Current Affairs

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Gyanvapi Mosque Dispute Syllabus Prelims – History Context: The Supreme Court refused to stop the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) survey at the Gyanvapi complex amid the dispute. Background:- The Court disposed of a petition filed by Anjuman Intezamia Masjid Committee challenging Allahabad High court, which permitted the ASI to undertake the survey. About Gyanvapi Mosque Dispute:- Historical Background:- It is a popular belief that the Gyanvapi Mosque was built in 1669 by the Mughal ruler Aurangzeb by demolishing the ancient Vishweshwar temple. Saqib Khan’s book ‘Yasir Alamgiri’, mentions that Aurangzeb had demolished the temple in 1669 by ordering Governor Abul Hassan. Judicial Intervention:- The case of Gyanvapi mosque has been in court since 1991, when three persons, including Pandit Somnath Vyas, a descendant of the priests of the Kashi Vishwanath temple, filed a suit in the court of the civil judge of Varanasi claiming that Aurangzeb had demolished the temple of Lord Vishweshwar and built a mosque on it so that the land should be returned to them. ( Khajuraho temples) In 2021, in the same court in Varanasi, five women filed a petition demanding to worship in the temple of Mother Gauri, accepting which the court constituted a commission to know the present status of the Makeup Gauri Temple. In this context, the court asked the commission to give the survey report by video graphing the idol of Makeup Gauri and the Gyanvapi complex. This created an uproar, as questions were raised on the impartiality of the court commissioner appointed by the Muslim side for the survey. Hindu Side arguments:- Vijay Shankar Rastogi, appearing for the Hindu side, submitted a map of the entire Gyanvapi complex as evidence in the court, which mentions the temples of Hindu deities around after the entrance of the mosque, as well as the Vishweshwar temple, Gyankoop, the big Nandi and the basement of the Vyas family. There has been a controversy over the survey and videography of this basement. Muslim Side arguments:- The Muslim side says that no decision can be given on the dispute under the Religious Places Act of 1991. Under Section 3 of the Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991, it is prohibited to convert a place of worship, even its clause, into a place of worship of a different religious denomination or a different class of the same religious denomination. Section 4(2) of the Act states that all litigations, appeals, or other proceedings relating to changing the nature of the place of worship (which were pending till August 15, 1947) shall cease after the enactment of this Act and no fresh action can be taken on such cases. However, if the change in the nature of the place of worship has occurred after the cut-off date of August 15, 1947 (after the act came into force ), legal action can be initiated in that case. For example The disputed site of Ayodhya (Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid) was exempted from the Act. About Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) :- Established in 1861. Established by: Alexander Cunningham. Ministry: Union Ministry of Culture. HQ: New Delhi. ( ASI) The ASI is the premier organization for the archaeological research and protection of the cultural heritage of the country. Functions of ASI:- It maintains the archaeological sites, ancient monuments, and remains of national importance. It regulates all archaeological activities as per the provisions of the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, of 1958. It also regulates the Antiquities and Art Treasure Act, of 1972. MUST READ: ASI planning barricade around famed stone chariot at Hampi SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs: (2023) Literary work                                             Author Deuichandragupta :                     Bilhana Hammira-Mahakauya :         Nayachandra Suri Milinda-panha :                         Nagatjuna Nitiuakyamrita:                       Somadeva Suri How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Digital Health Incentives Scheme (DHIS) Syllabus Prelims – Government initiatives Context: The National Health Authority (NHA) announced the extension of its Digital Health Incentives Scheme (DHIS) till the 31st of December 2023. About Digital Health Incentives Scheme (DHIS):- Launched: December 2022. DHIS is effective from 1st January 2023. Implementing Agency: National Health Authority (NHA). Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Objectives: to give a further boost to digital health transactions in the country under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM). Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM):- It was launched in 2021. ( Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission) It aims to provide digital health IDs for all Indian citizens to help hospitals, insurance firms, and citizens access health records electronically when required. Salient Features of DHIS:- The scheme offers incentives of up to four crore rupees based on the number of digital health records created and linked to the Ayushman Bharat Health Account numbers of the patients. Under the scheme, incentives are provided to hospitals and diagnostic labs and to the providers of digital health solutions such as Hospital/ Health Management Information Systems (HMIS) and Laboratory Management Information Systems (LMIS). This incentive can be availed by the health facilities (hospitals and diagnostic labs) registered with ABDM’s Health Facility Registry (HFR) and fulfilling the eligibility criterion specified under the scheme. Conditions for availing incentives: Incentives would be provided to the following entities:- Benefits of DHIS:- Earn

