Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) COVID-19 variant EG.5.1 Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, doctors have urged people to stay vigilant against COVID-19 variant EG.5.1. Background:- On August 9, the World Health Organization (WHO) designated the latest COVID variant, EG.5.1, unofficially known as, Eris, as a variant of interest. The overall risk evaluation by WHO places this variant at a low level. About COVID-19 variant EG.5.1.:- Other name: First documented: February 17, 2023. Origin: The majority of these sequences originated from China, followed by the United States of America, the Republic of Korea, Japan, Canada, and Australia. It is a descendant of Omicron. It is a descendant of the XBB 1.9.2 variant sharing a similar spike amino acid profile with XBB 1.5. 5 carries an additional F456L amino acid mutation in the spike protein, compared to the parent XBB.1.9.2 subvariant and XBB.1.5. Spread: According to the WHO, infections have been reported in 51 countries, including China, the US, the Republic of Korea, Japan, etc. MUST READ: iNCOVACC SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN Digi Locker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3, and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Sulina Channel Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recently, the Sulina Channel has provided Ukraine with an alternative trade route for its grain after Russia withdrew from the Black Sea grain deal. Background:- Russia, targeted ports and grain storage facilities along the Danube River in Ukraine in overnight drone strikes on August 16, 2023. Russia also withdrew from the Black Sea grain deal in July 2023. Amidst this, the Danube Delta has provided Ukraine with an alternative passage in the form of the Sulina Channel to help secure its grain requirements. About Sulina Channel:- IMAGE SOURCE: intechopen.com Location Southeastern part of Romania. Length: approximately 64 km long. It connects the Danube River, with the Black Sea. (Loss of the ‘Moskva’ & Black Sea) It provides a direct route for maritime transportation Historical Background:- The construction of the Sulina Channel dates back to the 19th century. It was developed to improve the navigation of large ships and vessels in and out of the Danube Delta. Significance:- It is a significant watercourse for shipping and navigation. It is a vital trade route for cargo vessels, commercial ships, and other maritime traffic entering or leaving the Black Sea region. Danube: second-longest river in Europe, after the Volga (Russia). Ukrainian grain ships sail from ports like Izmail and Reni on the Chilia Channel to Sulina. Here the cargo is transferred to larger vessels. These vessels proceed to Constanta, Romania’s major seaport. This route falls under NATO’s surveillance and protection. This ensures a degree of security against Russian aggression. MUST READ: Russia-Ukraine War SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2023) Bulgaria Czech Republic Hungary Latvia Lithuania Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q.2) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores The region along North African shores stretches from Egypt to Morocco The region along the Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa The entire coastal areas of the Mediterranean Sea Kharif crops Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: According to the recent data released, the sowing area of rice and coarse cereals increased under Kharif crops this year as compared to last year. Background:- According to data released by Union Agriculture Ministry today, the sowing area of rice has increased from 345 lakh hectares to over 360 lakh hectares. The sowing area of coarse cereals has also increased from 173 lakh hectares to over 176 lakh hectares. About Kharif crops:- Based on seasons, crops in India are classified into the following:- Kharif crops Rabi crops Zaid crops Kharif crops, are cultivated and harvested in the monsoon season. Naming: The word “Kharif” is Arabic for autumn, since the season coincides with the beginning of autumn or winter. Sowing: These are sown at the beginning of a monsoon season. Harvesting: and farmers harvest them at the end of the season. Time Period: from June to September. The Kharif season may differ in every state of the country. Features: One of the important features of Kharif crops is that they need a lot of water and hot weather for proper growth. Kharif crops examples: Rice, Cotton, Maize, etc. (UPSC CSE: Government announces hike in MSP for Kharif season) Production:- India is the second-largest producer of rice in the world after China. (Minimum Support Prices) India accounts for approximately 20% of the world’s rice production. MUST READ: The Millet mission SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger( Guizotia aoyssinica) seeds. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in:    (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Gabon’s debt-for-nature swap deal Syllabus Prelims –Geography/International Relations Context: Recently, Gabon announced a $500 million

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Green Hydrogen Standard Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: The Government has notified the Green Hydrogen Standard for India for the progress of the National Green Hydrogen Mission. About Green Hydrogen Standard:- Issued in 2023. Issued by: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy Objectives: progress of the National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM). NGHM: It is a part of the National Hydrogen Mission (NHM) which was announced by the finance minister in the Union Budget 2021-22. Its objective was to make India a global hub for the production and export of green hydrogen and fulfill India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). The Ministry of New & Renewable Energy has defined Green Hydrogen through these standards. The standard, outlines the emission thresholds that must be met in order for hydrogen produced to be classified as Green. Definition: Green Hydrogen is defined as having a well-to-gate emission including water treatment, electrolysis, gas purification, drying, and compression of hydrogen of not more than 2 kg CO2 equivalent/kg H2. The definition encompasses both electrolysis-based and biomass-based hydrogen production methodology. Electrolysis: a chemical process that involves using an electric current to drive a non-spontaneous chemical reaction. Methodology: A detailed methodology for measurement, reporting, monitoring, on-site verification, and certification of green hydrogen and its derivatives shall be specified by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. Bureau of Energy Efficiency, Ministry of Power: it shall be the Nodal Authority for accreditation of agencies for the monitoring, verification, and certification of Green Hydrogen production projects. Significance:- The Green Hydrogen Standard bring a lot of clarity to the Green Hydrogen community in India and was widely awaited. With this, India became one of the first few countries in the world to announce a definition of Green Hydrogen. Green hydrogen:- Hydrogen is a chemical element with the symbol H and atomic number 1. (Hydrogen Fuel Cell for Vehicles) It exists only in combination with other elements. Thus, it has to be extracted from natural compounds, like water. Based on the extraction process, Hydrogen is categorized into:- Grey hydrogen: produced from fossil fuels. Blue hydrogen: produced from fossil fuels with carbon capture and storage. Green Hydrogen: produced entirely from renewable power sources. ( Green Hydrogen). Advantages of Green Hydrogen:- Environment Friendly. Reduced Dependence on Rare Minerals. Reduces Import Bill. Efficient utilization of Renewable Energy. MUST READ: India’s first pure green hydrogen plant commissioned SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements: (2023) None of them uses seawater. None of them is set up in a water-stressed district. None of them is privately owned. