL index decreased). In the case of Agricultural Labourers, it recorded an increase of 1 to 10 points in 11 States, 11 to 20 points in 4 states and an increase of more than 20 points in 3 states. In the case of Rural Labourers, it recorded an increase of 1 to 10 points in 11 states, 11 to 20 points in 5 states and an increase of more than 20 points in 3 states. Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu with 1439 points each topped the index table whereas Himachal Pradesh with 1015 points stood at the bottom. Among states, the maximum increase for CPI-AL was experienced by Maharashtra of 27 points which was mainly driven by the increased prices of jowar, rice, wheat atta, tapioca, arhar dal, onion and sugar etc. Point to point rate of inflation based on the CPI-AL and CPI-RL stood at 7.37% and 7.13% in November, 2023 compared to 7.08% and 6.92% respectively in October, 2023 and 6.87% and 6.99% respectively during the corresponding month of  previous year. About Consumer Price Index:- The Consumer Price Index (CPI) examines the weighted average of prices of a basket of consumer goods and services, such as transportation, food and medical care. The CPI calculates the difference in the price of commodities and services such as food, medical care, education, electronics etc, which Indian consumers buy for use. Type of CPI:- There are 4 different types of CPI measured:- CPI for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) It attempts to quantify changes in the pricing of a fixed basket of products and services used by Industrial Workers over time. Released by: Labour Bureau, Ministry of Labour and Employment. Base Year: 2016. CPI for Agricultural Laborers (CPI-AL) It helps to revise minimum wages for agricultural labor in different States. Released by: Labour Bureau, Ministry of Labour and Employment. Base Year:1986-87. CPI for Rural Labourer (CPI-RL) Released by: Labour Bureau, Ministry of Labour and Employment. Base Year:1986-87. CPI (Rural/Urban/Combined) Released by: National Statistical Office (NSO),

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   RAMP ((Raising and Accelerating MSME Productivity) programme Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the MSME Ministry launched 3 sub-schemes under the RAMP ((Raising and Accelerating MSME Productivity) programme. Background:- MSME Minister Narayan Rane launched three sub-schemes under the ministry’s existing RAMP ((Raising and Accelerating MSME Productivity) programme to encourage the adoption of sustainable technology in business, boost the circular economy and address delayed payments issue. About RAMP ((Raising and Accelerating MSME Productivity) programme:- Launched: 30th June 2022. Ministry: Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises. Objectives: to scale up the implementation capacity and coverage of MSMEs in the States, with impact enhancement of existing MSME schemes. Salient Features:- Raising and Accelerating MSME Productivity (RAMP)” is a Central Sector Scheme. The scheme shall implement regulatory, financial, and implementation reforms as well as firm-level access reforms to provide targeted interventions to MSMEs across recognized challenge areas. The  RAMP program will seek to scale up implementation capacity and firm coverage in the states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Punjab, Rajasthan, and Tamil Nadu. It aims to enhance access to market and credit by strengthening institutions, enhancing centre-state partnerships, addressing issues of delayed payments and greening of MSMEs, and ramping up implementation capacity and MSME coverage in states, with the impact enhancement of existing MSME schemes. A Scheme for Promoting Innovation, Rural Industry & Entrepreneurship (ASPIRE) Eligibility:- The MSME should be registered under the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006. The MSME should have a valid Udyog Aadhaar Number (UAN). Benefits:- Address Challenges in the MSME Sector: The RAMP program will address the generic and Covid related challenges in the MSME sector by way of impact enhancement of existing MSME schemes, especially, on the competitiveness front. Address inadequately Addressed Blocks in MSME: The program will bolster the inadequately addressed blocks of capacity building, handholding, skill development, quality enrichment, technological upgradation, digitization, outreach, and marketing promotion, amongst other things. Generate Employment: The RAMP program, through enhanced collaboration with States, will be a job enabler, market promoter, and finance facilitator, and will support vulnerable sections and greening initiatives. Usher in Larger Formalization: In States where the presence of MSMEs is on the lower side, the program will usher in larger formalization resulting from the higher impact of the schemes covered under RAMP. The SIPs developed by these States would act as a roadmap for the development of an improved MSME sector. Complement the Atmanirbhar Bharat Mission: RAMP will complement the AtmanNirbhar Bharat mission by fostering innovation and enhancement in industry standards, and practices and providing the necessary technological inputs to the MSMEs. MUST READ: Empowering MSMEs digitally SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) Syllabus Prelims – ECONOMY Context: The Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) recently, quashed regulator Sebi’s order banning Future Retail chairperson Kishore Biyani and some other promoters from the securities market for one year in an insider trading case. Background:- Dismissing the Sebi’s order, the appellate tribunal said that the entities did not trade in the shares of Future Retail Ltd (FRL) on the basis of unpublished price sensitive information (UPSI) relating to demerger as such information was already in the public domain through multiple media reports. About Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT):- Established: 27th May, 2014. HQ: Mumbai. It is under the jurisdiction of Ministry of Finance. It is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992. Objective: to hear and dispose of appeals against orders passed by the Securities and Exchange Board of India or by an adjudicating officer under the Act. A Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) has been constituted to protect the interest of entities that feel aggrieved by SEBI’s decision. The Securities Appellate Tribunal is established under the provisions of Section 15K of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992. It is to hear and dispose of appeals against orders passed by the Securities and Exchange Board of India or by an adjudicating officer under the Act and to exercise jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred on the Tribunal by or