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) recently informed that several states and Union territories (UTs) are yet to implement the Incident Response System (IRS), which is crucial for disaster response. About Incident Response System (IRS): IRS is a combination of facilities, equipment, personnel, procedure and communications operating within a common organizational structure, with responsibility for the management of assigned resources to effectively accomplish stated objectives pertaining to an incident. Functions of IRS: In line with administrative structure and DM Act 2005, Responsible Officer (RO) is designated at the State and District level as overall in charge of the incident response management. RO may delegate responsibilities to the Incident Commander (IC), who in turn will lead/manage the incident through Incident Response Teams (IRTs). IRS functions through Incident Response Teams (IRTs) in the field. An IRT is a team comprising all positions of IRS organization; headed by Incident Commander (IC). On receipt of Early Warning, RO activates IRTs. In case of a disaster without any warning, local IRT will respond and contact RO for further support, if required. IRTs pre-designated at all levels, i.e. State, District, Sub-Division and Tehsil/Block. IRT’s lowest administrative unit (Sub-Division / Tehsil / Block) will be the ‘first responder’. If the incident becomes complex and beyond the control of local IRT, higher level IRT will be informed / take over the response management. In such cases the lower level IRT will merge with the higher level IRT. When lower level of IRT merges with a higher level, IC of lower level may play the role of Deputy IC or Operations Sections Chief (OSC) or any other duty that the IC of higher authority assigns. Source:  Hindustan Times Committee of Parliament on Official Language Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: Recently, the Union Home Minister chaired the 38th meeting of the Committee of Parliament on Official Language. About Committee of Parliament on Official Language: The Committee of Parliament on Official Language was set up in 1976 under Section 4 of the Official Languages Act, 1963. With the active promotion of Hindi being mandated by Article 351 of the Constitution, the Official Language Committee was set up to review and promote the use of Hindi in official communications. The first Report of the Committee was submitted in 1987. The Committee is constituted and chaired by the union home minister, and has, in accordance with the provisions of the 1963 Act, 30 members (20 MPs from Lok Sabha and 10 MPs from Rajya Sabha). Unlike the other Parliamentary, panels submit its report to Parliament, this panel submits its report to the President, who “shall [then] cause the report to be laid before each House of Parliament, and sent to all the State Governments”. The purpose of the Committee is To review the progress made in the use of Hindi for official purposes, and To make recommendations to increase the use of Hindi in official communications. Constitutional Status of Hindi and other languages: Schedule 8 of the Indian Constitution has 22 Official Languages, including Hindi as well. ( UPSC CSE: Languages of India) Article 351 states that, it is the duty of the Union to encourage the spread of the Hindi language to make it lingua franca (a shared language of communication used by people who are speakers of different languages) in India without interfering with its genius, style and expressions. Article 348 (2) provides that the Governor of the State may, with the previous consent of the President, authorize the use of the Hindi language or any other language used for any official purpose of the State, in the proceedings of the High Court having its principal seat in that State provided that decrees, judgments or orders passed by such High Courts shall be in English. As per Article 343(1) of the Constitution of India, Hindi in Devanagari script shall be the official language of the Union. The Official Language Act, 1963 provides under Section 7 that the use of Hindi or official language of a State in addition to the English language may be authorized, with the consent of the President of India, by the Governor of the State for the purpose of judgments, decrees etc. made by the High Court for that State. (UPSC CSE: Three language formula) Source:  The Hindu International Chess Federation (FIDE) Syllabus Prelims – Miscellaneous Context: The Grandmaster D. Gukesh has recently overtook Chess legend Viswanathan Anand as the highest-rated Indian player in International Chess Federation (FIDE) rankings. About the International Chess Federation (FIDE): The International Chess Federation (FIDE) is the governing body of the sport of chess, and it regulates all international chess competitions. Constituted as a non-governmental institution, it was recognized by the International Olympic Committee as a Global Sporting Organization in 1999. FIDE currently has its headquarters in Lausanne, but it was initially founded in 1924 in Paris under the motto “Gens una Sumus” (Latin for “We are one Family”). It was one of the very first International Sports Federations, alongside the governing bodies of the sports of Football, Cricket, Swimming, and Auto Racing. It is now one of the largest, encompassing 199 countries as affiliate members, in the form of National Chess Federations. Chess is nowadays a truly global sport, with dozens of millions of players in all the continents, and more than 60 million games on average played every day. Each month, FIDE publishes the lists such as- Top 100 Players Top 100 Women Top 100 Juniors Top 100 Girls It also publishes rankings of countries according to the average rating of their top 10 players and top 10 female players. It uses the Elo rating system for ranking purpose. The Elo rating system is a method for calculating the relative skill levels of players in zero-sum games such as chess. Source: The Hindu Shree Jagannath Temple in Puri Syllabus Prelims: Art and Culture In News: The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Steroids Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) doctors have warned against using steroids for eye treatment. Background:- As cases of Conjunctivitis (eye flu) are rising in North India including the national capital Delhi, the senior doctor in the All India Institute of Medical