Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Adi Shankaracharya statue Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister unveiled the 108-foot-tall ‘Statue of Oneness’ of Adi Shankaracharya at Omkareshwar in Madhya Pradesh. About Adi Shankaracharya: Birth: 11th May 788 AD, at Kaladi, Kerala. Samadhi: at Kedar Tirth. Philosophy: Propounded the Doctrine of Advaita (Monism) and He was opposed to Buddhist philosophers. Established four Mathas in the four corners of India at Sringeri, Puri, Dwaraka and Badrinath– for propagation of Sanathana Dharma. Major books: Brahmasutrabhasya (Bhashya or commentary on the Brahma Sutra), Bhajagovinda Stotra, Nirvana Shatakam and Prakaran Granths Advocation of Advaita Vedanta: It articulates a philosophical position of radical nondualism, a revisionary worldview which it derives from the ancient Upanishadic texts. According to Advaita Vedantins, the Upanishads reveal a fundamental principle of nonduality termed ‘brahman’, which is the reality of all things. Advaitins understand brahman as transcending individuality and empirical plurality. They seek to establish that the essential core of one’s self (atman) is brahman. The fundamental thrust of Advaita Vedanta is that the atman is pure non-intentional consciousness. It is one without a second, nondual, infinite existence, and numerically identical with brahman. Source:  Indian Express National Higher Education Qualifications Framework (NHEQF) Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The University Grants Commission (UGC) recently finalised the National Higher Educational Qualification Framework (NHEQF), a regulatory reform proposed by National Education Policy 2020. About National Higher Education Qualifications Framework (NHEQF): Development: The Ministry of Labour and Employment developed the National Vocational Qualifications Framework (NVQF) and the Ministry of Education developed the Vocational Education Qualifications Framework (NVEQF). The NHEQF has divided parameters into levels 5 to 10. Levels 1 to 4 cover the school education. The NHEQF level 5 represents learning outcomes appropriate to the first year (first two semesters) of the undergraduate programme of study; While Level 10 represents learning outcomes appropriate to the doctoral-level programme of study. According to the NHEQF, students must possess and display the desired graduate profile/attributes after completing a programme of study. It also establishes the amount of credits required to complete the four-year undergraduate programme, postgraduate degrees, and doctoral degrees at various levels. About University Grants Commission (UGC): EST: 28th December, 1953 It is a statutory organization by the UGC Act, 1956 Ministry: Ministry of Education. The UGC’s mandate includes: Promoting and coordinating university education. Determining and maintaining standards of teaching, examination and research in universities. Framing regulations on minimum standards of education. Monitoring developments in the field of collegiate and university education; disbursing grants to the universities and colleges etc Source: The Hindu G4 countries Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently the G4 countries have reiterated that expansion of UN Security Council in both permanent and non-permanent categories is essential to make the body more representative, legitimate, effective and efficient. About G4 countries: The G4 is a grouping of Brazil, Germany, India and Japan which are aspiring to become permanent members of the UNSC. They are supporting each other’s bids for permanent membership of the UNSC. The G4 nations traditionally meet on the sidelines of the annual high-level UN General Assembly session. Opposition to G4: the Coffee Club The Uniting for Consensus (UfC), or the Coffee Club, emerged in the 1990s in opposition to the potential extension of permanent seats on the UN Security Council. Italy along with Pakistan, Mexico and Egypt founded the Coffee Club in 1995 to reject the proposal to increase the number of permanent seats in the UNSC. About UN Security Council: EST: United Nations charter in 1945 HQ: New York City, USA. Members: 15 members Permanent members with veto power (P5 members): the United States, the Russian Federation, France, China and the United Kingdom. Non-permanent members: The non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected for a term of two years. The 10 non-permanent seats are distributed on a regional basis as follows: Five for African and Asian States. One for the Eastern European States. Two for the Latin American and Caribbean States; Two for Western European and other States Source:  AIR National Medical Commission (NMC) Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The National Medical Commission (NMC) of India has been awarded the coveted World Federation for Medical Education (WFME) Recognition Status for a tenure of 10 years. About NMC: Statutory body under National Medical Commission Act, 2019. HQ: New Delhi It has replaced the Medical Council of India (MCI) constituted under the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956. Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Functions: NMC regulates medical education and medical professionals. The Commission grants recognition of medical qualifications gives accreditation to medical schools, grants registration to medical practitioners, monitors medical practice and assesses the medical infrastructure in India. Members: It consists of 33 members including Chairman (medical professionals only), 10 ex-officio members and 22 parttime members. Four autonomous boards under NMC: Under-Graduate Medical Education Board (sets norms for undergraduate (UG) courses), Post-Graduate Medical Education Board (sets norms for post-graduate courses), Medical Assessment and Rating Board (inspects and rates the medical education institutes), and Ethics and Medical Registration Board (regulates professional conduct of the doctors and registers them). About World Federation for Medical Education (WFME): EST: In 1972 HQ: Ferney-Voltaire, France. Aim: WFME is a global organisation concerned with the education and training of medical doctors. Objective: It is the organisation that officially and globally represents medical teachers and medical teaching institutions before the World Health Organization(WHO). WFME’s accreditation program plays a pivotal role in ensuring that medical institutes meet and uphold the highest international standards of education and training Source:   AIR State of Working India Report 2023 Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently the ‘State of Working India 2023’ report, released by Azim Premji University’s Centre for Sustainable Employment. Major Findings of the ‘State of Working India 2023’ Report: Faster structural change: Between 2004 and 2017, around 3 million regular wage jobs were created annually. Between 2017 and 2019 this jumped to 5 million per year. Since 2019, the pace of regular wage job creation has

