June 2025

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –5th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) KAVACH Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: The recent train tragedy in Odisha has brought to the surface the need for KAVACH in preventing rail accidents. Kavach was not available on this route. About KAVACH:- IMAGE SOURCE: newssimplified.in KAVACH is an Automatic Train Protection (ATP) electronic system designed to help the Indian Railways achieve Zero Accidents. Objective: to achieve safety in train operations across Indian Railways. Development:- It has been indigenously developed. It is developed by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with the Indian industry. Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO): it is a research and development organisation under the Ministry of Railways. Working of KAVACH:- It has a set of electronic devices and Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) devices installed in locomotives, in the signalling system as well as the tracks. (UPSC CSE: RFID) These connect to each other using ultra-high radio frequencies to control the brakes of trains. It also alerts drivers, all based on the logic programmed into them. (UPSC MAINS: KAVACH) It is a Safety Integrity Level 4 (SIL-4) certified technology. Safety Integrity Level (SIL): it comes from two voluntary standards used by plant owners/operators to quantify safety performance requirements for hazardous operations. There are four SIL Levels (1-4). A higher SIL Level means a greater process hazard and a higher level of protection. KAVACH is the world’s cheapest automatic train collision protection system. Initial development of Kavach started in 2012 under the name Train Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) and completed development on 2022. First successful trial: between Gullaguda–Chitgidda Railway stations of South Central Railway in 2022. The Budget of 2022-23 had proposed rollout of Kavach in 2000 kms. Salient features:- Automatic activation of the train braking system if the driver fails to control the train speed. Preventing collision between two Locomotives equipped with a functional KAVACH system. Sending continuous updates of Movement. (UPSC CSE: Mobile Train Radio Communication (MTRC) ) Auto Whistling while approaching Level Crossing Gates Sending SoS Messages during emergency situations. Centralised live monitoring of train movements through the Network Monitor System. MUST READ: Vande Bharat 2.0 SOURCE: BUISINESSLINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following communication technologies: (2022) Closed-circuit Television Radio Frequency Identification Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies? 1 and 2 only. 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of (2020) Digital security infrastructure Food security infrastructure Health care and education infrastructure Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure Pet coke Syllabus Prelims –Geography, Environment and Ecology Context: The Government recently, permitted the import of pet coke as a raw material for lithium-ion batteries. About Pet Coke:- IMAGE SOURCE: bulkcarrierguide.com Pet Coke is one of the industrial by-products produced during oil refining. It is dark solid carbon material. It is used as a source of energy and carbon for various industrial applications. It is abundantly used in India in several manufacturing industries such as cement, steel and textile. It is significantly cheaper than coal, has high calorific value and is easier to transport and store. There are two kinds of pet coke produced during oil refining viz. Fuel-grade pet coke (80%) and Calcined pet coke (20%). India is the world’s biggest consumer of pet coke. (UPSC CSE: Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) ) Local producers: Indian Oil Corp, Reliance Industries and Bharat Petroleum Corp. Cement companies in India account for about three-fourths of the country’s pet coke use. Environment and Health Hazards of Pet Coke:- Pet coke is a much more potent pollutant than coal. It contains a whopping 74,000 PPM of sulphur content, which is released into the atmosphere as emissions, which is much higher than vehicular emissions. It is also a source of fine dust, which can get through the filtering process of the human airway and lodge in the lungs, which can cause serious health problems. It releases sulphur, nitrous oxide, mercury, arsenic, chromium, nickel, and hydrogen chloride, which contribute to global warming. (UPSC CSE: COP 27). Lithium It is a soft, silvery-white metal. It is the lightest metal and the lightest solid element. It has the highest specific heat capacity of any solid element. It is a good conductor of electricity. It is flammable and can even explode when exposed to air and water. Lithium is a crucial building block of the lithium-ion rechargeable batteries. Currently, India is heavily dependent on import of these cells and the move to ink sourcing pacts for lithium is seen as a move to reduce its dependency on China, which is a key source of both the raw material and cell. Lithium-ion batteries A lithium-ion battery or Li-ion battery is a type of rechargeable battery. Working: Li-ion batteries use an intercalated (Intercalation is the reversible inclusion or insertion of a molecule into materials with layered structures) lithium compound as one electrode material. The battery consists of electrolyte, which allows for ionic movement, and the two electrodes are the constituent components of a lithium-ion battery cell. Lithium ions move from the negative electrode to the positive electrode during discharge and back when charging. Applications:- Power electric vehicles (EVs), laptops and mobile phones. Applications in electronic gadgets, Telecommunication, Aerospace, Industries. Power source for electric and hybrid electric vehicles. Advantages of Li-Ion battery:- It is light weighted and is one-third the weight of lead acid batteries. It is nearly 100% efficient in both charging and discharging as compared to lead battery, which has 70% efficiency. It completely discharges i.e. 100% as compared to 80% for lead acid. It has life cycle of 5000 times or more compared to just 400-500 cycles in lead acid. It also maintains constant voltage throughout entire discharge cycle whereas voltage in lead acid battery drops consistently throughout its discharge cycle. It is much cleaner technology and is safer for environment. It can be wireless. Disadvantages of Li-ion Batteries:- Long charging times. Safety issues: instances of batteries catching fires have been