Sciences-AIIMS have warned against using steroids for eye treatment. About Steroids:- IMAGE SOURCE: acne.org Steroids are biologically active organic compounds. Steroids are a type of lipid molecule made up of 4 fused carbon rings. Different steroids vary slightly in their structure, but they all have 4 fused carbon rings. The most common steroid in our bodies is Hundreds of steroids can be found in animals, plants, and fungi. Steroid medicines are man-made and are similar to the natural hormones made in the body. Corticosteroids: the type of steroids used to treat disease. Anabolic steroids: used by some athletes and bodybuilders. (Anabolic Steroids) The principal functions carried out by steroids include- It acts as an important component for the cell membrane where it alters the fluidity of the membrane. These also act as signaling molecules. Side effects of Steroids:- Acne. High blood pressure. Difficulty in sleeping. Blurred or loss of vision. Weight gain. (Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)) Indigestion (dyspepsia). Heartburn (acid reflux). Increased appetite, which may cause weight gain. Difficulty sleeping (insomnia). Increased risk of infections, especially viral infections such as shingles or measles. Pre-diabetes or type 2 diabetes. Weakening of the bones (osteoporosis). High blood pressure (hypertension). Eye conditions, such as glaucoma and cataracts. Mental health problems, including: Changes in mood (mood swings) and behavior – eg, feeling irritable or anxious. Depression MUST READ: Ibuprofen SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2022) Low-density polyethylene Polycarbonate Polyethylene terephthalate Polyvinyl Chloride National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recent reports suggest that the National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC) delivered record performances in Fiscal Year 2023-2024 so far. Background:- NMDC is paving the way towards becoming a 100 Million Tonnes (MT) mining company. About National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC):- Establishment: 1958. Ministry: Ministry of Steel. HQ: Hyderabad. Vision: To emerge as a global Environment-friendly Mining Organization and as a quality Steel producer with a positive thrust on Social Development. . (Iron-Ore Policy 2021) It is India’s largest iron ore producer. ( Iron Ore) The company has been categorized by the Department of Public Enterprises as a “Navratna” Public Sector Enterprise in 2008. Objectives of NMDC:- Macro Objectives To expand the operations in the areas of Mining and Mineral Processing to meet the growing demands from domestic and international Markets. Achieve international standards in per capita productivity, value addition, and cost-effectiveness. To increase the iron ore production capacity to 67 MTPA by FY 2025. Setting up of Steel Plant at Nagarnar. Micro Objectives Give thrust to the exploration and exploitation of iron ore and other strategic & critical minerals. To maintain environmental protection. To conserve mineral resources through scientific mining. To maintain a high level of customer satisfaction. To improve the quality of life of people in general and the socio-economic environment in and around the mines in particular. MUST READ: Report SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second-largest gold reserves in the world Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following minerals: (2020) Bentonite Chromite Kyanite Sillimanite In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2, 3, and 4 only Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: As per the recent reports of the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT), a record six crore 77 lakh Income Tax Returns, have been filed for 2023-24. Income Tax Return:- These are forms used to declare net tax liabilities, claim tax deductions, and report gross taxable income. Income Tax Return Forms are notified by CBDT. About Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT):- Establishment: 1963. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. HQ: New Delhi. Administered by: Department of Revenue. It is a statutory authority functioning under the Central Board of Revenue Act, of 1963. The Central Board of Revenue is the apex body of the Department of Revenue. It is charged with the administration of taxes. It came into existence as a result of the Central Board of Revenue Act, of 1924. It is India’s official financial action task force unit. Historical Background of CBDT:- Initially the Board was in charge of both direct and indirect taxes. Increase in Direct Tax Collections) However, when the administration of taxes became too unwieldy for one Board to handle, the Board was split up into two, namely the Central Board of Direct Taxes and Central Board of Excise and Customs with effect from 1964. Functions of CBDT:- Making Policies regarding the discharge of statutory functions of the Board and of the Union Govt. under the various laws relating to direct taxes. ( CBDT and Income Tax Return Forms) General Policy relating to:- Organization of the set-up and structure of the Income-tax Department. Methods and procedures

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Spike Non-Line of Sight (NLOS) Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: The Indian Air Force has received Israel’s Spike Non-Line of Sight (NLOS) anti-tank guided missiles. Background:- The Spike NLOS will be integrated with the Russian-origin fleet of Mi-17V5 helicopters. About Spike Non-Line of Sight (NLOS):- IMAGE SOURCE: defense-arab.com Developed by: Rafael Advanced Defense Systems Ltd, Israel. Characteristic features of Spike NLOS:- Spike NLOS is a multi-purpose, electro-optical/infrared missile system. It is a fire-and-forget anti-tank and anti-personnel missile. Range: up to 32 kilometers It can be integrated with the ground, air, or maritime platforms. It has the capability to strike distant or geographically concealed targets without line-of-sight. In missile guidance, line of sight (LOS) is the line directly between the launcher/tacker and the