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, ‘Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve’ became Madhya Pradesh’s 7th protected habitat for big cats. About Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve:- Location: Damoh and Narsinghpur districts of Madhya Pradesh. Area: 2,339 square kilometers. Naming: It is named after Rani Durgavati, a queen of the Gondi people. Rivers: Some areas of the reserve are situated in the Narmada and Yamuna River basins. Culture: The Singorgarh Fort can be found inside the reserve. Vegetation: Dry deciduous type. Flora: The chief floral elements include Teak, Saja, Dhaora, Ber, Amla, etc. Fauna:- The sanctuary provides a habitat for a wide variety of mammals, totaling 18 different species. (Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS)) These include notable creatures such as leopard, wolf, the elusive jackal, the swift Indian fox, the fascinating striped hyena, and the adorable sloth bear. In addition to these captivating mammals, the sanctuary also serves as a residence for many species of birds, fish, reptiles, and amphibians. Significance: – It is the seventh tiger reserve in Madhya Pradesh. (Importance of Tiger Conservation) It will encompass areas within the Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary and Durgavati Wildlife Sanctuary. A green corridor linking Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR) with Durgavati will be developed for the natural movement of the tiger to the new reserve. MUST READ: Buddhist caves, temples in Madhya Pradesh’s Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements? (2018) The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act 2006. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given habitat rights. The Union Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The term M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of (2017) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna Maintenance of Tiger Reservoirs Indigenous Satellite Navigation System Security of National Highways JPM GBI-EM Global Diversified Index Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: India will be included in the JPM GBI-EM Global Diversified Index as of  June 2024. Background:- JP Morgan Chase & Co has announced that it will include Indian government bonds in its emerging markets bond index from 28 June 2024. The move can potentially attract about $25 billion into the country, as per analyst estimates. Its ultimate weight will likely reach the 10% cap, which will be scaled in at 1% per month. The inclusion will be phased over 10 months till March 31, 2025. Implications of the move:- Currently, foreign investors own two percent of Indian debt, a number which could more than double after the next inclusion. Indian bonds are expected to account for ten percent of the index once included. The inclusion would result in index tracking managers allocating money to India, which is expected to be in tens of billions of dollars. This could be a push factor to prompt foreign inflows into India and foreign investors are likely to be more active in the Indian fixed-income market. Experts believe the move is likely to bring down the cost of borrowing for the government. It will support the Indian rupee and bond markets, and improve the country’s credit rating. About JPM GBI-EM Global Diversified Index:- The Government Bond Index-Emerging Markets (GBI-EM) is a widely tracked index in the global financial market. It comprises government bonds issued by emerging market countries. (Government bonds for NRIs) These countries can differ significantly in terms of their economic development, creditworthiness, and the size of their bond markets. Investment decisions and portfolio allocations in the emerging market debt space are often guided by this index. The index is maintained by prominent financial institutions, including JPMorgan. The J.P. Morgan ESG EMBI Global Diversified Investment Grade Index (JESG EMBI IG) tracks liquid, US Dollar emerging market fixed and floating-rate debt instruments issued by sovereign and quasi-sovereign entities. The index applies an ESG scoring and screening methodology to tilt toward issuers ranked higher on ESG criteria and green bond issues, and to underweight and remove issuers that rank lower. The JESG EMBI IG is based on the established flagship J.P. Morgan EMBI. Global Diversified Index tracks instruments that are classified as investment grade (IG). The GBI-EM index is not static, it undergoes periodic updates. These updates ensure that the index remains relevant and up-to-date. Significance:- It plays a crucial role in shaping international capital flows. It serves as a benchmark for global investors to assess the performance of these bonds. Benefits:- Access to Global Capital. Boost to International Capital Markets. Increased Investor Confidence. (Bond Yields) Diversification of Funding Sources. Challenges:- Outflows from Other Countries. Currency Risk Management. Taxation Policies. MUST READ: Green Bonds SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements (2022) As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Unified Registration Portal for GOBARdhan Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNANCE Context: The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation has introduced a Unified Registration Portal for GOBARdhan recently. About Unified Registration Portal for GOBARdhan:- IMAGE SOURCE: nic.in Launched: 2023. Ministry:

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Fatehpur Sikri Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently A 61-year-old French tourist died inside the Fatehpur Sikri fort after she fell from a nine-feet-high platform following the collapse of a wooden railing. About Fatehpur Sikri: Location: It is a city predominantly in red sandstone, situated at a distance of 37 km from Agra, Uttar Pradesh. Founder: Mughal emperor Akbar in 1569. Designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1986. The structures has combined elements of Persian, Indian, and Central Asian styles. It served as the Mughal Empire’s capital from 1571 to 1585. When Akbar returned from his Gujarat campaign victorious in 1573, the city was renamed Fatehpur Sikri, or the City of Victory, to commemorate the victory. The Fatehpur Sikri complex include: Jama Masjid: It is home to the Jama Masjid, one of the largest mosques in India. It is known for its imposing structure, graceful arches, and intricately designed prayer hall. Buland Darwaza: This colossal gateway, also known as the “Gate of Magnificence,” is an iconic monument of Fatehpur Sikri. It was built to commemorate Akbar’s victorious campaign in Gujarat and is a grand example of Mughal architecture. Diwan-i-Khas and Diwan-i-Aam: These are two prominent buildings within the complex. The Diwan-i-Khas (Hall of Private Audience) was where Akbar held private meetings, while the Diwan-i-Aam (Hall of Public Audience) was for conducting public affairs. Panch Mahal: This five-storied palace is a unique structure with open pavilions on each level. It served as a place for relaxation and entertainment. Source:   Hindustan Times Basel-III capital framework Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The RBI recently introduced norms on the Basel III capital framework for All India Financial