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –6th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Duty-free quota-free (DFQF) scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: As per recent reports, about 85 per cent of 11,000 products offered at zero tariffs by India to least developed countries (LDCs) under the duty-free quota-free (DFQF) scheme of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) remains unutilised. About the duty-free quota-free (DFQF) scheme:- IMAGE SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD Background: The decision to provide duty-free quota-free (DFQF) access for least developed countries (LDCs) was first taken at the WTO Hong Kong Ministerial Meeting in 2005. Least developed countries (LDCs): The WTO recognizes as least-developed countries (LDCs) those countries, which have been designated as such by the United Nations. There are at present 48 LDCs on the UN list. 31 of these are members of the WTO. It requires all developed and developing country members to provide preferential market access for all products originating from all LDCs. India became the first developing country to extend this facility to LDCs in 2008. It provided market access to 85% of India’s total tariff lines. It aimed to integrate LDCs into the global trading system and improve their trading opportunities. The scheme was expanded in 2014 providing preferential market access on about 2% of India’s tariff lines to LDCs. India offers 11,506 preferential tariff lines to LDCs of which 10, 991 are duty-free. Of the duty-free tariff lines, 1,129 are agricultural goods and the remaining 9,862 are non-agricultural goods. Key findings of WTO data for 2020:- 85% of India’s tariff lines show a zero utilisation rate compared to 64% by China. Among the remaining, only 8% demonstrate a utilisation rate of above 95% against 17% by China. Noteworthy amounts of LDC exports are entering under non-preferential (most favoured nation) tariff routes into India even though they are covered by the Indian preference scheme. There is a significant variation between the beneficiary LDCs. Guinea and Bangladesh: show the highest amount of eligible imports Benin: reports a utilisation rate of 98%, the highest of all beneficiary countries. Afghanistan: Fruits and nuts worth $325 million exported were entered under the most-favoured-nation (MFN) despite the preference margin of 28 percentage points being offered under the Indian preference scheme. Most-favoured-nation (MFN): treating other people equally. Under the WTO agreements, countries cannot normally discriminate between their trading partners. If a country grants someone a special favour (such as a lower customs duty rate for one of their products), they have to do the same for all other WTO members. This principle is known as most-favoured-nation (MFN) treatment. Chad: exports of mineral fuels, oils and products, etc, of a value of $48 million are entering India under MFN. The World Trade Organization (WTO):- IMAGE SOURCE: slideserve.com The WTO is the international organization whose primary purpose is to open trade for the benefit of all. Objective: to help producers of goods and services, exporters, and importers conduct their business. WTO agreements are negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments. Ministerial Conference: the topmost decision-making body of the WTO is the Ministerial Conference, which usually meets every two years. (UPSCE CSE:12th WTO Ministerial Conference) Historical Background:- The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) traces its origins to the 1944 Bretton Woods Conference, which established two key institutions, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank. An agreement as the GATT signed by 23 countries in Geneva in 1947 came into force on Jan 1, 1948, with the following purposes: To phase out the use of import quotas. to reduce tariffs on merchandise trade. Uruguay Round (1987-1994): culminated in the Marrakesh Agreement, which established the World Trade Organization (WTO). The WTO incorporates the principles of the GATT and provides a more enduring institutional framework for implementing and extending them. The GATT 1994 is an international treaty binding upon all WTO Members. It is only concerned with trade in goods. Members: it has had 164 members since 2016. India is a founding member of WTO. (UPSC CSE: Moratorium on e-commerce trade) WTO is not an UN-specialized agency. It is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations. It is a forum for governments to negotiate trade agreements. It is a place for them to settle trade disputes. It is a place where member governments try to sort out the trade problems they face with each other. MUST READ: Reviving WTO SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Gulf of Mannar Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The Gulf of Mannar became the first Marine Biosphere Reserve in the South East Asia. About the Gulf of Mannar:- IMAGE SOURCE: casmbenvis. nic. in Gulf of Mannar is an inlet of the Indian Ocean, between south-eastern India and western Sri Lanka. It is bounded to the northeast by Rameswaram (island), Adam’s (Rama’s) Bridge (a chain of shoals), and Mannar Island. The gulf receives several rivers, including the Tambraparni (India) and the Aruvi (Sri Lanka). The port of Tuticorin is on the coast. It has been renowned for its highly productive pearl banks and religious significance. The Government of India designated it as the country’s first Marine Biosphere Reserve in 1989. Gulf of Mannar National Park has also been identified as the important Bird Area by BNHS-Birdlife International because of its rich avian fauna. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve has been identified as an Important Marine Mammals

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –7th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) District Legal Services Authority Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: District Legal Services Authority in West Tripura recently organized Door-to-Door Legal Aid Campaign. About District Legal Services Authority:- Legal Services Authorities are statutory bodies that are formed in the various states of India under the Legal Services Authorities Act, of 1987. Objective: to provide free legal aid and services to the weaker sections of this society to make sure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen because of economic or other disabilities. It is organized at the district level to provide effective monitoring of legal aid programmes and their composition. Related Constitutional provision: Article 39-A: Deals with the provision of providing free legal services to the citizens of India. The provision applies to the citizens if they are unable to bear the expenditure of legal services. It also helps the defendant by appointing a lawyer to act for him in legal aspects. Composition of DLSA:- The State Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court constitutes it. (UPSC CSE: Judicial appointments) Chairman: District Judge Other members: must have the experience and qualifications as prescribed by the State Government. The Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court may nominate these members. The person to be appointed shall belong to the State Judicial Service and not lower than rank than that of a Subordinate Judge or Civil Judge posted at the seat of the District Judiciary as Secretary of the District Authority. Member Secretary of the District Authority: Assistant Commissioner of the concerned District The officers and other employees of the District Authority are entitled to salary and allowances and shall be subject to such other conditions of the services as the State Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court prescribes. Legal Services Institutions at Various Levels:- The Legal Services Authorities Act, of 1987 mandates the establishment of the following at various levels; National Level: National Legal Services Authorities (NALSA) The NALSA was founded in 1995 under the Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987. Objective: to monitor and review the effectiveness of legal aid programs and to develop rules and principles for providing legal services under the Act. Patron-in-Chief: Chief Justice of India It