target. The weapon’s seeker and wireless datalink provide operators with real-time video imagery and man-in-the-loop control throughout the missile’s flight. This provides operators with the opportunity to alter or abort the mission while en route to the target. The made-in-Israel Spike missile is capable of destroying enemy targets hidden behind mountains from long ranges. MUST READ: Ballistic missiles SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements:(2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (2014) It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver a one-tonne nuclear warhead about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Project Devika Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, it was announced that North India’s first River Rejuvenation Project Devika is nearing its completion. Background:- Built at a cost of over Rs 190 crore on the lines of ‘Namami Ganga’, the Project was launched by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi About Project Devika:- Launched:2019. It was launched under the National River Conservation Plan (NRCP). Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Objectives: Project Devika aims to rejuvenate the Devika River. Salient Features of Project Devika:- Under the project, bathing “ghats” (places) on the banks of the Devika River will be developed. Further, the encroachments will be removed, and natural water bodies will be restored. The catchment areas will also be developed along with cremation grounds. The Liquid Waste Management Project involves creating a network of pipes and manholes connecting households under the Project. (Cleaning of River Ganga) A Solid Waste Management Project is additionally planned to further enhance the river’s restoration. The project also includes the construction of three sewage treatment plants, the development of two cremation ghats, protection fencing and landscaping, small hydropower plants, and three solar power plants. About River Devika: Origin: Devika River originates from the hilly Suddha Mahadev temple in the Udhampur district of Jammu and Kashmir and flows down towards western Punjab (now in Pakistan) where it merges with the Ravi River. The river holds religious significance as it is revered by Hindus, as the sister of the river Ganga.It is believed that Devika River is a manifestation of the Goddess Parwati. MUST READ: River Cities Alliance SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture Systems, consider the following statements: (2023) Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate. Biofilters increase phosphorus as a nutrient for fish in water. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution: (2023) Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Vaquita porpoise Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The International Whaling Commission (IWC) has issued its first ‘extinction alert’ on the vaquita porpoise. Background:- The International Whaling Commission (IWC) issued its first ‘extinction alert’ on August 7, 2023, on the vaquita porpoise, of which only 10 individuals survive in the Gulf of California or Sea of Cortez in Mexico. International Whaling Commission (IWC): an international body charged with the conservation of whales and the management of whaling. It was set up under International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling (ICRW). ICRW governs the commercial, scientific, and aboriginal subsistence whaling practices of the member nations. It was signed in 1946. HQ: Impington, near Cambridge, England. About Vaquita porpoise:- IMAGE SOURCE: TreeHugger SCIENTIFIC NAME: Phocoena sinus HEIGHT: Up to 5 feet WEIGHT: Up to 120 pounds HABITATS: Marine. The vaquita is only found in the northernmost part of the Gulf of California, Mexico. It is most commonly seen in shallow waters up to 50 meters deep. POPULATION: About 10 individuals. It is on the edge of extinction. Vaquita, the world’s rarest marine mammal. Its name means “little cow” in Spanish. The vaquita has a large dark ring around its eyes and dark patches on its lips that form a thin line from the mouth to the pectoral fins. It is unique among the porpoises as it is the only species of that family found in warm waters. The size of the dorsal fin is believed to be an adaptation to that, allowing for extra body heat to dissipate. Threats for Vaquita porpoise:- Illegal fishing with gill nets for the vulnerable totoaba, a large fish sought after for its swim bladder. The small animal frequently gets caught in fixed fishing nets (gill nets), as by-catch. Conservation Status Vaquita porpoise:- IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered. CITES: Appendix I MUST READ: Zebrafish SOURCE: DOWN

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Geography/Economy Context: The Parliament has passed the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2023. Background:- The Bill puts six minerals, including lithium — used in electric vehicle batteries and other energy storage solutions — into a list of “critical and strategic” minerals. About Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2023: – Bill passed: 2023. Objective: to attract private sector investment in the exploration of critical and deep-seated minerals in the country. Critical Minerals: natural resources that are essential for various industries, including technology, manufacturing, and clean energy. Example: Lithium, nickel, cobalt, etc. Deep-Seated Minerals: minerals that are found deep within the Earth’s crust and are typically more challenging and costly to explore and mine. ( Mines & Minerals Amendment Bill) g., Gold, Copper, Diamonds, etc. Historical Background:- The MMDR Act, of 1957 has undergone several amendments to address various issues in the mineral sector. Amendments in 2015: introduced auction-based mineral allocation, established District Mineral Foundation (DMF) for community welfare, and NMET for exploration promotion. DMF: As per the Mine and Minerals Development Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2015, in every district affected by mining-related