Institutions (AIFIs), which will come into effect from 2024. About Basel III: Basel III is an internationally agreed set of measures developed by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision in response to the financial crisis of 2007-09 in order to strengthen the regulation, supervision and risk management of banks. Basel III standards are minimum requirements which apply to internationally active banks. Objective: The guidelines aim to promote a more resilient banking system by focusing on four vital banking parameters viz. capital, leverage, funding and liquidity. Capital: The capital adequacy ratio is to be maintained at 12.9%. The minimum Tier 1 capital ratio and the minimum Tier 2 capital ratio have to be maintained at 10.5% and 2% of risk-weighted assets respectively. Leverage: The leverage rate has to be at least 3 %. The leverage rate is the ratio of a bank’s tier-1 capital to average total consolidated assets. Funding and Liquidity: Basel-III created two liquidity ratios: LCR and NSFR. The liquidity coverage ratio (LCR) will require banks to hold a buffer of high-quality liquid assets sufficient to deal with the cash outflows encountered in an acute short term stress scenario as specified by supervisors. This is to prevent situations like “Bank Run”. The goal is to ensure that banks have enough liquidity for a 30-days stress scenario if it were to happen. The Net Stable Funds Rate (NSFR) requires banks to maintain a stable funding profile in relation to their off-balance-sheet assets and activities. NSFR requires banks to fund their activities with stable sources of finance (reliable over the one-year horizon). The minimum NSFR requirement is 100%. Therefore, LCR measures short-term (30 days) resilience, and NSFR measures medium-term (1 year) resilience. Deadline for India to adopt: March 2019 but it was postponed to March 2020 in light of the coronavirus pandemic. About AIFIs: AIFI is a group composed of financial regulatory bodies that play a pivotal role in the financial markets by assisting the proper allocation of resources, sourcing from businesses that have a surplus and distributing to others who have deficits. They act as an intermediary between borrowers and final lenders, providing safety and liquidity. India has five AIFIs regulated by the central bank: National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) National Housing Bank (NHB) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) Source:  The Hindu Dudhwa Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: The endangered Indian Skimmer was recently spotted near Zalim Nagar Bridge along the Ghaghra River at Dudhwa Tiger Reserve, Uttar Pradesh (UP). About the Indian Skimmer: It is an unusual-looking bird with a striking red, orange beak where the lower bill is longer than the upper bill. Distribution: Globally found in the coastal estuaries of western and eastern India, and Bangladesh. Food: fish, larvae, insects, and shrimps. Habitat: It favours slow-moving rivers with sandbar habitats formed seasonally during summers, around lakes and adjacent marshes, estuaries, and coasts. Breeding: Between February to June and raise one to three chicks per clutch. Conservation Status: IUCN: Endangered (EN) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 : Schedule I About Dudhwa Tiger Reserve: Location: Spread across the Lakhimpur Kheri and Bahraich districts of Uttar Pradesh. Rivers: The Sharda River flows by the Kishanpur WL Sanctuary, the Geruwa River flows through the Katerniaghat WL Sanctuary and the Suheli and Mohana streams flow in the Dudhwa National Park, all of which are tributaries of the mighty Ghagra River. It was considered as a tiger reserve in 1987. Vegetation: The vegetation is of the North Indian Moist Deciduous type, containing some of the finest examples of Sal forests (Shorea robusta) in India. Flora: The flora is predominantly Sal forest along with its associate tree species like Terminalia alata (Asna), Lagerstroemia parviflora (Asidha), Adina cordifolia (Haldu), Mitragyna parviflora (Faldu), Gmelina arborea (Gahmhar), Holoptelea intgrifolia (Kanju) etc. Fauna: Guldar, Tiger, Fishing cat, Monkey, Langur, Mongoose, Small Indian Mongoose, small Indian civet, Jackal etc. Birds include Dabchick, spotbilled pelican, Large cornorant, Little cormorant, Grey Heron, White stork, Black storck, White Ibis etc. Reptiles include Mugger, Ghariyal, Python, Sandboa, Banded krait, Russel’s viper, Rat snake etc. Source:  India Times Five Eyes Alliance Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently US ambassador to Canada has claimed that “shared intelligence among Five Eyes

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Counter Terrorism Field Training Exercise (FTX) 2023 Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, the Indian Army Contingent departed for the ASEAN Defence Ministers Meeting (ADMM) Plus Expert Working Group (EWG) on Counter Terrorism Field Training Exercise (FTX) 2023. About Counter Terrorism Field Training Exercise (FTX) 2023:- Date: 25th to 30th September 2023. Venue: Russia. It is a multinational joint military exercise being hosted by Russia as a co-chair of the EWG along with Myanmar. (Exercise IBSAMAR) It was preceded by the Table Top Exercise of the ADMM Plus EWG on Counter-Terrorism at Nay Pyi Taw, Myanmar from 2nd to 4th August 2023. Historical Background:- Since 2017, the ADMM Plus has met annually to allow dialogue and cooperation among the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and Plus countries. The inaugural ADMM Plus was convened in Ha Noi, Vietnam on 12th October 2010. This year ASEAN member states along with Plus Group will be participating in the exercise. Objective of the exercise: strengthening and promoting regional cooperation in the field of counter-terrorism. The exercise will comprise a number of counter-terrorism drills including destroying of terrorist groups in a fortified area. ADMM Plus EWG on Counter-terrorism 2023 will provide the Indian Army with a platform to share their expertise and best practices in counter-terrorism operations. It will increase the cooperation between the other 12 participating countries. (Military Exercises) The Indian Army looks forward to an enriching professional experience from the exercise. MUST READ: 26th Exercise Malabar SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Spike in global crude oil prices Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The recent spike in global crude oil prices above the $80-per-barrel mark has contributed to petrol and diesel prices hitting all-time highs in India. Background:- Since hitting a low of $16 per barrel on 22 April 2022, the price of Brent crude oil has been rising steadily. Since the beginning of the year (2023), it has risen nearly 58% from about $51.8 per barrel to about $81 in September. The rise has been sharp over the last six weeks, from $65 per barrel on 20 August 2023. According to analysts, prices are nearing their intermediate top level of $86 per barrel, around which some cooling off is expected even though the broader trend remains rising. ( Oil Price Rise) Reasons for price rise:- Crude Oil prices have