distributes funding and grants to state legal services authorities and non-profit organisations to help them execute legal aid systems and initiatives. State Level: State Legal Services Authority Patron-in-Chief: Chief Justice of the State High Court At District Level: District Legal Services Authority. ex-officio Chairman: District Judge of the District At Taluka/Sub-Division Level: Taluka/ Sub-Divisional Legal Services Committee. A senior Civil Judge heads it. Eligibility for free legal service:- Women and children Members of SC/ST Industrial workmen Victims of mass disasters, violence, flood, drought, earthquake, and industrial disasters. Disabled persons Persons in custody Those persons who have an annual income of less than the amount prescribed by the respective State Government, if the case is before any court other than the Supreme Court, and less than Rs. 5 Lakhs if the case is before the Supreme Court. Victims of Trafficking in Human beings or begar. Nyaya Bandhu’s (Pro Bono Legal Services) It is a primary initiative to establish a framework for the dispensation of pro bono (free of cost) legal services across the country. Under Nyaya Bandhu, practising advocates, interested to volunteer their time and services, are connected, via mobile technology, with eligible marginalised beneficiaries. Nyaya Bandhu Mobile application (Android/IOS) has been developed in collaboration with technical partner Common Services Centres (CSC) e-Governance Pvt. Ltd. Common Services Centres (CSC) are the access points for the delivery of various e-governance and business services to citizens in rural and remote areas of the country. (UPSC MAINS: Risks in e-governance) CSC e-Governance Services India Limited, a Special Purpose Vehicle set up under the Companies Act, 1956. Ministry: Ministry of Electronics & IT Objective: to oversee the implementation of the CSC scheme. It provides a centralized collaborative framework for the delivery of services to citizens through CSCs, besides ensuring the systemic viability and sustainability of the Scheme. Nyaya Bandhu Mobile application has been on boarded on the UMANG platform. UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance) is developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and the National e-Governance Division (NeGD). MUST READ: Judicial Accountability SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements. (2021) Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) Rankings 2023 Syllabus : The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) Rankings 2023 were released recently.  About National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) Rankings 2023:-  IMAGE SOURCE: findhow.net The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) is a methodology to rank institutions of higher education in India. Ministry: Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) Objective: help universities to improve their performance on various ranking parameters and identify gaps in research and areas of improvement. There are separate rankings for different types of institutions depending on their areas of operation like universities and colleges, engineering institutions, management institutions, pharmacy institutions and architecture institutions. Five broad categories of parameters identified in the NIRF:

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –7th June 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –8th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) INS Trishul Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: Recently, INS Trishul arrived at Durban port in South Africa to commemorate the 130th anniversary of the incident at Pietermaritzburg railway station when Mahatma Gandhi was evicted from a train. About INS Trishul:- It is the second frigate of the Talwar class of the Indian Navy. The guided missile frigate joined the arsenal of the Indian Navy in 2003. Built in Russia under an Indo-Russian joint production. These missile frigates are modified Krivak III class frigates from Russia. It has a displacement capacity of 4,000 tons and a speed of 30 knots and is capable of accomplishing a wide variety of naval missions, primarily, finding and eliminating enemy submarines and large surface ships. Due to the use of stealth technologies and a special hull design, the resulting frigate features reduced radar cross section (RCS) as well as electromagnetic, acoustic and infrared signatures. Pietermaritzburg railway station incident On the night of June 7, 1893, Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi, then a young lawyer in South Africa was thrown off the train’s first-class compartment at Pietermaritzburg station despite having the ticket. This happened because he refused to give up his seat as ordered after being told that it was for ‘whites-only’. The incident led him to develop his Satyagraha principles of peaceful resistance and mobilize people in South Africa and in India against the discriminatory rules of the British. Satyagraha: the term is derived from ‘satya’ (truth) and ‘agraha’ (insistence or truth-force). Its practitioners are called Satyagrahis MUST READ: India and Mahatma Gandhi SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to `Astrosat’, the astronomical observatory launched by India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) Other than the USA and Russia, India is the only country to have launched a similar observatory into space. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Burial tradition of Homo Naledi Syllabus Prelims – History Context: Recent evidence suggests that Homo Naledi buried their dead. About Homo Naledi:- IMAGE SOURCE: pinterest.com.au Homo naledi is an extinct human species that lived hundreds of thousands of years ago. Homo Nalediis a species of human discovered in the Rising Star cave system, a UNESCO World Heritage Site in South Africa in 2013. Homo naledi exhibits a combination of primitive and modern features and is not a direct ancestor of modern humans. They are believed to have existed between 300,000 to 200,000 years in Southern Africa. (UPSC CSE: Palaeolithic Cave Paintings in NCR) They walked upright. Their shoulders were built for climbing. Their teeth were shaped like that of older primates. One of the most interesting things was that their brain size was between 450 to 600 cubic centimetres (Small brain). It was one-third of that of modern humans. About the Study: Homo Naledi buried their dead, which would challenge existing notions about advanced mortuary behavior. Modern Humans exhibit a unique behavior among primates by burying their dead, which sets them apart from other animals. This behavior is known as Mortuary behavior, characterized by social acts and a complex understanding of death. Previously, the earliest evidence of Mortuary behavior was found among Neanderthals and modern humans, occurring more than 100,000 years after Homo naledi. Homo naledi may have created rock art in Rising Star Cave. This is intriguing because rock art has traditionally been associated with Homo sapiens and other large-brained ancestors. The report describes engravings in the form of deeply impressed cross-hatchings and geometric shapes such as squares, triangles, crosses and X’s. Additionally, a rock-like object found near a Homo naledi body suggests it could be a stone tool.