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency International Olympiad on Astronomy and Astrophysics (IOAA) Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: India secured Second Rank at the 16th International Olympiad on Astronomy and Astrophysics (IOAA). Key highlights of IOAA 2023:- The United Kingdom clinched the lead with five Golds. India has secured Second Rank with four medals. About International Olympiad on Astronomy and Astrophysics (IOAA):- Edition: 16th. Organized by: International Olympiad on Astronomy and Astrophysics (IOAA). Venue: Chorzów, Poland. First IOAA: was held from 30th November to 9th December 2007. Objective: to commemorate the 80th birth anniversary of the King Bhumibol Adulyadej of Thailand and the 84th birth anniversary of the Princess Galyani Vadhana of Thailand. (India & Thailand) MUST READ: Chess Olympiad SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Commonwealth Parliamentary Association (CPA) Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla  inaugurated the 9th India Region Conference of the Commonwealth Parliamentary Association (CPA). Background:- It was the 9th India Region Conference of the Commonwealth Parliamentary Association (CPA). Theme: Strengthening Democracy and Good Governance in the Digital Age. About Commonwealth Parliamentary Association (CPA):- Founded: 1911. HQ: London, UK. Historical Background:- The CPA was founded in 1911 as the Empire Parliamentary Association (EPA). It was registered as a charity on 22 October 1971 under the laws of the United Kingdom. Salient Features:- It is an association to serve the Parliamentarians of the Commonwealth Countries. Objective: to promote closer understanding and cooperation for common purposes between those engaged in the Parliamentary form of Countries of the Commonwealth. Mission: to promote knowledge of the constitutional, legislative, economic, social, and cultural aspects of parliamentary democracy, with particular reference to the countries of the Commonwealth. It provides the machinery for regular consultation and exchange of ideas and information among members of Commonwealth Parliaments. India’s commonwealth membership:- India was a dominion from 1947 to 1950 till our constitution became effective. 1949: India’s constituent assembly ratified the membership of the association declaring continuation of full membership. India has been playing an important role at the Commonwealth Heads of Government Meet (CHOGM). 1983: India also hosted the 24th commonwealth summit in New Delhi. MUST READ: (Commonwealth & Commonwealth Advantage) SOURCE:

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: A new report by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) has stated that robust raw material supply chain is key to Africa’s growth. Background:- Africa can emerge as a significant manufacturing hub for tech-intensive sectors like automobiles, mobile telephones, renewable energy, and health care by harnessing its vast resources of raw materials, according to the report. The report provided insights into how Africa can diversify its supply chain in knowledge and technology-intensive sectors like automobiles, mobile telephones, renewable energy, and health care. About United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD):- Established: 1964. It is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly. HQ: Geneva, Switzerland. Membership: it has a membership of 195 countries. India is a member. UNCTAD is the UN’s leading institution dealing with trade and development. UNCTAD is part of the UN Secretariat. It is one of the largest in the UN system. Functions of UNCTAD:- It supports developing countries to access the benefits of a globalized economy more fairly and effectively. It provides economic, trade analysis, and facilitates consensus building. It offers technical assistance to help developing countries use trade, investment, finance, and technology for inclusive and sustainable development. Along with other UN departments and agencies, it also measures the progress made in the Sustainable Development Goals, as set out in Agenda 2030. (Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) India) Important Publications by UNCTAD:- Trade and Development Report: annual. (UNCTAD Trade & Development Report 2021) World Investment Report: annual. The Least Developed Countries Report: annual.( UNCTAD REPORT ON FDI FLOWS) MUST READ: India-Africa: Challenges & Way Ahead SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Rapid Financing Instruments” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Floodwatch Syllabus Prelims – Disaster Management Context: Recently, the Central Water Commission launched Mobile App ‘Floodwatch’. About CWC: Establishment: Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Head: chairman, with the status of Ex-Officio Secretary to the Government of India. Headquarters: New Delhi. It is an attached office of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation. It is entrusted with the general responsibilities of initiating, coordinating, and furthering in consultation with the State Governments concerned, schemes for control, conservation, and utilization of water resources throughout the country. It also undertakes the investigations, construction, and execution of any such schemes as required. About Floodwatch:- Launched: 2023. Launched by: Central Water Commission (CWC). Objectives: using mobile phones to disseminate information related to the flood situation and forecasts up to 7 days on a real-time basis to the public. Salient Features of Floodwatch:- It provides essential information regarding flood situations in the country. (Nature’s Warning: Floods) Bilingual: The in-house developed user-friendly app has readable and audio broadcast and all the information is available in 2 languages, viz. English and Hindi. Real-time flood monitoring: users can check up-to-date flood situations throughout the country. The app utilizes near real-time river flow data from various sources. It also provides flood forecasts at the nearest location. (Urban Flooding) Flood advisory: users can check the flood advisory at the station nearest to them. Forecast using an Interactive Map: users can check the CWC Flood Forecast (up to 24 hours) or Flood Advisory (up to 7 days). They can do so either by directly selecting the station from the map or can search for the name of the station in the search box. The location will be zoomed in on the map when the name of the station will be selected from the dropdown. State-wise/Basin-wise Flood Forecast: The app provides State-wise/Basin-wise Flood Forecast (up to 24 hours) or Flood Advisory (up to 7 days). This can be accessed by selecting specific stations, state-wise or basin-wise from the dropdown menu. Easy access: The app can be downloaded free of charge from the Google Play Store. The app will also be available on Apple iOS soon. Advanced technologies: It utilizes advanced technologies such as satellite data analysis, mathematical modeling, and real-time monitoring to deliver accurate and timely flood forecasts.  