risen sharply in 2021 on the back of a recovery in global demand as the world economy recovered from the COVID-19 pandemic. Supply restrictions maintained by the OPEC+ grouping, have kept international oil prices high. These oil-producing economies have signaled slow production increases, which has led to a rise in gas prices as well. A shortage of gas in Europe and Asia has further boosted the demand for oil for power generation. Impact on India:- The rise in crude prices has contributed to petrol and diesel prices hitting all-time highs in India. Prices of petrol and diesel in India are pegged to a 15-day rolling average of the international prices of these fuels. High taxes by the central and state governments have contributed to retail prices being far higher. Analysts point out that increasing oil prices reflect growing demand in the economy, and equities often deliver more than the expected inflation that the oil surge may lead to. In line with oil, prices of other commodities including coal have been rising Impact stocks and bonds:- The BSE Basic Materials Index has risen more than three times from a low of 1,761 on April 3, 2020, to 5,725 at Wednesday’s close. This reflects the general view that economic recovery will strengthen going forward. For bonds: central bank policies will play a far greater role than the direct impact of rising oil prices. For equity investors: they can increase their exposure to upstream oil companies, which benefit from rising prices. In sectors where oil is a major cost component, a negative reaction on returns can be expected. Impact currency and the economy:- Rising crude prices tend to depress the rupee, as India being a major importer of oil needs more dollars to buy the same amount of crude. A surge in crude prices tends to increase India’s expenditure and adversely affects the fiscal deficit. MUST READ: Rising Oil Prices and Stagflation SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The term ‘West Taxes Intermediate’, sometimes found in news to a grade of (2020) Crude oil Bullion Rare earth elements Uranium Q.2) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (2018) Civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of the IAEA The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG. Nilgiri tahr Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Tamil Nadu and Kerala may soon join hands to perform a synchronized census of the Nilgiri tahr. About Nilgiri tahr:- The Nilgiri tahr is the only mountain ungulate in southern India amongst the 12 species present in India. It is also the state animal of Tamil Nadu. (Project Nilgiri Tahr) Habitat: open montane grassland habitat of the South Western Ghats montane rain forests eco-region. Distribution: It is

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) MISSIONS Psyche Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY-SPACE Context: The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) will be launching a Psyche mission soon. About MISSIONS Psyche:- IMAGE SOURCE: graphicnews.com Launch date: 5 October 2023. Launch Site: NASA’s Kennedy Space Center, Florida, USA. Launch Vehicle: SpaceX Falcon Heavy. Psyche is a NASA mission to study a metal-rich asteroid named Psyche. Asteroid Psyche is located in the main asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter. This is NASA’s first mission to study an asteroid that has more metal than rock or ice. The journey to the asteroid, also named Psyche, will span nearly six years. It will cover approximately 6 billion kilometers. The body of the Psyche spacecraft is about the size of a small van. It is powered by solar electric propulsion. It has a magnetometer, a gamma-ray and neutron spectrometer, and a multispectral imager to study asteroid Psyche. The spacecraft will start sending images to Earth as soon as it spots the asteroid. The asteroid orbits the Sun between Mars and Jupiter. (NASA’s InSight Mars Mission) It is believed to be a remnant core of a planetesimal, composed primarily of iron-nickel metal. While there are no plans to mine the asteroid, studying it from orbit could provide invaluable insights into the composition of Earth’s core. In addition to its primary mission, the Psyche spacecraft will also host a pioneering technology demonstration known as NASA’s Deep Space Optical Communications (DSOC) experiment. (NISAR satellite) This experiment could revolutionize how data is transmitted across vast distances in space, potentially enhancing our ability to explore the farthest reaches of the solar system. Significance: This mission represents a significant step forward in our understanding of the early solar system and the formation of terrestrial planets. MUST READ: NASA’s DART mission SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet at the same speed and places a probe on its surface. Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change Gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in a straight line Speed of light is always the same India Ageing Report 2023 Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY/POLITY Context: India Ageing Report 2023 was released recently. About India Ageing Report 2023:- Released on: 27 September 2023. Released by: International Institute for Population Sciences and the United Nations Population Fund. Key highlights of the report:- The percentage of the elderly in India has been increasing rapidly in recent years and this trend is likely to continue in the coming decades as well, By 2050, the share of the elderly in India’s total population can reach more than 20 percent. The number of elderly will also be higher in proportion to the number of children aged 0-14 years. The number of working-age people in the age group of 15-59 years will decrease. Also, women will live longer than men, due to which the number of older women will be more than older men. A large number of them will be rural women. It noted that the decadal increase in India’s elderly population since 1961 was medium to high. This pace was slow until 2001 but is expected to spike in the coming decades. The report said the global population has been increasing even as people are living longer. (World Population Prospects) According to the report, in India, a man aged 60 years can live another 18.3 years, while women can live 19 years. In Kerala and Himachal Pradesh, women can be up to 4 years more than men. The report has expressed concern that since the life expectancy of women in India will be longer than that of men, the number of widowed women will be considerable. (The Population Worry) MUST READ: Demographic Dividend SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice? (2019) Article 19 Article 21 Article 25 Article 29 Q.2) Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”? (2018) Limitation of powers Equality before the law People’s responsibility to the Government Liberty and civil rights Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Kole wetlands Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: The Kole wetlands of Kerala are facing the threat of alien plants. Background:- Cabomba furcuta, popularly called as Pink Bloom due its massive flowering, has been a new threat in addition to water hyacinth and Salvinia molesta to the Kole wetlands. About Kole wetlands:- IMAGE SOURCE: fas.org.in Location: Thrissur and Malappuram districts in Kerala, India. River: The area extends from the Chalakudy River in the South to the Bharathappuzha River in the North, and to Ponnani Taluk It fulfills 40 percent of Kerala’s rice requirement. It acts as a natural drainage system for Ponnani City, Thrissur City, Thrissur District, and Malappuram District. It is one of the largest, highly productive, and threatened wetlands in Kerala. It is fertile with alluvium soil which is deposited Kechery and Karuvannoor rivers in the monsoon. In terms of the number of birds, the Thrissur Kole Wetlands is the third largest in India after Chilika Lake in Orissa and Amipur Tank in Gujarat. (Launch of ‘Wetlands of India’ Portal) It comes in the Central Asian Flyway of migratory birds. It has been recognized as one of India’s Important Bird Areas by BirdLife