(UPSC MAINS: Cave paintings). Homo naledi used fire strategically for illumination during mortuary and engraving activities in the cave. Burial tradition in India:- It is said that the practice of burying dead people started some 3000 years ago in India. Megaliths or large stones were used to indicate the place where the dead were buried. We still find this practice in various cultures of India. 3000 years ago, people living in southern regions, Kashmir, and the Deccan plateau were involved in such burial practices. The people who died were buried with the help of pots known as Red and Black Ware. Megalith Sites in India Nilaskal – Karnataka Hire Benkal- Kerala Chamber Tomb: Hire Benakal- Karnataka Dolmens: Hire Benakal– Karnataka Hanamsagar– Karnataka Kudakkallu Parambu– Kerala Junapani- Maharashtra MUST READ: Bhimbetka cave SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2021) Historical place                 Well-known for Burzahom                Rock-cut shrines Chandraketugarh Terracotta art Ganeshwar                Copper artefacts Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora River. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal River. Pandu – Lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari River. Price support scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The government recently announced the removal of the procurement ceiling for tur, urad and masur dal under the price support scheme. About the Price support scheme:- The scheme is for procurement, through NAFED.(UPSC CSE: NAFED and APMC) Under PSS, NAFED undertakes procurement of oil seeds, pulses and cotton when prices fall below the MSP Procurement under PSS is continued until prices stabilize at or above the MSP. Farmers

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –8th June 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –9th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Mission on Advanced and High-Impact Research (MAHIR) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Mission on Advanced and High-Impact Research (MAHIR) was launched recently to leverage Emerging Technologies in Power Sector. About the Mission of Advanced and High-Impact Research (MAHIR):- It aims to facilitate indigenous research, development and demonstration of the latest and emerging technologies in the power sector. Timeline: It is planned for an initial period of five years from 2023-24 to 2027-28. Ministry: Ministry of Power and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy  Objectives of MAHIR:- To identify emerging technologies in the power sector that have the potential for future relevance globally. To serve as a platform for collective brainstorming. To Support pilot projects for indigenous technologies. Leverage foreign alliances to accelerate research and development efforts. To create a vibrant and innovative ecosystem in the power sector. Funding and Collaboration:- MAHIR is funded through pooling of resources from the Ministry of Power, Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, and Central Public Sector Enterprises under these ministries. Additional funding will be from the budgetary resources of the Government of India. The mission encourages funding by inviting proposals from companies and organizations worldwide. Structure of MAHIR:- MAHIR operates through a two-tier structure comprising a Technical Scoping Committee and an Apex Committee. Led by the Chairperson of the Central Electricity Authority. Areas Identified for Research:- Alternatives to Lithium-Ion storage batteries Modifying electric cookers/pans to suit Indian cooking methods Carbon capture (UPSC CSE: Decarbonisation of India’s Power Sector) Geothermal energy Solid-state refrigeration. Nanotechnology for EV battery Indigenous CRGO technology Central Electricity Authority (CEA) It is a statutory organization constituted under Section 3 (1) of the repealed Electricity (Supply) Act, of 1948. It is now under Section 70 of the Electricity Act, 2003. As per Section 70 (3) of the Electricity Act, 2003, the authority shall consist of not more than 14 members, including its chairperson. Not more than eight shall be full-time members to be appointed by the Central Government. Functions of Central Electricity Authority:- It advises the government on matters relating to the National Electricity Plan (NEP). It formulates short-term and perspective plans for the development of electricity systems. It is the designated authority for cross border trade of electricity. It also prescribes the standards on matters such as the construction of electrical plants, electric lines and connectivity to the grid etc. It is also responsible for the concurrence of hydropower development schemes of central, state and private sectors. National Electricity Plan (NEP) The latest draft of the National Electricity Plan (NEP), which covers the period 2022-27. The NEP guides the development of the power sector in India. The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) formulates it every five years under the Electricity Act, 2003. The new NEP recognizes the need for additional coal-based capacity, ranging from 17 GW to nearly 28 GW, till 2031-32, over and above the 25 GW of coal-based capacity that is currently under construction. The draft Plan also highlights the need for significant investments in battery storage, with an estimated requirement of between 51 GW to 84 GW by 2031-32. It projects an increase in the Plant Load Factor (PLF) of coal-fired power plants from 55% up to 2026-27 to 62 % in 2031-32. It also emphasizes the challenges posed by the increasing reliance on renewables, which will require careful management and planning in the years ahead. MUST READ: Energy Security SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (2020) Automobile exhaust Tobacco smoke Woodburning Using varnished wooden furniture Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Recently, India’s first ‘National Investment and Manufacturing Zone’ was proposed to be set up in (2016) Andhra Pradesh Gujarat Maharashtra Uttar Pradesh Agni Prime Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: India recently conducted a successful flight test of the Agni Prime ballistic missile. About Agni Prime:- IMAGE SOURCE: autojournalism.com Agni Prime is the advanced version of the ‘Agni-1’ missile. (UPSC CSE: New generation ballistic missile ‘Agni P’) It is a short-range ballistic missile. Range: 1000 km to 1500 km It is a two-stage It is the latest and sixth variant of the Agni series missiles. It is under Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP) Agni Prime has multiple independently targetable re-entry vehicles. It is capable of delivering a number of warheads at separate locations. It can carry warheads up to 1.5 tonnes. It has a dual redundant navigation and guidance system. The Agni-P missile would further strengthen India’s credible deterrence capabilities. Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP) It was conceived by Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam to enable India to attain self-sufficiency in the field of missile technology. 