operations, the state government shall, by notification, establish a trust as a non-profit body to be called the District Mineral Foundation. Funds every mining lease has to pay a fraction of royalty, not exceeding one-third of the royalty, to the DMF as per rates prescribed by Central Government. This fund will be used for welfare of the people affected in the mining affected areas. National Mineral Exploration Trust (NMET): NMET is a Trust set up as a non-profit body by the Central Government for the purposes of regional and detailed exploration of minerals using the funds accrued to it and in such manner as prescribed by the Central Government. Amendments in 2016, 2020, and 2021: focused on emerging challenges and reforms, including removing the captive vs. merchant mine distinction. Need for further Amendment: The mineral sector requires more reforms, particularly in exploring and mining Critical Minerals since the limited availability and extraction concentration of these minerals pose supply chain vulnerabilities and disruptions. Minor mineral plunder) Salient features of Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2023:- Private Sector to Mine Atomic Minerals:- The new bill allows the private sector to mine 6 atomic minerals- lithium, beryllium, niobium, titanium, tantalum, and zirconium. The central government can auction mining leases and composite licenses for critical minerals. Auction for Exploration Licence: – The Bill allows the state government to grant licenses through competitive bidding, while the Central government prescribes auction details. Incentive for Exploration Licence: – The Bill allows the state to conduct auctions for mining leases if resources are proven after exploration. Licensee receives a share in the auction value of the mining lease for prospected minerals. MUST READ: Indian Bureau of Mines SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution: (2023) Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution. There is no known ·safe level of exposure to mercury. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)? (2022) CCO is the major source of coal Statistics in the Government of India. It monitors the progress of the development of Captive Coal/ Lignite blocks. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to the acquisition of coal-bearing areas. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 4 RISC V- Semiconductor Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recent reports show that the RISC V- Semiconductor technology can give India a chance to challenge global domination. Background:- India has thrown its weight behind the open-source RISC-V architecture. The aim is to be self-reliant in semiconductor design. About RISC V- Semiconductor:- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideServe Invented by: David Patterson. The term RISC stands for “reduced instruction set computer” which executes few computer instructions whereas ‘V’ stands for the 5th generation. It is a free and open ISA (instruction set architecture). It follows the open-source model with a modular design. In this, all the base instructions are frozen, which means the hardware is stable and the software will be able to work on RISC-V chips everywhere and forever, in theory. (India Semiconductor Mission) They excel in space-constrained designs and complex computational tasks. Uses of RISC V- Semiconductor:- It is used for the development of custom processors targeting a variety of end applications. It is used in ( Semiconductors) It is used in wearables, IoT, smartphones, automotive, aerospace, and more, offering power efficiency, performance customization, and security. MUST READ: Silicon Diplomacy SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following communication technologies:(2022) Closed-circuit Television Radio Frequency Identification Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies? 1 and 2 only. 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022) Cloud Services Quantum Computing Visible Light Communication Technologies Wireless Communication Technologies Deepor Beel Syllabus Prelims –Geography/Environment and Ecology Context: Recent reports show that locals in Assam are taking initiatives to save the dying Deepor Beel Lake. Background:- Some initiatives, along with bettering the health of the beel, have also provided employment to women from the community. One such initiative is – Simang, which is a collective initiative by six women from Keotpara has successfully transformed the invasive weed, water hyacinths into beautiful artefacts and yoga mats. About Deepor Beel:- IMAGE SOURCE: researchgate.net Location: Southwest of Guwahati, Assam. it is the erstwhile water channel of River Brahmaputra. Area: up to

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Assam Rifles Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: In recent times, the Assam Rifles personnel have been facing increased hostility in Manipur. Background:- Normally, there are 20 battalions of the Assam Rifles in Manipur, with the primary mandate of counter-insurgency and border guarding. Since ethnic violence erupted in the state on May 3, 2023, two more battalions were moved in. Due to being tasked with manning “buffer zones” between Meitei- and Kuki-Zomi-dominated territories in Manipur, the Assam Rifles has been facing heat from the Meiteis, with some even demanding its removal from the state. About Assam Rifles:- Establishment:1835. Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs. It is a Central Paramilitary Force under the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF). CAPF: the collective name of central police organizations in India under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). It includes 7 forces: Assam Rifles (AR), Border Security Force (BSF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) and National Security Guard (NSG). Assam Rifles is the oldest Central Para Military Force in India. Historical Background:- The Assam Rifles was set up as Cachar Levy in 1835 to protect British Tea estates and their settlements against tribal raids. Post-Independence, role of the Assam Rifles continued to evolve ranging from:- Conventional combat role: during Sino-India War in 1962 Operating in a foreign land: as part of the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) to Sri Lanka in 1987 (Op Pawan) Peacekeeping role: in the North-Eastern areas of India. Structure of Assam Rifles:- The Force is commanded by an officer of the rank of Lieutenant General of the Army. (UPSC CSE: Administration of Assam Rifles) HQ Directorate General of Assam Rifles: Shillong. MUST READ: Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Renaming Kerala Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: The Kerala Assembly has passed the resolution to rename state as Keralam. Background:- The resolution, moved by Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan, was passed unanimously, with the Congress-led Opposition not suggesting any changes. Formation of Kerala:- 1949: Travancore and Kochi was merged, forming the Travancore-Cochin State. ( Integration of the princely states) State Reorganization Commission recommended the creation of Kerala as a state for Malayalam-speaking people. The state of Kerala came into being on November 1, 1956. In Malayalam, the state was referred to as Keralam, while in English it was Kerala. Origin of the name:- There are several theories about the origin of the name ‘Kerala’. Earliest epigraphic record: Asoka’s Rock Edict II of 257 BC. The inscription refers to the local ruler as Keralaputra (Sanskrit for “son of Kerala”), and also “son of Chera” referring to the Chera dynasty. About ‘Keralam’, scholars believe it could have originated from ‘Cheram’. Significance of the name: ‘Keralam’ aligns more closely with the native pronunciation, historical roots, and cultural identity of the region’s people. Process to rename a state in India:- The proposal has to first come from the state government. Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) Approval: The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) then takes over and gives its consent after it receives No Objection Certificates (NOCs) from several agencies. These agencies include the Ministry of Railways, Intelligence Bureau, Department of Posts, Survey of India, and Registrar General of India. Parliamentary proceedings: If the MHA finds the proposal acceptable and all the necessary NOCs are obtained, a Constitutional amendment bill is initiated. The Bill goes through the usual legislative process in both the Lok Sabha (Lower House) and the Rajya Sabha (Upper House). The Bill requires a simple majority to be passed in each house. After it is passed by both houses if the President gives his assent, the Bill becomes law. Implementation: With the President’s assent, the name change becomes official and the name of the state is changed thereafter. Constitutional provisions for renaming a State:- The renaming of an existing state requires Parliamentary approval under Articles 3 of the Constitution. Introduction: A bill for renaming a state may be introduced in the Parliament on the recommendation of the President State assembly consultation: Before the introduction of the bill, the President shall send the bill to the respective state assembly for expressing their views within a stipulated time. The views of the state assembly are not binding, neither on the President nor on the Parliament. Parliamentary approval: On the expiry of the period, the bill will be sent to the Parliament for deliberation. The bill in order to take the force of a law must be passed by a simple majority. Presidential Approval: The bill is sent for approval to the President. After the approval of the said bill, the bill becomes a law and the name of the state stands modified. MUST READ: Asymmetrical federalism SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Assam Rifles Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: In recent times, the Assam Rifles personnel have been facing increased hostility in Manipur. Background:- Normally, there are 20 battalions of the Assam Rifles in Manipur, with the primary mandate of counter-insurgency and border guarding. Since ethnic violence erupted in the state on May 3, 2023, two more battalions were moved in. Due to being tasked with manning “buffer zones” between Meitei- and Kuki-Zomi-dominated territories in Manipur, the Assam Rifles has been facing heat from the Meiteis, with some even demanding its removal from the state. About Assam Rifles:- Establishment:1835. Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs. It is a Central Paramilitary Force under the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF). CAPF: the collective name of central police organizations in India under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). It includes 7 forces: Assam Rifles (AR), Border Security Force (BSF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) and National Security Guard (NSG). Assam Rifles is the oldest Central Para Military Force in India. Historical Background:- The Assam Rifles was set up as Cachar Levy in 1835 to protect British Tea estates and their settlements against tribal raids. Post-Independence, role of the Assam Rifles continued to evolve ranging from:- Conventional combat role: during Sino-India War in 1962 Operating in a foreign land: as part of the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) to Sri Lanka in 1987 (Op Pawan) Peacekeeping role: in the North-Eastern areas of India. Structure of Assam Rifles:- The Force is commanded by an officer of the rank of Lieutenant General of the Army. (UPSC CSE: Administration of Assam Rifles) HQ Directorate General of Assam Rifles: Shillong. MUST READ: Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Renaming Kerala Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: The Kerala Assembly has passed the resolution to rename state as Keralam. Background:- The resolution, moved by Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan, was passed unanimously, with the Congress-led Opposition not suggesting any changes. Formation of Kerala:- 1949: Travancore and Kochi was merged, forming the Travancore-Cochin State. ( Integration of the princely states) State Reorganization Commission recommended the creation of Kerala as a state for Malayalam-speaking people. The state of Kerala came into being on November 1, 1956. In Malayalam, the state was referred to as Keralam, while in English it was Kerala. Origin of the name:- There are several theories about the origin of the name ‘Kerala’. Earliest epigraphic record: Asoka’s Rock Edict II of 257 BC. The inscription refers to the local ruler as Keralaputra (Sanskrit for “son of Kerala”), and also “son of Chera” referring to the Chera dynasty. About ‘Keralam’, scholars believe it could have originated from ‘Cheram’. Significance of the name: ‘Keralam’ aligns more closely with the native pronunciation, historical roots, and cultural identity of the region’s people. Process to rename a state in India:- The proposal has to first come from the state government. Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) Approval: The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) then takes over and gives its consent after it receives No Objection Certificates (NOCs) from several agencies. These agencies include the Ministry of Railways, Intelligence Bureau, Department of Posts, Survey of India, and Registrar General of India. Parliamentary proceedings: If the MHA finds the proposal acceptable and all the necessary NOCs are obtained, a Constitutional amendment bill is initiated. The Bill goes through the usual legislative process in both the Lok Sabha (Lower House) and the Rajya Sabha (Upper House). The Bill requires a simple majority to be passed in each house. After it is passed by both houses if the President gives his assent, the Bill becomes law. Implementation: With the President’s assent, the name change becomes official and the name of the state is changed thereafter. Constitutional provisions for renaming a State:- The renaming of an existing state requires Parliamentary approval under Articles 3 of the Constitution. Introduction: A bill for renaming a state may be introduced in the Parliament on the recommendation of the President State assembly consultation: Before the introduction of the bill, the President shall send the bill to the respective state assembly for expressing their views within a stipulated time. The views of the state assembly are not binding, neither on the President nor on the Parliament. Parliamentary approval: On the expiry of the period, the bill will be sent to the Parliament for deliberation. The bill in order to take the force of a law must be passed by a simple majority. Presidential Approval: The bill is sent for approval to the President. After the approval of the said bill, the bill becomes a law and the name of the state stands modified. MUST READ: Asymmetrical federalism SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, Union Home Minister Amit Shah hailed the team of National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS) of National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) for winning the Gold Award. Background:- NAFIS won the Gold Award under the Excellence in Government Process Reengineering for Digital Transformation Category-1 of the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG). About National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS) Managed by: National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) at the Central fingerprint bureau, based in New Delhi. Objective: to collect fingerprint data of all the criminals from all the states and the Union Territories. It is a web-based application project. ( NAFIS) It is a country-wide searchable database of crime- and criminal-related fingerprints. Working of NAFIS:- NAFIS assigns a unique 10-digit National Fingerprint Number (NFN) to each person arrested for a crime. This unique ID will be used for the person’s lifetime, and different crimes registered under different FIRs will be linked to the same NFN. Uses:- It enables law enforcement agencies to upload, trace, and retrieve data from the database in real-time on a 24×7 basis. It would help in the quick and easy disposal of cases with the help of a centralized fingerprint database. National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) Established: 1986. HQ: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs. Objective: To function as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators. It was set up based on the recommendations of the National Police Commission (1977-1981) and the MHA’s Task Force (1985). Important publications of NCRB:- Accidental Deaths & Suicides in India. (NCRB Report ) Prison Statistics India. Fingerprints in India. (Facial recognition technology) Report on missing women and children in India. MUST READ: NATGRID and NCRB SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? (2020) Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units Create meaningful short stories and songs Disease diagnosis Text-to-speech conversion Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 3, and 5 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2, 4, and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of (2020) Digital security infrastructure Food security infrastructure Health care and education infrastructure Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure Luna 25 mission Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Luna 25 mission was launched by Russia. Background:- Russia launched its first mission to the surface of the Moon in nearly half a century, in a bid to be the first country to land on the lunar south pole. About Luna 25 mission:- IMAGE SOURCE: iki.rssi.ru Launched: 2023. Launched by: Roscosmos. Roscosmos: the State Space Corporation of Russia that is responsible for space flights, aerospace research, and cosmonautics programmes. Take off: Vostochny cosmodrome, Russia. Landing Site: southwest of the Manzini crater. It is also called the Luna-Glob-Lander. It is a Russian lunar lander mission. It is to carry thirty kilo grams of scientific instruments including a robotic