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Battle of Haifa Syllabus Prelims –HISTORY Context: India and Israel commemorated the Battle of Haifa recently. Background:- Every year on September 23, diplomats from India’s Embassy in Israel and Israeli government officials representing the municipality of the northern port city of Haifa gather at the Haifa War Cemetery to pay respects to the Indian soldiers who were killed and wounded in battle, on foreign soil. About the Battle of Haifa:- IMAGE SOURCE: BRITANNICA The 23rd of September is designated as ‘Haifa Day’. It commemorates the city’s capture following a daring cavalry action by the 15th Imperial Service Cavalry Brigade during World War I. Haifa Day commemorations were initiated in 2010. Teen Murti Chowk in India was renamed Teen Murti Haifa Chowk in honour of the Battle of Haifa’s centenary. Historical background:- The Battle of Haifa was fought during the First World War as a part of the Sinai and Palestine campaigns.( India, Israel, and Palestine) The 5th Cavalry Division comprising the 13, 14, and 15 Cavalry Brigades were tasked with capturing Haifa. The 15 Cavalry Brigade comprised the Jodhpur Lancers and the Mysore and Hyderabad Lancers. The British Empire, the Kingdom of Italy, and the French Third Republic, fought alongside the Arab Revolt, in opposition to the Ottoman Empire, the Austro-Hungarian Empire, and the German Empire. The Indian Cavalry Brigade, played a decisive role, leading to the capture of Haifa and Acre from the Ottoman Empire. Significance:- The Battle of Haifa is a testament to the valour of Indian soldiers, including Sikhs and Rajputs, in global conflicts. It highlights India’s contributions during the First World War. It adds a historic significance in strengthening India-Israel relations.( 15th India-Israel Joint Working Group) MUST READ: India and Israel SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements: (2022) The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by the Gajapati rulers. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagar Empire. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of:(2015) ASEAN BRICS OECD WTO Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Waheeda Rehman will be honoured with the 53rd Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award for the year 2023. About Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award:- Established: 1969. Presented at the National Film Awards ceremony. Presented by: President of India. First awardee: Devika Rani. Naming: This award commemorates Dadasaheb Phalke. Dadasaheb Phalke was the director of India’s inaugural full-length feature film, “Raja Harishchandra,” in 1913. He is known as the “Father of Indian Cinema”. The Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award is India’s highest cinema honour. It is presented annually at the National Film Awards ceremony by the Directorate of Film Festivals. The award is presented by the President of India in the presence of the Union Minister of Information and Broadcasting, the Chairpersons of the juries, the representatives of the Film Federation of India, and the Confederation of All India Cine Employees among senior officials. It is awarded for outstanding contribution to the growth and development of Indian cinema. The Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2020 was accorded to legendary actress Ms Asha Parekh. Decoration:- The prize includes:- Swarna Kamal (Golden Lotus) medallion a shawl a cash prize of 10 lakh. MUST READ: Golden Globes Award SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards: (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY/ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, Punjab submitted the State Action Plan and District-wise Action Plans for tackling the problem of stubble burning to the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM). Background:- The Action Plans commit to an overall reduction of more than 50% in paddy stubble burning incidents this year as compared to 2022. About Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM):- Establishment: 2020. It is a permanent body. (Air pollution) The Commission has been set up for Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas. It aims for better coordination, research, identification, and resolution of problems surrounding the air quality index and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. It is a statutory mechanism to coordinate and oversee diverse efforts to improve air quality in Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and UP, with the underlying remedial approach. CAQM will supersede all existing bodies, including the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), as well as state governments in matters of air pollution mitigation. Significance: The establishment of CAQM has the potential to address the problem of air pollution but an institution by itself is not a solution. Historical Background:- The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) was established under the Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Ordinance in October 2020. The parliament was not