5 missiles developed under this program are:- Prithvi: Short-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile. Agni: Ballistic missiles with different ranges. Trishul: Short-range low-level surface-to-air missile. Nag: 3rd generation anti-tank missile. Akash: Medium-range surface-to-air missile. Other Agni Class of Missiles Agni I: Range of 700-800 km. Agni II: Range more than 2000 km. Agni III: Range of more than 2,500 Km Agni IV: Range is more than 3,500 km and can fire from a road-mobile launcher. Agni-V: The longest of the Agni series, an Inter-Continental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) with a range of over 5,000 km. MUST READ: Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) Interceptor SOURCE: NEWSONAIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –12th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) BRICS Syllabus Prelims –Important International Institutions Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently discussed cooperation in BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) with the South African President during a telephone conversation. About BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa):- IMAGE SOURCE: PMLiVE BRICS is an acronym for the grouping of the world’s leading emerging economies, namely Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. (BRICS) Origin: the British Economist Jim O’Neill coined the term “BRIC” in 2001 to describe the four emerging economies of Brazil, Russia, India, and China. BRICS Leaders’ Summit is convened Chairmanship is rotated annually among the members, in accordance with the acronym B-R-I-C-S. Together, BRICS accounts for about 40% of the world’s population and about 30% of the GDP (Gross Domestic Product), 16% of the global trade. Initiatives: New Development Bank (NDB), Contingent Reserve Arrangement, BRICS Payment System Customs Agreements, Remote Sensing Satellite. New Initiative: BRICS is planning to launch its own “new currency” system, a major step towards de-dollarization. De-dollarization: reducing dependence on the US dollar for trade. First BRIC Summit: the first BRICS Summit took place in 2009 in the Russian Federation. Recent BRIC Summit: the 14th BRICS Summit was convened in 2022 in a virtual format, under the Chairmanship of (UPSC PRELIMS: BRICS – 14th Summit) Objectives:- To deepen, broaden and intensify cooperation within the grouping and among the individual countries for more sustainable, equitable and mutually beneficial development. It takes into consideration each member’s growth, development and poverty objectives. It is emerging as a new and promising political-diplomatic entity with diverse objectives. New Development Bank Origin: During the Sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza ,Brazil.(2014) (UPSC CSE: NDB) HQ: Shanghai Key areas of operation: clean energy, transport infrastructure, irrigation, sustainable urban development and economic cooperation among the member countries. Membership The Agreement on the New Development Bank entered into force in July 2015, with the official declaration of all five states that have signed it. The five founding members of the Bank include Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. Bank’s Articles of Agreement specify that all members of the United Nations could be members of the bank; however, the share of the BRICS nations can never be less than 55% of voting power. According to the Bank’s General Strategy: 2017–2021, the NDB plans to expand membership gradually so as not to overly strain its operational and decision-making capacity. In September 2021, Bangladesh, the United Arab Emirates and Uruguay joined the NDB. In December 2021, the NDB admitted Egypt as a new member. BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) It was signed by the BRICS nations in 2014 as part of the Fortaleza Declaration at the Sixth BRICS Summit. Objective: to provide short-term liquidity support to the members through currency swaps to help mitigate the BOP crisis and further strengthen financial stability. The initial total committed resources of the CRA will be 100 billion dollars with individual commitments as follows: China ($41 billion), India ($18 billion), Brazil ($18 billion), Russia ($18 billion) and South Africa ($5 billion). India and BRICS India is a founding member of BRICS. It conducted 13th BRICS Summit in 2021 in New Delhi. Importance of BRICS for India:- Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG) membership: India is engaged with the other BRICS countries on its NSG membership. Funds for infrastructure: NDB will help India raise and avail resources for their infrastructure and sustainable development projects. SUMMITS held in India: India hosted the 13th BRICS summit in 2021. An agreement on BRICS Cooperation on Remote Sensing Satellite Constellation was signed. MUST READ: BRICS | The coming together of the powerful five SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2016) New Development Bank has been set up by APEC. The headquarters of the New Development Bank is in Shanghai. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Agency for New and Renewable Energy Research and Technology (ANERT) Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: The Kerala State government has recently, nominated the Agency for New and Renewable Energy Research and Technology (ANERT) as the State-level nodal agency for Green Hydrogen initiatives. About Agency for New and Renewable Energy Research and Technology (ANERT):- ANERT is the single nodal agency for drafting and publishing the Green Hydrogen policy for the state of Kerala. (UPSC CSE: Green Hydrogen) A Chief Executive Officer (CEO) appointed by the Government heads ANERT. ANERT is also the Nodal Agency for the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy Sources (MNRE), Govt. of India, to carry out the National Programmes in Kerala. Chairman: Minister for Electricity Supervision: ANERT is guided by a:- Governing Body- chaired by the Minister for Electricity, Kerala and Executive Committee- chaired by the Additional Chief Secretary to Government/ Principal Secretary. Power Department, Government of Kerala provides guidelines for ANERT’s activities in various energy-related areas. Objectives of ANERT:- To identify, formulate, implement and implementation of projects aimed at providing energy requirements of the State of Kerala. Evolving long-term plans based on harnessing solar energy, wind energy, wave energy, biogas, biomass, energy plantations, micro and mini hydel projects, improved chulahs etc. To identify, formulate, implement and support the implementation of a broad-based energy conservation program including the conservation of energy at the source of generation, at the state of distribution and/ or its utilization. To provide technical, financial or other assistance for popularization and creation of awareness on alternative sources of energy, energy conservation and rural technologies. To undertake or sponsor training programs, seminars workshops etc. on non-conventional sources of energy, energy conservation, and rural technology. To sponsor, co-ordinate or