MUST READ: Urbanisation and Urban floods SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? (2022) Cauvery Manjira Pennar Tungabhadra Matti banana Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, the Matti banana variety was granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag. About Matti banana:- They are indigenous to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu. (Dragon Fruit) Kanyakumari was then part of Travancore. It thrives in the unique climate and soil. It flourishes mainly in Kalkulam and Vilavancode taluks. It is known as ‘Baby Banana’. Its low total soluble solids content (TSSC) makes it suitable as a baby food. There are six known types of the Matti banana:- Nal Matti: a yellowish-orange colour and fine aroma. Theyn [honey] Matti’s: pulp tastes like honey. Kal Matti gets its name from the calcium oxalate crystals forming in its pulp and black dots on the skin. Nei Matti: exudes the aroma of ghee. Sundari Matti: a Matti clone, with its elongated fingers, thick peel, and creamy white rind. MUST READ: Crop in news: Jackfruit SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to, the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd August 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Hurricane Hilary Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, Hurricane Hilary caused extensive damage in the United States. Background:- Hilary is the first tropical storm to hit Southern California in 84 years. About Hurricane Hilary:- IMAGE SOURCE: dailybreeze.com Location: near the west coast of Baja California. Baja California: The long Mexican peninsula bound by the Gulf of California in the east and the North Pacific Ocean in the west. Origin and Trajectory:- It originated as a Tropical Storm off the shores of Mainland Mexico. This weather phenomenon rapidly transformed into a Category 2 hurricane and then into a Category 3 storm Soon, it was officially designated as a Category 4 hurricane, nearly a day before its projected timeline. This rapid intensification is anticipated to continue, leaving open the possibility of a Category 5 upgrade before eventual weakening. ( Cyclones forecast) Categories of Hurricanes:- Hurricanes are categorized on the Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale based on their maximum sustained wind speeds. The scale ranges from Category 1 (weakest) to Category 5 (strongest). Each category represents a higher wind speed and potential for damage. Possible Factors behind its intensification:- Scientists expected climate change to not only spike the occurrence of such hurricanes but also make them more intense due to the following implications:- Rise of the surface temperatures of the oceans: global mean sea surface temperature has gone up by close to 0.9 degree Celsius since 1850 and around 0.6 degrees Celsius over the last four decades. Higher sea surface temperatures: it causes marine heat waves, an extreme weather event, which can also make storms like hurricanes and tropical cyclones more intense. Marine heatwaves: they are extended periods of anomalously warm sea surface temperatures in the ocean. El Nino: The situation has been worsened by El Nino, developing for the first time in seven years. This has weakened the vertical wind shear in the eastern Pacific, allowing more hurricanes in the region. El Nino: a weather pattern that refers to an abnormal warming of surface waters in the equatorial Pacific Ocean. Risk or Threat:- Unlike hurricane-prone states on the Gulf of Mexico, California and Mexico’s west coast lack experience in dealing with such events. (Bomb Cyclone) Its expected landfall in the Baja peninsula of Mexico poses risks of landslides, flooding, and extensive damage due to the region’s geographical features and population density. About Hurricane:- Hurricanes are tropical storms that form in the Atlantic Ocean. Wind speeds: at least 119 kilometers (74 miles) per hour. Hurricanes derive their energy from the heat released when moist air rises and condenses into clouds and rain. Key characteristics of hurricanes:- Hurricanes form over warm ocean waters when the sea surface temperature is typically above 26 degrees Celsius (79 degrees Fahrenheit). Low-Pressure Centre: Hurricanes have a well-defined centre of low atmospheric pressure, known as the Strong Winds: winds can reach sustained speeds of at least 74 miles per hour (119 kilometers per hour) or higher. Heavy Rainfall. MUST READ: Hurricane Ida SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (Bharat NCAP) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Union Minister of Road Transport and Highways Shri Nitin Gadkari launched the Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (Bharat NCAP) recently. About Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (Bharat NCAP):- Launched:2023. Implementation: October 1, 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Objectives: to enhance road safety by elevating vehicle safety standards for up to 3.5-tonne vehicles in India. It is a safety assessment program for passenger vehicles weighing less than 3.5 tonnes and capable of seating up to eight people. Salient Features of Bharat NCAP:- It proposes a mechanism of awarding ‘Star Ratings’ to automobiles based on their performance in crash tests. The voluntary Bharat NCAP would assign vehicles between one and five stars on parameters such as Adult Occupant Protection (AOP), Child Occupant Protection (COP), and Safety Assist Technologies (SAT). This will help assess to what extent a car may suffer damage in the event of an Potential car buyers can refer to these star ratings to decide which car to buy by comparing the safety standards. Bharat NCAP standard is aligned with global benchmarks and it is beyond minimum regulatory requirements. The testing of vehicles for this programme will be carried out at testing agencies, with the necessary infrastructure. Benefits of NCAP: Develop a safety-sensitive car market in India. Consumer Awareness. Enhanced Safety and Export Potential. Making the Indian automobile industry self-reliant. (Atmanirbhar Bharat 3.0) MUST READ: Electric Vehicles SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following actions: (2023) Detection of car crash/ collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode. In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None Q.2)  Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022) Cloud Services Quantum Computing Visible Light Communication Technologies Wireless Communication Technologies Agnibaan SOrTeD (SubOrbital Technological Demonstrator) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: A Chennai-based start-up AgniKul Cosmos, has