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Gems and Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, the Gems and Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC) recently appealed to diamond industries to stop importing rough diamonds from October 15 to December 15. Background:- The decision has been taken due to the lack of demand for polished natural diamonds and studded jewellery in the international market. In a statement, GJEPC said that the demand for loose polished diamonds and jewellery from large economies like the USA and China has been affected over the last many quarters. About Gems and Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC): – Establishment: 1966. HQ: Mumbai. Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry. VISION: to make India the preferred source for quality gems and jewellery. (India’s Gems & Jewellery sector ) The Gem & Jewellery Export Promotion Council is the apex body which aims to promote the gems and jewellery products and industry. It is considered to be one of the leaders in diamond manufacturing and trading. It is a central administrative and statutory body looking over the gems and jewellery industry in India. It has regional offices in New Delhi, Kolkata, Jaipur and Surat. It drives India’s export-led growth in the gem and jewellery sector. (Export-oriented units) Objectives: – PROMOTING BRAND INDIA: – Organizing India’s biggest and second-biggest trade shows, IIJS Premiere and IIJS Signature. Organizing joint participation in international jewellery shows. CONNECTING GOVERNMENT & TRADE: – Facilitating better interaction on trade-related issues between the industry and the Government of India, Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Ministry of Finance, DGFT, Dept of Commerce, Dept. of Finance. UPHOLDING DIAMOND INTEGRITY: – Executing the Kimberly Process Certification Scheme in the country, as the Nodal Agency appointed by the Government of India. SPREADING EDUCATION: – Running training institutes that impart manufacturing skills, and technical and design excellence in six cities – Mumbai, Delhi, Surat, Jaipur, Varanasi and Udupi. INNOVATION AND INFRASTRUCTURE: – Providing MSMEs with affordable modern machines and tools at Common Facility Centres. Setting up Jewellery Parks across the country. HEALTH AND WELL-BEING:- Providing health insurance for the employees of the Council’s member companies through the group mediclaim scheme called Swasthya Ratna. PAYING BACK TO SOCIETY:- Founded by GJEPC in 2014, Jewellers for Hope has donated Rs.1 crore every year to one or more NGOs/charities doing exceptional work in supporting the underprivileged. MUST READ:  New Foreign Trade Policy SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at (2016) bringing small entrepreneurs into the formal financial system providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating particular crops providing pensions to old and destitute persons funding the voluntary organizations involved in the promotion of skill development and employment generation Q.2) What is/are the purpose/purposes of `District Mineral Foundations in India? (2016) Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich districts Protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations Authorizing State Governments to issue licences for mineral exploration Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: As per recent reports of the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), international Shipping emissions increased by 20% in the last decade. Key highlights of the report: – In 2023, greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions from international shipping were 20 per cent higher than 10 years earlier. (Shipping Industry in India) It advocates for system-wide collaboration, swift regulatory intervention and stronger investments in green technologies and fleets. It states that full decarbonization by 2050 will require massive investments and could lead to higher maritime logistics costs, raising concerns for vulnerable shipping-reliant nations like small island developing states. It emphasizes the need to balance environmental goals with economic needs. It states that beyond cleaner fuels, the industry needs to move faster towards digital solutions like AI and blockchain to improve efficiency as well as sustainability. In its analysis of global maritime trends, the report highlights shipping’s resilience despite major challenges stemming from global crises, such as the war in Ukraine. It states that maritime trade is expected to grow 2.4% in 2023 and more than 2% between 2024 and 2028. It states that balancing environmental sustainability, regulatory compliance and economic demands is vital for a prosperous, equitable and resilient future for maritime transport. About the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD):- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideServe Established: 1964. HQ: Geneva in Switzerland. UNCTAD is the UN’s leading institution dealing with trade and development. It is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly. UNCTAD is part of the UN Secretariat. Membership: it has a membership of 195 countries. The Conference ordinarily meets once in four years. The second UNCTAD Conference took place in New Delhi, India in 1968. Functions of UNCTAD: – It supports developing countries to access the benefits of a globalized economy more fairly and effectively. It provides economic, and trade analysis, and facilitates consensus building. It offers technical assistance to help developing countries use trade, investment, finance and technology for inclusive and sustainable development. Important reports: – Trade and Development Report: Annual World Investment Report: Annual The Least Developed Countries Report: Annual. Commodities and Development Report: Annual. MUST READ: GREEN MARITIME SECTOR SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Rapid Financing Instruments” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 India and Finland Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Matangini Hazra Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES Context: Matangini Hazra was remembered on the 81st anniversary of her martyrdom. About Matangini Hazra:- Birth: 1869. Birth place Tamluk, West Bengal. Death:1942. Matangini Hazra was 73 when she fell to British bullets, leading a protest march in 1942 in Tamluk, Bengal. Her death made her a martyr for many, inciting revolutionaries to establish their own parallel government in Medinipur, which functioned till 1944. Early Life:- She was married at a young age and became widowed at 18. After her husband’s death, she dedicated herself to social causes. Ideology:- She supported Mahatma Gandhi’s ideals.  (Mahatma Gandhi) People fondly called her Gandhi Buri (Old Lady Gandhi) for her dedication to Gandhian principles. (India and Mahatma Gandhi) Political Participation:– She became an active member of the Indian National Congress and took to spinning her own Khadi. She participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement, the Salt March, and the Quit India Movement. 1933: When Sir John Anderson, Governor of Bengal visited Tamluk to address a public gathering, Matangini craftily managed to avoid the security and reached the dais where she waved a black flag. She was awarded six months of rigorous imprisonment for her bravado. 