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –12th June 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –13th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Gilgit Manuscripts Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, the National Archives of India organized an exhibition which exhibited the Gilgit Manuscripts.  About Gilgit Manuscripts:- IMAGE SOURCE: slideshare.net Gilgit manuscripts were discovered in the Naupur village (Gilgit region), Pakistan Occupied Kashmir. . Archaeologist Sir Aurel Stein discovered it in the year It was written between the 5th -6th centuries CE. It is the oldest surviving manuscript collection in Indian Subcontinent. It was written on the birch bark folios documents written on pieces of an inner layer of the bark of birch trees found in the Kashmir region. It contains both canonical and non-canonical Jain and Buddhist works that throw light on the evolution of much religious-philosophical literature. (UPSC CSE: Sittanavasal Jain Heritage Site) National Archives of India The present building of the National Archives of India was constructed in 1926 following the transfer of the capital from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911. Historical Background: It was established in 1891 at Kolkata (Calcutta) as the Imperial Record Department. Ministry: Ministry of Culture HQ: New Delhi It is the nodal agency for the implementation of the Public Records Act, 1993 and Public Record Rules, 1997. Its repositories are a vast collection of records, which include files, volumes, maps, bills assented to by the President of India, an important collection of Gazettes and Gazetteers, Census records, assembly and parliament debates, proscribed literature, travel accounts, etc. A major chunk of Oriental records is in Sanskrit, Persian, Arabic, etc. MUST READ: Palm-Leaf Manuscript Museum SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts: (2022) Nettipakarana Parishishtaparvan Avadanashataka Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina’s texts 1,2 and 3 2 and 4 only 1,3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) ln Which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka? (2019) Kanganahalli Sanchi Shahbazgarhi Sohgaura Anak Krakatau volcano Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Indonesia’s Anak Krakatau volcano erupted recently.  About Anak Krakatau volcano:- IMAGE SOURCE: ABC News  It is an island in a caldera situated in the Sunda Strait between the islands of Java and Sumatra in Indonesia. Caldera: It is a large depression formed when a volcano erupts and collapses. Origin: Anak Krakatau, which means the child of Krakatau, is the offspring of the famous Krakatau volcano, whose monumental eruption in 1883 triggered a period of global cooling. In 1927, Anak Krakatoa emerged from the caldera formed in 1883 by the explosive volcanic eruption that destroyed the island of Krakatoa. (UPSC CSE: Volcanic eruption at Mount Semeru) It is part of the Ujung Kulon National Park, listed in UNESCO’s World Heritage site.(UPSC CSE: Dholavira: India’s 40th World Heritage Site) Ujung Kulon National Park It is a national park on the island of Java, in the province of Banten, Indonesia. It is best known as the last refuge of the one-horned Javan rhinoceros. A remote area of low hills and plateaus, with small lagoons and coastal dunes, it occupies 475 square miles (1,229 square km) on a peninsula and some islands at the extreme western tip of Java. The park faces the Sunda Strait, separating Java from Sumatra, and includes Panaitan Island, about 6 miles (10 km) northwest of the peninsula. it was set aside as a nature reserve in 1921; the national park was proposed in 1980 and formally established in 1992. The area was designated a World Heritage site in 1991. The park today contains the last remaining low-relief forest on Java; typical trees are of the genera Ficus and Barringtonia. Fewer than 60 Javan, or lesser one-horned, rhinoceroses (Rhinoceros sondaicus) remain alive, although the animals once thrived throughout the islands of Java, Borneo, and Sumatra, the Malay Peninsula, and other areas of Southeast Asia. Poaching and disease are the gravest threats to the remaining Javan rhinoceroses. Additional species in the park include bantengs (a type of wild cattle), Javan gibbons, langurs (leaf monkeys), muntjacs (barking deer), chevrotains (mouse deer), crocodiles, green turtles, green peacocks, and jungle fowl. In the late 20th century Javan tigers, which had inhabited the area, were considered extinct. MUST READ:  Rhinos SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of (2021) Brown forest soil Fissure volcanic rock Granite and schist Shale and limestone Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: In the recent aftermath of the escalation of tensions between Kosovo and Serbia, the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) sent 700 more of its peacekeeping troops to Kosovo. Kosovo -Serbia Conflict IMAGE SOURCE: THE HINDU Kosovo: is a small, landlocked country in the Balkans. Bordering countries: Albania, North Macedonia, Montenegro and Serbia. Many Serbs consider it the birthplace of their nation Historical Background:- After the break-up of Yugoslavia in the 1990s, Kosovo which was a province of the former country sought independence. Serbia responded with a brutal crackdown against ethnic Albanians seeking independence. This ended in 1999, with a NATO bombing campaign against Serbia. Serbian forces withdrew from Kosovo but for many Kosovo Albanians and Serbs, the conflict has never been resolved. The NATO-led Kosovo Force (KFor) is still based in Kosovo. In 2008, Kosovo unilaterally declared independence. UN Members who recognize Kosovo’s independence:- A total of 99 out of 193 United Nations countries now recognize Kosovo’s independence. These include the US, the UK and 22 out of 27 EU countries. Russia, India & China do not recognize Kosovo as an independent state Current Situation:- The relationship between the Albanian-dominated government and the Serb

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –14th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Exercise Ekuverin Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: The 12th edition of the joint military exercise Ekuverin commenced at Chaubatia, Uttarakhand recently. About Exercise Ekuverin:- IMAGE SOURCE: Quora It is a joint Military Exercise between India & Maldives. Ekuverin means ‘Friends’ in the Maldivian language. (UPSC MAINS: India’s interests in the Maldives ) Background: India and Maldives have been conducting Exercise Ekuverin since 2009. It focuses on enhancing interoperability between the two forces for carrying out counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism operations in a semi-urban environment under the United Nations mandate and carrying out joint Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief operations. 11th edition: was held in Maldives in December 2021. 12th edition: was held in Uttarakhand, India in June 2023. Other important joint military exercises of India: MUST READ: India-Maldives relations SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. “Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Svalbard mission Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: The Norwegian Ambassador has paid a visit to the ISRO Chairman. The meeting concluded with a mutual agreement on the importance of maintaining a continued partnership and fostering increased engagements between India and Norway in the field of space exploration and technology. About Svalbard mission:- IMAGE SOURCE: gktoday.in This visit offers an occasion to recall the challenging Svalbard mission, which took place 26 years ago at Ny-Alesund, Svalbard. In 1997, under the Savalbard mission, Antrix signed an agreement with the Norwegian Space Centre for the sale of a Rohini RH-300 Mk.II Sounding Rocket. (UPSC CSE: NISAR) Antrix Corporation Limited (ACL): is a marketing arm of ISRO for the promotion and commercial exploitation of space products, technical consultancy services and transfer of technologies developed by ISRO. (UPSC CSE: IN-SPACe). The RH-300 Mk-II was given a new name by the Norwegian Space Centre as Isbjorn-1, which translates literally as ‘Polar Bear-I.’ Challenge: the Rohini rockets had until then flown only in the tropical hot and humid conditions in India. while the Svalbard archipelago’s temperatures were on the extremely low side. ISRO shipped the RH-300 Mk-II to Norway after qualifying it for arctic weather conditions. However, the rocket, unfortunately, did not achieve the predicted height, rising only up to 71 km. Nevertheless, the Norwegian scientists seemed happy with the launch as the data collected during the flight led to some new findings. This launch marked a new era of cooperation between the two countries in space research. RH-300 It is a single-stage sounding rocket. Derived from French Belier rocket engine technology. Launch altitude:100 km. A variant, the RH-300 Mk-II, has a maximum launch altitude of 116 kilometers. Payload: up to 80 kilograms (20 kg of scientific payload). Numerous payloads can be tested in a single flight. ISRO ISRO was formed on August 15, 1969 with an expanded role to harness space technology. Department of Space (DOS) was set up and ISRO was brought under DOS in 1972. It is the space agency under the Department of Space of the Government of India. HQ: Bengaluru, Karnataka. Vision: to harness space technology for national development, while pursuing space science research and planetary exploration. Objective: development and application of space technology for various national needs. To fulfil this objective, ISRO has established major space systems for communication, television broadcasting and meteorological services; resources monitoring and management; space-based navigation services. (UPSC CSE: ISRO’s hybrid propulsion system) Chairman: the activities of ISRO are guided by him. He would be the secretary of the Department of Space. He would also be Chairman of the Space Commission. Space Commission: the apex body that formulates the policies and oversees the implementation of the Indian Space Programme. MUST READ: Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe. Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change. Gravity of stellar bodies does not change. Light always travels in a straight line. Speed of light is always the same. United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) programme Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, Dubai Customs celebrated the graduation of participants from the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) programme.  About United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) – IMAGE SOURCE: United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is a global leader in the fight against illicit drugs and international crime. HQ: Vienna. Historical Background: It was established in 1997.It was named as a United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) in Funding: UNODC relies on voluntary contributions, mainly from Governments. UNODC has 20 field offices covering over 150 countries. (UPSC CSE: World Drug Report and UNODC) UNODC field staff develop and implement drug control and crime prevention programmes tailored to countries’ particular needs. It

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –15th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP) programme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) certified Trainers trained in the cluster-based Training of Trainers project under the Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP) programme.  About SANKALP programme:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA It is a Centrally sponsored scheme. Tenure: 2018-2023.(UPSC CSE: SANKALP Scheme) Ministry: Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Objectives: to improve short-term skill training through strengthening institutions, bringing in better market connectivity and inclusion of marginalised sections of society. Eligible age: candidate needs to be 18 years old. It aims to implement the mandate of the National Skill Development Mission (NSDM). It receives loan assistance from the World Bank. (UPSC CSE: World Bank and International Finance Corporation) World Bank: an international organization dedicated to providing financing, advice, and research to developing nations to aid their economic advancement. 3 Key Areas of SANKALP:- Institutional Strengthening at the Central, State and District level. Quality Assurance of skill development programmes. Inclusion of marginalized populations in skill development programmes. National Skill Development Mission (NSDM) It aims to create convergence across various sectors and different States in terms of activities relating to skill training. Launched: 2015. (UPSC CSE: NSDM) Ministry: Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Objectives of NSDM:- to consolidate efforts of skill training and development across sectors and states. to help expedite steps to achieve various skilling efforts at scale at a fast pace. to create an end-to-end framework which promotes sustainable livelihoods for citizens. Institutional mechanisms:- The MSDE has set up institutional mechanisms at three tiers namely:- Governing Council : at the apex level for policy guidance Steering Committee Mission Directorate The Mission Directorate is supported by three additional institutions functioning horizontally. These include:- National Skill Development Agency (NSDA):- NSDA was established to coordinate and harmonize the skill development efforts of the government and the private sector. It focuses on policy research, quality assurance and implementation of quality standards across all skilling agencies etc. National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC):- NSDC is Public Private Partnership (PPP) under the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) to create training capacity in the country, fund vocational training initiatives and create a market ecosystem for skill development. It overlooks training, and capacity-building aspects of trainers – both public and private, leads the engagement with industries, and drives the sector’s skills councils. Directorate General of Training (DGT):- DGT is the apex organisation for development and coordination at the National level for the programmes relating to vocational training. It maintains the skill training structures of training Institutes, advises on training policies, trains instructors, provides technical support, runs women-centric training institutes, etc. MUST READ: Year End Review of Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements: (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI), 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)recently released the Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI),2023. About Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI), 2023:- IMAGE SOURCE: UNDP The Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI) quantifies biases against women. Published by: United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). 