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd August 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Yasuni National Park Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Ecuadorians voted against the oil drilling of the protected area in Yasuni National Park in the Amazon recently. About Yasuni National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: pbs.org Location: Ecuador, South America. Area: 9,820 square km (3,791 square miles). Water bodies: It is situated between the Napo and Curaray Rivers. Indigenous Communities: It is home to several indigenous communities like Tagaeri and Taromenani. 1989: Yasuni was designated a world biosphere reserve by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). (UNESCO World Heritage Forests) It is part of the Amazon rainforest. The park is considered one of the most biologically diverse areas on Earth. Biodiversity:- 610 species of birds, 139 species of amphibians, and 121 species of reptiles. At least three species are Endemic species: any species or other taxon whose geographic range or distribution is confined to a single given area. About Amazon Rainforests:- Location: South America. The Amazon is a vast biome that spans eight countries—Brazil, Bolivia, Peru, Ecuador, Colombia, Venezuela, Guyana, and Suriname—and French Guiana, an overseas territory of France. It is bounded by the Guiana Highlands to the north, the Andes Mountains to the west, the Brazilian Central Plateau to the south, and the Atlantic Ocean to the east. These are the world’s largest tropical rainforests. (Deforestation in Amazon Basin) As of 2021, the Amazon had 74% of its area covered by tropical rainforests and 9% of other natural vegetation types. They are home to nearly a fifth of the world’s land species and over 45 million people. The rainforest of the Amazon is home to 400–500 indigenous Amerindian tribes. Biodiversity:- It is the world’s richest and most-varied biological reservoir. Flora: a wide variety of trees, including many species of myrtle, laurel, palm, and acacia, as well as rosewood, Brazil nut, and rubber tree. Fauna: jaguar, manatee, tapir, red deer, capybara, and many other types of rodents, and several types of monkeys.  MUST READ: Amazon forests are no longer acting as a carbon sink SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of: (2015) ASEAN BRICS OECD WTO Maharaja Bir Bikram Manikya Bahadur Syllabus Prelims –History Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid homage to Maharaja Bir Bikram Manikya Bahadur on his 115th birth anniversary. About Maharaja Bir Bikram Manikya Bahadur:- Birth: August 19, 1908. Death: 17 May 1947. Dynasty: Maniyaka He was the last King of Tripura. He was a prominent royal figure who played a pivotal role in the modernization and development of the princely state of Tripura. His reign marked a transformative period in Tripura’s history, characterized by progressive reforms and visionary initiatives. Education:- He is popularly known as the Architect of Tripura due to his contribution to educational institutions. He established the Maharaja Bir Bikram College (MBB College) in Agartala, Tripura. Infrastructure:- Under his leadership, significant infrastructure projects were undertaken. Road networks, bridges, and public buildings were constructed to enhance connectivity and elevate living standards across the state. He built Tripura’s first airport at Agartala. He also set up one of the country’s first municipalities. Land Reforms:- He initiated land reforms, reserving vast tracks of land for Tripura’s tribal Healthcare:- He established hospitals and medical facilities, ensuring accessible and quality medical services for the people of Tripura. Administrative Efficiency He introduced administrative reforms to enhance governance and efficiency. His administration focused on inclusive policies that aimed at the welfare and upliftment of the people. Cultural Preservation:- He supported local arts, crafts, and traditions, ensuring that the state’s identity remained intact. ( Tripura government planning to promote Risa as the signature textile) MUST READ: Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal, designated as the Governor General of India? (2023) The Regulating Act The Pitt’s India Act The Charter Act of 1793 The Charter Act of 1833 Q.2) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Global Maritime India Summit 2023(GIMS 2023) Syllabus Prelims – Government Initiatives Context: Recently, a roadshow was organized in Visakhapatnam as a run-up to the Global Maritime India Summit 2023(GIMS 2023). Background:- Visakhapatnam Port Authority (VPA) organized a roadshow in Visakhapatnam as part of a series of nationwide roadshows under the guidance and direction of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways. It was organized to invite and attract clients and various stakeholders to actively participate in the three-day Global Maritime India Summit 2023 (GMIS) starting on October 17 in Delhi. About Global Maritime India Summit 2023 (GIMS 2023):- Ministry: Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. Event duration: 17th October-19th October 2023. Venue: Pragati Maidan, New Delhi. Organizers: Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Indian Port Association, and Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) IPA: constituted in 1966 under the Societies Registration Act, primarily with the idea of fostering the growth and development of all Major Ports. FICCI: is the largest and oldest apex business organization in India. It is an annual meeting of the Indian and international maritime community. Objective: to serve as a platform to showcase global best practices, foster investment partnerships,

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd August 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) Syllabus Prelims – Sports Context: The United World Wrestling (UWW) has suspended the Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) for not conducting elections on time. Background:- The UWW suspended the WFI for not conducting its elections within the mandated 45 days, which meant that the Indian grapplers would not be able to compete in Belgrade from September 16 under the Indian flag. About the Wrestling Federation of India (WFI):- Establishment: 1958. Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports. HQ: New Delhi. It is the governing body of wrestling in India. Objective: to promote wrestling players for the Olympics, Asian Games, National Wrestling Championships, and World Wrestling Championships. Historical Background of Wrestling in India:– Wrestling in India has been practiced since the 5th millennium B.C. In Ancient India, wrestling was known as Many characters in Mahabharata are considered to be great wrestlers of the time, included: Bhimawas Jarasandha, Keechak, and Balrama. Ramayana mentions Hanuman as one of the greatest wrestlers of his time. It is called kushti in Punjab and Haryana. Composition of WFI:- President -01 Senior Vice President – 01 Vice Presidents – 04 Honourary Secretary General – 01 Honourary Treasurer – 01 Honourary Joint Secretaries – 02 Executive Members – 05 Functions of WIFI:- To encourage, promote, and control amateur wrestling activities. To affiliate with the Indian Olympic Association. To affiliate with the United World Wrestling [UWW] and to enforce the rules and regulations of UWW. To arrange the holding of Senior, Junior, and Sub-Junior Wrestling Championships every year as per UWW Rules. To authorize a State Wrestling Association to hold wrestling competitions of Inter-Regional nature. To maintain control over officials and keep a panel of trained officials to work in approved. To arrange for their training and tests whenever required. To conduct systematic coaching camps for the benefit of wrestlers. To lay down the general policy under which the State Wrestling Associations. To register wrestlers and promote friendly bouts among them.   