1942: During the Quit India Movement in 1942, at the age of 73, she led a large procession of around 6,000 protesters, advocating for the takeover of the Tamluk police station. In the ensuing clash with British authorities, she was shot and killed, becoming a martyr for the cause of Indian independence. MUST READ: India’s Women Unsung Heroes of Freedom Struggle SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal, designated as the Governor General of India? (2023) The Regulating Act The Pitt’s India Act The Charter Act of 1793 The Charter Act of 1833 Q.2) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only UN Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: India expressed commitment towards combating organized crimes at the UN Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) recently. About the UN Convention against Transnational Organized Crime( UNTOC):- Adopted by the UN General Assembly: 15 November 2000. Entry into force: 29 September 2003. Signatories: 147. Parties: 191 (as of 20 February 2023) The United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime, is the main international instrument in the fight against transnational organized crime. It is also known as the Palermo Convention. Objective: combatting transnational organized crime, fostering international cooperation, and strengthening legal frameworks. UNTOC enables cooperation between member states for tackling international organized crime. All member parties to the convention must take measures including: Creating domestic criminal offenses. Adopting frameworks for extradition, mutual legal assistance, and law enforcement cooperation. Promoting training and technical assistance for upgrading or building the adequate capacity of national authorities. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is the custodian of the UNTOC. Three protocols of UNTOC:- The UNTOC is supplemented by three Protocols, namely:- Protocol to Prevent, Suppress, and Punish Trafficking in Persons, Especially Women and Children Adopted in 2003, it is the first global legally binding instrument with an agreed definition of trafficking in persons. Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air Adopted in 2004, this protocol deals with the problem of organized criminal groups who smuggle migrants, often at high risk to the migrants and at great profit for the offenders. Protocol against the Illicit Manufacturing of and Trafficking in Firearms, their Parts and Components and Ammunition Adopted in 2001, its objective is to promote, facilitate, and strengthen cooperation among States in order to prevent, combat, and eradicate the illicit manufacturing of and trafficking in firearms, their parts and components, and ammunition. India and UNTOC:- India ratified the UNTOC in 2011 becoming the fourth South Asian country to do so. The nodal agency for all dealings with UNTOC is the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). About UNODC:- Establishment: HQ: Vienna, Austria. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) contributes to global peace and security, sustainable development, and human rights by helping to make the world safer from drugs, crime, corruption, and terrorism. It provides technical assistance, research, and normative support to Member States to help them develop and implement comprehensive, evidence-based solutions to the complex and interconnected threats that they face at the national, regional, and global levels. In today’s challenging times, our work is needed more than ever. Functions:- Tackling the world drug problem Preventing corruption Countering terrorism Counter-Terrorism Strategy Combating organized crime Preventing crime and promoting Funding:- UNODC relies on voluntary contributions, mainly from governments, to carry out the majority of our work. MUST READ: World Drug Report and UNODC SOURCE: BUISNESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Diabetes Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent studies have found out that India has the 2nd-highest number of diabetes diagnostic centres globally. Background:- In 2021, nearly seven million people died globally as a result of diabetes, while $970 billion was the world’s quantified healthcare expenditure that year, according to a new report titled Diabetes Global Industry Overview 2023. Currently, 537 million adults globally are living with diabetes, with three in four of them living in low- and middle-income countries. After the US, the highest numbers of medical centres for diabetes are located in India (58), Canada (51), the UK (42), Japan (29), and Australia (24). About Diabetes:- IMAGE SOURCE: vecteezy.com Diabetes mellitus refers to a group of diseases that affect how the body uses blood sugar (glucose). Glucose is an important source of energy for the cells that make up the muscles and tissues. It is a condition that happens when the blood sugar (glucose) is too high. It develops when your pancreas doesn’t make enough insulin or any at all, or when the body isn’t responding to the effects of insulin properly. Diabetes affects people of all ages. Types of diabetes:- There are several types of diabetes. The most common forms include:- Type 2 diabetes: With this type, the body doesn’t make enough insulin, and/or the body’s cells don’t respond normally to the insulin (insulin resistance). This is the most common type of diabetes. Prediabetes: The blood glucose levels are higher than normal but not high enough to be officially diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. Type 1 diabetes: This type is an autoimmune disease in which your immune system attacks and destroys insulin-producing cells in your pancreas for unknown reasons. Gestational diabetes: This type develops in some people during pregnancy. Symptoms:- feeling very thirsty needing to urinate more often than usual blurred vision feeling tired losing weight unintentionally Management and Treatment:- Blood sugar monitoring. Oral diabetes medications. Insulin injections. Diet management. Exercise. Prevention:- Keeping a healthy body weight. Staying physically active with at least 30 minutes of moderate exercise each day. Eating a healthy diet and avoiding sugar and saturated fat. Avoiding smoke tobacco. Avoiding stress. (Mental Health) Government initiatives:- India’s National non-communicable disease (NCD) Target aims to prevent the rise in obesity and diabetes prevalence. (Disease Surveillance System) National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancers, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS) in 2010, was launched to provide support for diagnosis and cost-effective treatment at various levels of health care. MUST READ: Non communicable and communicable diseases SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. National Turmeric Board Syllabus Prelims –POLITY-GOVERNANCE Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently, announced the setting up of a National Turmeric Board for Telangana. About National Turmeric Board:- Location: Telangana. Set up: 2023. Objective: to harness the potential of our turmeric farmers and give them the support they rightly deserve. The National Turmeric Board will focus on value addition to the supply chain. The board will extend help to all turmeric farmers on all aspects of Turmeric crops. It would serve various purposes, including enhancing value addition in the turmeric supply chain. It will help in addressing infrastructure-related needs for farmers. It will help the Telangana farmers in having a value chain right from production to export and research in addition to infrastructure. It will boost the country’s position as a key player in the global turmeric market. Significance:- These infrastructure and developmental projects will increase employment opportunities. It improves the lives of people. Turmeric:- Turmeric is a flowering plant. (Lakadong Turmeric) It is used as a condiment, dye, drug, and cosmetic in addition to its use in religious ceremonies. Its color