1st edition: Gender Social Norms Index (GSNI 2020). Objective: to tackle gender norms which eventually are a broad contributor to gender inequalities. The index captures people’s attitudes on women’s roles along four key dimensions:- Political Educational (UPSC CSE: Gender gap in education) Economic and Physical integrity The index, covers 85 percent of the global population. Key Findings of GSNI, 2023:- The past decade didn’t see any improvement in the level of prejudice shown against women. Nearly 90% of people still hold at least one bias against women. Around half the world’s population believe that men make better political leaders than women. Two in five believe that men make better business executives than women. A staggering 25 per cent of people believe it is justified for a man to beat his wife. Women are grossly underrepresented in leadership in conflict-affected countries at the negotiation tables. This can be seen in the recent conflicts: in Ukraine (0 per cent), Yemen (4 per cent) and Afghanistan (10 per cent). Globally, about seven of 10 peace processes did not include any women mediators or women signatories. However, policies aimed at achieving equal participation in education have been effective, with women catching up in education. Higher enrolment and completion are seen at all levels Even in the 59 countries where adult women are more educated than men, the average income gap is 39 per cent. The most significant declines were in Chile, the Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia and Kyrgyzstan. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) IMAGE SOURCE: HuffPost It is a United Nations(UN) agency. United Nations (UN): is an international organization tasked with maintaining international peace and security. Objective:- assisting nations in eradicating poverty and achieving

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –15th June 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –16th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) INS Vikramaditya and INS Vikrant Syllabus Prelims – Context: Recently, the Navy carried out a twin Carrier Battle Group (CBG) operation involving both of India’s aircraft carriers INS Vikramaditya and INS Vikrant. About INS Vikramaditya:- IMAGE SOURCE: The Times of India INS Vikramaditya is the country’s most powerful aircraft carrier. Origin of the name: It has been renamed in honour of Vikramaditya, a legendary emperor of Ujjain, India. Historical Background:- It was converted from the Russian Navy’s decommissioned Admiral Gorshkov/Baku. Admiral Gorshkov/Baku This carrier served with the Soviet Navy and later with the Russian Navy (as Admiral Gorshkov/Baku) before being decommissioned in 1996. Bought by India: 2004. Commissioned by India: in 2013. It is a modified Kiev-class aircraft carrier. Kiev-class aircraft carrier: it was the first class of fixed-wing aircraft carriers built in the Soviet Union for the Soviet Navy. Features:- Carrying Capacity: It can carry more than 1,600 personnel, including crew. It has the ability to carry over 30 aircraft comprising an assortment of MiG 29K/Sea Harrier, Kamov 31, Kamov 28, Sea King, ALH-Dhruv and Chetak helicopters. Displacement: 44,500 Tonnes. Maximum speed: more than 30 knots and can achieve a maximum range of 7,000nmi. Aircraft component: MiG 29K, Kamov 31, Kamov 28, Seaking, ALH, Chetak. It can endure up to 45 days at sea. It is powered by 8 new-generation steam boilers. The aircraft carrier can be armed with a wide range of weapons. These include anti-ship missiles, beyond visual range air-to-air missiles, guided bombs, and rockets. The ship is equipped with state-of-the-art launch and recovery systems along with aids to enable the smooth and efficient operation of ship-borne aircraft. INS Vikrant IMAGE SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS INS Vikrant is the largest warship to be built in India. (UPSC CSE: INS VIKRANT) Origin of the Name:- Vikrant means courageous. It is named after India’s first aircraft carrier, bought from the UK and commissioned in 1961. It is India’s first indigenously designed and built aircraft carrier of the Indian Navy. Aircraft carrier: a large ship that carries military aircraft and has a long, flat surface from where they take off and land. Significance:-  India joins the United States (US), the United Kingdom (UK), France, Russia, Italy, and China, which have similar capabilities. Technologies used: STOBAR (short take-off but assisted recovery). 76% indigenous material was used. Designed by: Indian Navy’s Directorate of Naval Design (DND). Directorate of Naval Design (DND): it is the warship design organization of the Indian Navy which came into being in 1970. Made: at Cochin Shipyard Limited in Kochi. Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL): a public sector shipyard under the Ministry of Shipping. Carrier Battle Group (CBG) A Carrier Battle Group is a powerful naval fleet that consists of an aircraft carrier as its centrepiece, accompanied by various escort vessels. Twin Carrier Battle Group operation involved the simultaneous deployment of two aircraft carriers along with a diverse fleet of escort ships, submarines, and aircraft. (UPSC CSE: Ikshak Survey Vessel) Significance of Indian Navy’s twin CBG operation:- It demonstrated the Indian Navy’s capability to effectively coordinate and deploy multiple aircraft carriers along with their accompanying assets. It showcased India’s commitment to maintaining a strong naval presence. It showed India’s ability in ensuring the security and stability of the region. It also marked a significant milestone in the Indian Navy’s efforts to enhance maritime security and project power in the Indian Ocean and beyond. MUST READ: Operation Ganga SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (2016) Amphibious warfare ship Nuclear-powered submarine Torpedo launch and recovery vessel Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier Execution-only platform (EOP) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) directed existing Mutual Funds ‘Execution-Only Platforms’ (EOPs)  to obtain registration within three months. About Execution only platform (EOP):- IMAGE SOURCE: Fuste Execution-only platform (EOP) is a digital or online platform which facilitates transactions such as subscription, redemption and switch transactions in direct plans of schemes of mutual funds. Mutual funds: it is a financial vehicle that pools assets from shareholders to invest in securities like stocks, bonds, money market instruments, and other assets. Mutual funds are operated by professional money managers, who allocate the fund’s assets and attempt to produce capital gains or income for the fund’s investors. Historical Background:- Till now, there was no specific framework available for technology/digital platforms to provide execution-only services in direct plans of mutual fund schemes. Current Status:- As per the new SEBI’s new guidelines, no entity would be allowed to operate as an EOP without obtaining registration from SEBI or the Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI). AMFI: nodal association of mutual funds across India. Categories of EOP The capital markets regulator has divided EOPs into two categories:- Category 1 EOPs:-  These would need to be registered with AMFI. Under this category, the EOPs would act as an agent of asset management companies (AMCs) and integrate their systems with AMCs and/or Registrar and Transfer Agents (RTAs) authorized by AMCs to facilitate transactions in mutual funds. These entities may act as an aggregator of the transactions in direct plans of schemes of mutual funds and provide services to investors or other intermediaries. Category 2 EOPs:-  These would need to be registered as a stock broker with SEBI. It can operate as an agent of investors. It can operate only through the platforms provided by the stock exchanges. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) It is a statutory body established under the Securities

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