About-United World Wrestling (UWW):- It is the international governing body for the sport of wrestling. HQ: Objective: to lead the growth of Wrestling, competitive and recreational, around the world. The UWW was formerly known as FILA (Fédération Internationale des Luttes Associées).   MUST READ: Sports Code SOURCE: AIR Shaheed Rajguru Syllabus Prelims – Modern Indian History Context: The Union Minister Amit Shah paid tribute to Shaheed Rajguru on his birth anniversary recently. About Rajguru:- Birth: 24 August 1908. Birth Place: Khed, near Pune, Maharashtra. Death: 23 March 1931. Rajguru was a freedom fighter in the Indian National movement. He was 22 years old when he was martyred. Ideology: He believed in militant nationalism and thought that oppression was to be met with ferocity and violence. Political Career:- He joined the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA). HSRA: It was a revolutionary group founded during the freedom movement in India. Its members consisted of revolutionaries such as Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqulla Khan, and Sachindra Nath Bakshi. They believed that India could gain independence only by force. The group engaged in violent methods to achieve their objective. Assassination of J P Saunders:- The young revolutionaries wanted to take revenge for the death of Lala Lajpat Rai who died due to injuries sustained in a brutal police lathi charge during the protests against the Simon Commission. Rajguru among other revolutionaries wanted to assassinate James A. Scott, the police officer who had ordered the lathi charge. However, in a case of mistaken identity, J. P. Saunders, a British police officer was killed. Rajguru was caught and arrested. Trial:- In the trial that followed the shooting, all three leaders Rajguru, Bhagat Singh, and Sukhdev were sentenced to death. Rajguru, along with his fellow revolutionaries, was hanged in Legacy:- Rajguru, Bhagat Singh, and Sukhdev were hanged on 23 March 1931. This day is observed as Martyrs’ Day in India. MUST READ: Chandra Shekhar Azad SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a: (2014) revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters in San Francisco. nationalist organization operating from Singapore. militant organization with headquarters in Berlin. communist movement for India’s freedom with headquarters at Tashkent. Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) Syllabus Prelims – Defense/Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Defence Acquisition Council approved proposals worth 7,800 crore rupees to enhance the operational capabilities of the Armed Forces. Background:- To enhance the efficiency of the Indian Air Force, the DAC granted Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for the procurement and installation of Electronic Warfare EW Suite on Mi-17 V5 Helicopters. The EW Suite will be procured from Bharat Electronics Limited BEL. The DAC has also accorded AoN for procurement of a Ground-Based Autonomous System for mechanized infantry and armoured regiments which will enable various operations like unmanned surveillance, logistic delivery of ammunition, fuel, and spares, and casualty evacuation on the battlefield. The AoN for procurement of Ruggedized Laptops and Tablets for the Indian Army under Project Shakti has also been accorded. About the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):- Establishment: 2001. Ministry: Ministry of Defense. HQ: Delhi. The Defence Acquisition Council is the highest decision-making body in the Defense Ministry. It decides new policies and capital acquisitions for the three services (Army, Navy, and Air Force) and the Indian Coast Guard. Objective: To ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the armed forces. Chairman: The Minister of Defense is the Chairman of the Council. Historical Background:- It was formed, after the Group of Ministers’ recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post Kargil War (1999). Functions of DAC:- Give in-principle approval of a 15-year Long Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP) for defense forces. Accord of acceptance of necessity to acquisition proposals. Categorization of the acquisition proposals relating to ‘Buy’, ‘Buy & Make’, and ‘Make’. Take decisions regarding ‘offset’ provisions

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Global Environment Facility (GEF) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The Global Biodiversity Framework Fund (GBFF) was ratified and launched at the Seventh Assembly of the Global Environment Facility (GEF) held recently. Global Biodiversity Framework Fund’s (GBFF) implications:- Governments, non-profits, and the private sector can now contribute their funds to GBFF. This will ensure that the world meets the goals and targets of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) formulated by the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) by 2030. As much as 20 percent of the funds would support Indigenous-led initiatives to protect and conserve biodiversity. It will also prioritize support for Small Island Developing States and Least Developed Countries, which will receive more than a third of the fund’s resources. This is the first time there would be funds channeled to non-state actors like the indigenous communities. Under Target 19 of GBF, at least $200 billion per year will need to be raised by 2030. Canada and the United Kingdom have already donated 200 million Canadian dollars and 10 million pounds respectively to the GBFF. After donations from Canada and the UK, $40 million is still needed to operationalize the fund by the end of 2023. The first GBFF Council meeting will be held in January 2024, with a view to approving the first work programme at the June 2024 Council meeting. The first tranche of the fund is likely to be disbursed after the council meeting to ensure that the first projects under the new Fund can be launched ahead of CBD’s CoP16. About Global Environment Facility (GEF):- IMAGE SOURCE: GEF Established:1991. It was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit of UNFCC. HQ: Washington, D.C. United States. Historical Background:- It was set up as a fund under the World Bank. Restructured: in 1994. 