comes mainly from curcumin, a bright yellow phenolic compound. It requires temperatures between 20 and 30 °C (68 and 86 °F). Significance of Turmeric for India:- India holds a prominent position as a major producer, consumer, and exporter. Currently, India contributes to approximately 80 percent of the world’s turmeric production, yielding nearly 1.1 million tonnes of spice annually. The top five turmeric-producing states of India in 2020-21 are Telangana, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh. Awareness of the health benefits of turmeric had grown during the COVID-19 pandemic, leading to increased demand for the spice globally. Turmeric exports have been on the rise, with shipments totaling around 1.5 lakh tonnes, particularly since the onset of the pandemic. Health Benefits of Turmeric:- Depression Type 2 Diabetes Viral Infections Premenstrual Syndrome High Cholesterol MUST READ: Soil-less agriculture SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Q.2) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019) PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Badis limaakumi Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, a new species of fish Badis limaakumi, was discovered in Nagaland. Background:- Scientists have recently discovered a new fish species from the Milak River, Nagaland. About Badis limaakumi:- Family: Badidae. Genus: Badis. Location: Nagaland, Northeast India. It was found in Nagaland’s Malak River. Habitat: It is found in various freshwater habitats, including rivers, ponds, and marshes. Distribution: These fish are primarily found in freshwater bodies across northern India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, and Nepal. Around 25 recognized species, 15 of which are in India. Naming: it has been named after Limaakum, assistant professor and head of the zoology department at Fazl Ali College, Nagaland. Unique feature: This fish can change its colour like a chameleon. It belongs to the often-called Chameleon fish for their ability to rapidly change colors during breeding, camouflage, or stress. (National Surveillance Programme for Aquatic Animal Diseases (NSPAAD)) Local Names: “Tepdang” and “Sempi,”. Physical Features:- It has a large and slender body. It lacks blotches on its sides and fins and possesses a significant number of lateral-line scales. Diet: These fish are predatory by nature and primarily feed on small freshwater invertebrates. (Zebrafish) About Milak River: Milak River is situated in Mokokchung district in Nagaland, India. The nearest town to this river is Naga Town. Main tributary of Milak River is Tsurong. MUST READ: Puffer Fish SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Invasive Species Specialist group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations? (2023) The International Union for Conservation of Nature The United Nations Environment Programme The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development The World Wide Fund for Nature Q.2) Which of the following organisms ·perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Hirakud reservoir Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: High levels of cancer-causing heavy metals such as lead and chromium have been found in eight wetlands in Odisha, including the Hirakud reservoir recently. Background:- The findings were recorded in a new study published in the journal Scientific Reports on September 28, 2023. The selected eight wetlands were: Natural ones such as Chandaneswar, Chilika, Daringbadi, and Koraput as well as constructed ones like Bhadrak, Hirakud, Talcher, and Titlagarh. The highest concentrations of heavy metal pollutants, lead (51.25 micrograms per gram) and chromium (266 micrograms per gram) were recorded in Hirakud. Heavy metal pollutants that commonly accumulate in wetlands as a result of human activity include lead, chromium, cadmium, copper, mercury, nickel, zinc, manganese, and arsenic. These metals can enter crops through the soil, which are then consumed by humans. About Hirakud reservoir:- IMAGE SOURCE: MapsofIndia Location: Odisha. Area: 65,400 ha River: Mahanadi. (Mahanadi Coalfields Ltd (MCL)) The Hirakud reservoir is one of the largest human-made reservoirs in India. It is built across the Mahanadi River by a combination of earth and modern dams with a total length of almost 26 kilometers. The reservoir helps regulate the water level of the river. It thereby moderates the impact of floods in the Mahanadi Delta. It was designated a Ramsar site in 2021 (COP14 of Ramsar Convention on Wetlands) Biodiversity: It provides habitat for over 130 bird species and about 54 fish, with one classified as endangered and six others as near-threatened. Economic significance: 21 fish species are economically important to the region as they provide a total yield of 480 tonnes per year, supporting the livelihoods of over 7,000 fishermen. The reservoir also produces around 350 megawatts of hydropower. It also irrigates 436,000 hectares of land. Tourism: The rich biodiversity and other recreational activities in and around the reservoir make it a popular tourist destination, with over 30,000 tourists visiting annually. MUST READ: National Dam Safety Authority SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) Consider the following Rivers: (2021) Brahmani Nagavali Subarnarekha Vamsadhara Which of the above rises from the Eastern Ghats? 1 and 2 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 3 Sastra Ramanujan Prize Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT PRIZE Context: The 2023 SASTRA Ramanujan Prize was awarded to Ruixiang Zhang of the University of California, Berkeley. Background:- His fundamental work spans analytic number theory, combinatorics, Euclidean harmonic analysis, and geometry. The prize will be awarded at an International Conference in Number Theory on December 20-22 at SASTRA University in Kumbakonam, Ramanujan’s hometown. About Sastra Ramanujan Prize:- Established in 2005. Instituted by: Shanmugha Arts, Science, Technology & Research Academy (SASTRA). Time Period: annual. Objective: to acknowledge and encourage exceptional achievements in mathematics. It is a prestigious Award in the field of mathematics. It promotes mathematical research and honors exceptional achievements. This prize is for outstanding contributions by individuals in areas of mathematics influenced by Indian mathematics great Ramanujan. Decoration: A cash prize of USD 10,000. (Golden Globes Award) Age limit: It is presented to individuals aged 32 and below. The age limit of 32 years is to commemorate the fact that Ramanujan accomplished a phenomenal body of work in this short span. SASTRA Ramanujan Prize 2023 will be awarded to Ruixiang Zhang of the University of California, Berkeley. (Padma awards) His fundamental work spans analytic number theory, combinatorics, Euclidean harmonic analysis, and geometry. Building on his doctoral thesis, he and Shaoming Guo proved a generalization of the main conjecture in Vinogradov’s mean value theorem, which is concerned with the sums of numbers raised to a certain power. MUST READ: Chess Olympiad SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only