under this Act or any other law for the time being in force. SAT hears and disposes of appeals against orders passed by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) under the PFRDA Act, 2013. Further, SAT hears and disposes of appeals against orders passed by the:- Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDAI) under the Insurance Act, 1938, General Insurance Business (Nationalization) Act, 1972 and Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 and the Rules and Regulations framed thereunder. Composition: It consists of a Presiding Officer and two other Members. Powers: It has the same powers as those vested in a civil court. Appeal: If any person feels aggrieved by SAT’s decision or order can appeal to the Supreme Court. MUST READ: (SEBI) extends trading ban on Agri commodities SOURCE: THE ECONOMICS TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (Bharat NCAP) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the first round of crash testing under the Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (Bharat-NCAP) was completed. Background:- Tata Motors’ home-grown sports utility vehicles (SUV) Tata Safari and Tata Harrier have received the highest five-star ratings after being crash-tested under the Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (Bharat-NCAP). They are the first two cars to have received the highest ratings for adult occupant protection and child occupant protection, under the new system. About Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (Bharat NCAP):- Launched:2023. Implementation: October 1, 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Objectives: to enhance road safety by elevating vehicle safety standards for up to 3.5-tonne vehicles in India. Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (Bharat NCAP) is a new car safety assessment program which proposes a mechanism of awarding ‘Star Ratings’ to automobiles based on their performance in crash tests. Bharat NCAP standard is aligned with global benchmarks and it is beyond minimum regulatory requirements. It is a safety assessment program for passenger vehicles weighing less than 3.5 tonnes and capable of seating up to eight people. Salient Features of Bharat NCAP:- It proposes a mechanism of awarding ‘Star Ratings’ to automobiles based on their performance in crash tests. The voluntary Bharat NCAP would assign vehicles between one and five stars on parameters such as Adult Occupant Protection (AOP), Child Occupant Protection (COP), and Safety Assist Technologies (SAT). This will help assess to what extent a car may suffer damage in the event of an Potential car buyers can refer to these star ratings to decide which car to buy by comparing the safety standards. Bharat NCAP standard is aligned with global benchmarks and it is beyond minimum regulatory requirements. The testing of vehicles for this programme will be carried out at testing agencies, with the necessary infrastructure. Benefits of NCAP: Develop a safety-sensitive car market in India. Consumer Awareness. Enhanced Safety and Export Potential. Making the Indian automobile industry self-reliant. (Atmanirbhar Bharat 3.0) MUST READ: Electric Vehicles SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following actions: (2023) Detection of car crash/ collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode. In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None Q.2)  Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022) Cloud Services Quantum Computing Visible Light Communication Technologies Wireless Communication Technologies COVID sub-variant JN.1 Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY/GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, India reported 21 cases of COVID sub-variant JN.1, now a WHO ‘variant of interest’. Background:- We need to be on the alert, but there is no need to panic, says Union Health Minister Mansukh Mandaviya. About COVID sub-variant JN.1:- Previously JN.1 was classified and tracked as part of its parent BA.2.86 lineage, which itself is a descendant of the Omicron or B.1.1.529 variant of SARS-CoV-2, the virus causing COVID-19 disease. In comparison with its parent lineage BA.2.86, JN.1 has an additional mutation (the L455S mutation) in the spike protein. Spread:1 has been found in many countries, including India, China, the United Kingdom, and the United States. WHO said that based on the currently available data, “the additional global public health risk posed by JN.1 is currently evaluated as low.” (Vaccine Development for COVID-19) Transmission: Currently, there is no evidence suggesting that JN.1 causes more severe symptoms or spreads faster than other circulating variants. Risk: Most JN.1 variant cases have been mild, with patients recovering at home. Symptoms:- Classic symptoms of the JN.1 variant include fever, runny nose, sore throat, headache, and gastrointestinal issues like diarrhea and stomach cramps. Extreme fatigue is reported among individuals with the JN.1 variant. Loss of smell has been noted in some cases. Both Pirola and JN.1 have been effectively neutralized by serum from infected and vaccinated individuals, according to the WHO Technical Advisory Group on COVID-19 Vaccine Composition. Variants of concern (VOCs):- The classification of JN.1 as a separate variant of interest (VOI) is down to “its rapidly increasing spread” around the globe. WHO updated its working definitions for variants of concern (VOCs), VOIs, and variants under monitoring (VUMs) in March 2023. According to the definition, a VOI variant is considered a SARS-CoV-2 variant with genetic changes that are predicted or known to affect virus characteristics such as transmissibility, virulence, antibody evasion, susceptibility to therapeutics, and detectability. Further, VOI variants are identified to have a growth advantage over other circulating variants in more than one WHO region, with increasing relative prevalence alongside an increasing number of cases over time. COVID sub-variant JN.1 in India:- Following the identification of the first case of the Coronavirus sub-variant JN.1 in Kerala, several states in India have witnessed a surge in Covid cases. Insacog, the central government’s consortium of labs, detected 19 sequences of the JN.1 variant, with one case in Maharashtra and Goa. (Smart Cities & Managing COVID-19) The Union Health Ministry reported 614 new coronavirus infections, marking the highest since May 21, and the active cases have risen to 2,311. The India SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG), a multi-laboratory and multi-agency network, is actively involved in surveillance efforts.  MUST READ: iNCOVACC SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: (2021) Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are