1992: At the Rio Earth Summit, the GEF was restructured and moved out of the World Bank system to become a permanent, separate institution. Since 1994, however, the World Bank has served as the Trustee of the GEF Trust Fund. Rio Earth Summit: It was a major United Nations conference held in Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) in 1992. It highlighted the impact of human socio-economic activities on the environment. ( Climate Ambition Summit 2020 held virtually) Members of GEF: It has 184 member India is a member. Venue of the seventh Assembly of GEF: Vancouver, Canada. It is a family of funds dedicated to confronting biodiversity loss, climate change, pollution, and strains on land and ocean health. Its grants, blended financing, and policy support to help developing countries address their biggest environmental priorities and adhere to international environmental conventions. It provides financial assistance for five major international environmental conventions:- The Minamata Convention on Mercury. Signed: 2013. Effective from 2014. It is an international treaty designed to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds. The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). Signed:2001. Effective from 2004. It is an international environmental treaty that aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants (POPs). The United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD) (UN Biodiversity Summit) Signed: 5 June 1992 – 4 June 1993. Effective from 1993. It is the international legal instrument for “the conservation of biological diversity, the sustainable use of its components, and the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD). Signed: 14 October 1994 – 13 October 1995. Effective from 1996. It was established in 1994 to protect and restore our land and ensure a safer, just, and more sustainable future. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Signed:1992-1993. Effective from 1994. It was adopted in 1992 with the ultimate aim of preventing dangerous human interference with the climate system. Organization of GEF:- The GEF’s governing structure is organized around an Assembly, Council, Secretariat, 18 implementing agencies, a Scientific and Technical Advisory Panel, and the Independent Evaluation Office. GEF Council: it is the GEF’s main governing body, and comprises 32 members appointed by constituencies of member countries. Functions of GEF:- It supports developing countries’ work to address the world’s most pressing environmental issues. It organizes work around five focal areas – biodiversity loss, chemicals and waste, climate change, international waters, and land degradation. It takes an integrated approach to support more sustainable food systems, forest management, and cities. GEF and India: India is a founder member of GEF. It is both a donor and recipient of GEF funds. India represents the GEF South Asia Constituency (including, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, and Sri Lanka) in the GEF Council. GEF Political Focal Point: Department of Economic Affairs (DEA). It is responsible for issues related to GEF governance, including policies and decisions, as well as relations between member countries and the GEF Council and Assembly. GEF Operational Focal Point (OFP): The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) MUST READ: Climate Adaptation Summit 2021 SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following : (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) It serves as a financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at the global level It is an agency under the OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with the specific aim of protecting their environment Both (a) and (b) Multi Commodity Exchange Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Gold prices declined 50 rupees at Multi Commodity Exchange for October 2023. Background:- Gold was trading at 58,769 rupees per 10 grams. Silver was also down by 404 rupees to trade at 73,600 rupees per kilogram for September 2023 Contracts. About Multi Commodity Exchange:- A commodities exchange is

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Sri Lanka’s first Karnataka cultural festival Syllabus Prelims –Art and culture Context: Recently, Sri Lanka hosted its very first Karnataka cultural festival. Key highlights of the events:- Organized by: International Cultural Council of India in collaboration with the Swami Vivekananda Cultural Centre and M.E Global Peace Foundation. Venue: Performing Arts University Auditorium, Colombo. The event showcased a mesmerizing lineup of performances by performing artists of nearly thirty well-known folk and classical traditions of Karnataka State. Performances included: Dances (Academic, traditional, and folk), musical performances, multilingual poetry recitals, Mudra dramas, puppet shows, etc. will be presented at the concert. (Tholpavakoothu) The programme featured the essence of Karnataka’s heritage, with the spotlight on talented artists like Madhuri Bondre and her troupe. Madhuri Bondre: A prominent Karnataka dancer. The event celebrated cultural diversity and marked a significant moment in the shared cultural heritage of India and Sri Lanka. About Swami Vivekananda Cultural Centre:- Established: 1998 Established at Colombo It was formerly known as the Indian Cultural Centre. Objective: Building bridges of cultural exchange and interaction between India & and Sri Lanka. The Centre is one of the 24 Indian Cultural Centres established by the Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) to :- Revive and strengthen cultural relations and mutual understanding between India and other countries and seek Promote India-Sri Lanka cultural cooperation by building on cultural commonalities and Create an awareness of Indian culture in all its facets. MUST READ: Kalyana Karnataka Utsav SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct? (2022) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture. The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets. Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethics. Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational. Q.2) With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu’? (2014) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India It is an ancient style bronze and brass work still found in the southern part of the Coromandel area It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India Fukushima Nuclear Power Plant water issue Syllabus Prelims – International Relations/Disaster Management Context: South Korean protesters recently, called for government action to avoid any disaster caused by the release of treated radioactive water from the Fukushima nuclear power plant. Background of the issue:- Japan planned the release of over 1 million tons of water, which is claimed to be treated but potentially radioactive, from the Fukushima nuclear power plant into the sea. This sparked strong opposition and anxiety among neighboring countries, particularly South Korea. Concerns Raised- South Korea: It fears that the water release will contaminate its waters, salt, and seafood, affecting its fishing industry and public health. China: criticized Japan’s plan, questioned its transparency, and expressed concerns about the potential impact on the marine environment and global health. Japan’s Alternative Options:- Store the water for longer and then discharge it. This is because tritium’s half-life is 12-13 years. Half-life – the time it takes for its quantity to be halved through radioactive decay. The quantity of any other radioactive isotopes present in the water will decrease in this time. Hence, at the time of discharge, the water would be less radioactive. Expert Opinion:- The International Atomic Energy Agency in a final report in July 2023, concluded that the release, if conducted as designed, will cause negligible impact on the environment and human health. About the Fukushima Daiichi Nuclear Power Plant tragedy:- Fukushima Daiichi Nuclear power plant meltdown: (Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant) Location: Japan. (India – Japan Relations) Causes: a massive earthquake and tsunami. Impact: It released large amounts of radioactive materials into the environment. Causalities: No deaths were initially attributed to the incident. Although around 18,000 people lost their lives as a result of the earthquake and tsunami. ( Early Tsunami Warning System in India) Development after tragedy:- Since then, Japan has been storing the cooling water for nuclear fuel, and rain and groundwater seeping through the damaged reactor buildings in large tanks on site. The water is treated using a filtering system called Advanced Liquid Processing System (ALPS). ALPS: a filtering system that removes most of the radioactive elements except for tritium. Tritium: a hydrogen isotope that is difficult to separate. MUST READ: India’s Nuclear Energy SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Monazite is a source of rare earths. Monazite contains thorium. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Band-e-Amir National Park Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: The Taliban government has banned women from visiting the Band-e-Amir National Park in Afghanistan, recently. About Band-e-Amir National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: discoverytumundo.blogspot.com.ar Location: Yakawlang district, Afghanistan (India-Afghanistan) 2009: It was declared Afghanistan’s first national park. It features a chain of six lakes set in the Hindu Kush Mountains. Hindu Kush Mountains: a great mountain system of Central Asia. Lakes:- The lakes are famous for their intense and varying colors, ranging from faint turquoise to deep blue. The colour is a result of the minerals that fill the water and create the lake beds. It’s been called Afghanistan’s Grand Canyon. Tourism: It was visited by thousands of Afghans and pilgrims. It ceased as security nationwide deteriorated with the Taliban coming to power. Wildlife: ibex (wild goats), urials (wild sheep – pictured here), wolves, foxes, fish, and birds MUST READ: Eco-sensitive Zones (ESZ) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2022) Azerbaijan Kyrgyzstan Tajikistan Uzbekistan Turkmenistan Which of the above has borders with Afghanistan? 1, 2

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 29th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Horn of Africa Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: The Greater Horn of Africa is likely to get heavy rains from October to December 2023, according to the Intergovernmental Authority on Development (IGAD) Climate Prediction and Applications Centre (ICPAC). Key Highlights: ICPAC attributed the wetter-than-usual conditions across most parts of the Greater Horn of Africa to El Nino. El Nino: a natural phenomenon wherein the ocean temperatures rise especially in parts of the Pacific Ocean.( El Nino and La Nina) Southern Ethiopia, eastern Kenya, and southern Somalia are very likely to experience wetter-than-usual rainfall, according to the forecast. In contrast, drier-than-usual conditions have been forecast for the isolated areas of southwestern Uganda and southwestern South Sudan. Below-average rainfall has been forecast until the end of the season for Eritrea, central and northern Ethiopia, Djibouti, Western Kenya, significant areas of South Sudan and Sudan, and Northern Uganda. October to December, the vital rainfall season, especially in the equatorial parts of the Greater Horn of Africa, may contribute 20-70 percent of the annual total rainfall. About the Intergovernmental Authority on Development (IGAD):- Establishment: 1996. HQ: Djibouti, Africa. The IGAD in Eastern Africa was created to supersede the Intergovernmental Authority on Drought and Development (IGADD). Mission: Promote regional cooperation and integration to add value to Member States’ efforts in achieving peace, security, and prosperity. About ICPAC:- Historical Background:- The Drought Monitoring Center-Nairobi (DCMN) was adopted as a specialized IGAD institution in the 10th Summit of the Heads of State and Governments IGAD in 2003. It changed its name to IGAD Climate Prediction and Applications Centre (ICPAC). HQ: Nairobi, Kenya. It is a Climate Center accredited by the World Meteorological Organization. It provides Climate Services to 11 East African Countries. About Horn of Africa:- IMAGE SOURCE: is online About Horn of Africa:- Countries: Somalia, Ethiopia, Eritrea and Djibouti. Location: northeast of the African It lies along the southern boundary of the Red Sea. It extends hundreds of kilometers into the Guardafui Channel, the Gulf of Aden, and the Indian Ocean. It is equidistant from the equator and the Tropic of Cancer. It extends out into the Arabian Sea for hundreds of kilometers. It is located along the south of the Gulf of Aden. The Horn of Africa is a UNESCO Biodiversity Hotspot and one of the two entirely arid ones. Biodiversity Hotspot: To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, an area must meet two strict criteria:- Contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants found nowhere else on Earth (known as “endemic” species). Have lost at least 70 percent of its primary native vegetation. The Greater Horn of Africa region includes Burundi, Djibouti, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Kenya, Rwanda, Somalia, South Sudan, Sudan, Tanzania, and Uganda. MUST READ: India-Africa: Challenges & Way Ahead SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (2022) Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Q.2) With reference to the ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting the Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct (2017) The IOD phenomenon is characterized by a difference in sea surface temperature between the tropical Western Indian Ocean and the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Chail wildlife sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a rare black eagle was spotted at Chail Wildlife Sanctuary. About Chail Wildlife Sanctuary:- Location: Solan & Shimla districts of Himachal Pradesh. Terrain: encompasses hills, valleys, forests, and grasslands. Flora: oak, pine, cedar, rhododendron, and grasslands. Fauna: pheasants, Himalayan bears, deer, langurs, and porcupines. Water Bodies: It comprises part of the catchment area of a tributary of the Giri River. Conservation programs: Established a pheasant breeding program in 1988. (Wildlife Protection) Chail Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area. Protected areas: in which human presence or the exploitation of natural resources (e.g. firewood, non-timber forest products, water, etc.) is limited. (Eco-sensitive Zones (ESZ)) Black eagle:- Characteristics feature: This Eagle is dark black in color and has a striking yellow beak. Habitat: It soars over forests and is mostly found in hilly regions. Food: They mainly hunt for mammals and small birds, especially the ones in the nest. Family: Accipitridae. Genus: Ictinaetus. It is the only member of the genus. Distribution: tropical and subtropical South and Southeast Asia, as well as southeastern China. Distribution in India: Himachal Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir, forests of the Eastern and Western Ghats in peninsular India. Conservation status:- IUCN: Least concern MUST READ: Rare migratory eagle SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: (2023) They build nests by making burrows in the ground. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following fauna: (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The government’s flagship scheme for financial inclusion Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana recently completed nine years of implementation. Background:- Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has said that Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana-led interventions and digital transformation have revolutionized financial inclusion in the country in the last nine years About Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY):- Launched: 28th August in 2014. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. Objectives: ensuring access to various financial services like availability of basic savings bank account, access to need based credit, remittances facility, insurance, and pension to the excluded sections i.e. weaker sections & and low-income groups. Salient Features of PMJDY:- The PMJDY is a National Mission on Financial Inclusion. It encompasses an

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 30th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) International Blind Sports Federation (IBSA) World Games 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Sports Context: The Indian men’s visually impaired team won silver medal after defeat against Pakistan in the final of the men’s T20 cricket event at the International Blind Sports Federation (IBSA) World Games 2023. About International Blind Sports Federation (IBSA) World Games 2023:- Convened on: 18th – 27th August 2023. Venue: Birmingham, Great Britain. It is the world’s biggest gathering of athletes with visual impairments. Events: Powerlifting, judo, goalball, football, chess, tenpin bowling, shooting, and showdown, as well as cricket, archery, and tennis, form the programme. The men’s and women’s IBSA Blind Football World Championships and the partially sighted World Championships will take place as part of the event. The World Games are normally conducted every four years. It has three Paralympic and eight non-Paralympic sports. Last IBSA World Games: Seoul, South Korea, in 2015. About IBSA:- Founded: 1981. HQ: Bonn, GERMANY. IBSA’s first congress was held at the UNESCO headquarters in Paris, France. It was attended by 30 countries. IBSA is the world’s leading organization for the development of sports for people with visual impairments. It has more than 100 members in every region of the world. It is involved with sports that are on the Paralympic programme such as athletics, swimming, and shooting. IBSA is a member of the International Paralympic Committee with full voting rights. MUST READ: Chess Olympiad SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 State of India’s Birds report 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The State of India’s Birds report 2023 was released recently. Key Highlights of the report:- 39% of species show clear declines over the past decades. 178 species classified as of High Conservation Priority, and require immediate attention. Raptors, migratory shorebirds, and ducks have experienced the most significant declines. Long-distance migratory birds, such as those from Eurasia and the Arctic, have suffered significant declines. Several species like the Indian Peafowl, Rock Pigeon, Asian Koel, and House Crow are thriving and increasing in both abundance and distribution. 150% increase in the abundance of peafowl across the country over the past decades. Birds with diets focused on vertebrates and carrion have seen notable declines due to harmful pollutants present in these food resources. The report emphasizes the decline of species endemic to the Western Ghats and Sri Lanka biodiversity hotspots. (Global Biodiversity Framework) About the State of India’s Birds Report 2023:- Developed by: State of India’s Birds Partnership. State of India’s Birds Partnership: a group of 13 government and non-government organizations. Objective: to assess the conservation status of the majority of species that regularly occur in the country. This year, the report assessed the “status of 942 bird species. The earlier assessment carried out in 2020 had listed 15 species of conservation priority. Threats to Bird Species:- The report mentions threats like forest degradation, urbanization, and energy infrastructure. Birds are highly impacted by environmental pollutants, climate change’s impacts on migratory species, avian diseases, and illegal hunting and trade. (Bird flu) MUST READ: American foulbrood (AFB) disease SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases? (2015) AIDS Bird flu Dengue Swine flu Q.2) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Article 35A Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Supreme Court observed that abrogated Article 35A in Jammu and Kashmir had negative affect on the fundamental rights of the people especially those who were not from Jammu and Kashmir. Background:- The Supreme Court observed this while hearing the matter of the abrogation of Article 370 and the restructuring of J& K into two Union territories. The Constitution bench was headed by Chief Justice of India Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud. About Article 35A:- Article 35A was part of Article 370, which granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir until it was scrapped in 2019. Article 370: It allowed the state its own constitution, a separate flag, and independence over all matters except foreign affairs, defense, and communications. Article 35-A deals with empowering the Jammu and Kashmir Constitution to define “permanent residents” of the state. It also empowers the Jammu and Kashmir Legislature to confer on permanent residents or state subjects special rights and privileges. These include rights and privileges in public sector jobs, acquisition of property in the state, scholarships, and other public aid and welfare. It disallows people from outside the state from:- Buying or owning immovable property there Settling permanently Availing themselves of state-sponsored scholarship schemes. Only the Jammu-Kashmir assembly can change the definition of Permanent Residents through a law ratified by a two-thirds majority. Historical Background:- The law came into place during the Dogra times when Maharaja Hari Singh passed it in 1927. It was enacted to prevent the influx of Punjabis into the state. Later, in 1954, an amended version of the law was added through the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954 issued by the President of India (Rajendra Prasad) on aid and advice of Jawaharlal Nehru’s cabinet. It replaced the 1952 Delhi Agreement between Nehru and the then Prime Minister of J&K Sheikh Abdullah, which

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