arm and drilling hardware to collect soil samples. It will study the south pole of the moon. ( Moon’s Wobble Effect) Objectives of Luna 25 mission:- To study the composition of the polar regolith. To study the plasma and dust components of the lunar polar exosphere. MUST READ: Supermoon SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6, and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on it. Nagzira National Park Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a two-year-old female tiger from Nagzira National Park, was killed after being run over by a speeding car. About Nagzira National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: toptourguide.com Location: Gondia and Shandara Districts of Maharashtra. It has connectivity with the major tiger reserves in Central India like, Kanha and Pench tiger reserve in Madhya Pradesh, Tadoba-Andhari Tiger reserve in Maharashtra, etc. Topography: The landscape of Navegaon Nagzira National Park is characterized by undulating terrain with gentle hills and valleys. Water bodies: The prominent water bodies within the national park include Navegaon Lake, Nagzira Lake, and the Itiadoh Dam. Climate: It experiences a tropical monsoon climate. Vegetation: Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest which includes dry mixed forests to moist forest type. Flora: Terminalia tomentosa, Lagerstroemia parviflora, Anogeisus lotifolia, Pterocarpus marsupium, Diospyrus melanoxylon, etc. Fauna: Tiger, Panther, Small Indian Civet, Palm Civet, Wolf, Jackal, Wild Dog, Sloth Bear Flying Squirrel, Gaur, Sambar, etc. Timeline:- 1970: It was declared a Wildlife Sanctuary. ( Navegaon-Nagzira Tiger Reserve) 2012: the state government announced to merging this sanctuary with another national park to include in Tiger Project. 2013: It was notified as 46th tiger reserve of India. Other Tiger Reserves in Maharashtra:- Melghat Tiger reserve (1974) Tadoba Tiger Reserve (1993) Pench Tiger

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Steel Authority of India (SAIL) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The Steel Authority of India (SAIL) has registered a growth of 8 percent in Crude Steel Production and 23 percent in Sales Volumes over the corresponding last year (2022). Background:- This is its best-ever performance in Crude Steel Production and Sales. It added that its turnover has increased by just one percent due to a decline in price realization, irrespective of the increase in the prices. About the Steel Authority of India (SAIL):- Establishment: Ministry: Ministry of Steel and Mines. HQ: New Delhi. Vision: To be the leader in the Indian steel business in quality, productivity, profitability, and customer satisfaction. Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) is one of the largest steel-making companies in India. (PLI Scheme For Specialty Steel) It is one of the Maharatnas of the country’s Central Public Sector Enterprises. Maharatnas : it is a category of Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) that meets certain operational and financial eligibility such as average annual turnover, annual net worth, and net profit after tax. Ownership and Management of SAIL:- The Government of India owns about 65% of SAIL’s equity and retains voting control of the Company. However, SAIL, by virtue of its ‘Maharatna’ status, enjoys significant operational and financial autonomy. Functions of SAIL:- It produces iron and steel at five integrated plants and three special steel plants. It manufactures and sells a broad range of steel products. It handles Strategically Located Integrated Operations with Access to Resource Base Including Large Landbank, Captive Mines. It has an in-house R&D centre, a centre for engineering & technology, and captive engineering shops for Research and Development. Integrated Steel Plants of SAIL:- Bhilai Steel Plant: Chhattisgarh  ( Integrated Steel Hub) Durgapur Steel Plant: West Bengal   Rourkela Steel Plant: Odisha Bokaro Steel Plant: Jharkhand      IISCO Steel Plant: West Bengal   MUST READ: Report SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following minerals: (2020) Bentonite Chromite Kyanite Sillimanite In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2, 3, and 4 only Q.2) Steel slag can be the material for which of the following? (2020) Construction of base road Improvement of agricultural soil Production of cement Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the government said that it has disbursed 2,900 crore rupees till March 2023, under the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme. About Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme:- Launched:2020. To enhance India’s Manufacturing capabilities and Exports, Union Budget 2021-22 announced the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for 13 key sectors. Objectives of the PLI scheme:- To boost domestic manufacturing and cut down on import bills. Introduce non-tariff measures that make imports more expensive. Promote domestic manufacturing by offering production incentives. Attract core knowledge competency and cutting-edge technologies. Promote job generation and employment. Construct district-level export hubs. Salient Features of the PLI Scheme:- Incentives: incentive of 4% to 6% on incremental sales (over base year) of goods manufactured in India and covered under target segments, to eligible companies. Time Period: incentives will be available for a period of five (5) years. Base year for the calculation of incentives: (FY) 2019-20. The Scheme will be implemented through a Nodal Agency which shall act as a Project Management Agency (PMA). Eligibility:- All manufacturing companies which are either Indian or have a registered unit in India will be eligible to apply for the scheme. These companies can either create a new unit or seek incentives for their existing units from one or more locations in India. Exception: all investments done by companies on land and buildings for the project will not be considered for any incentives or determine eligibility of the scheme. Sectors under PLI Scheme:- Mobile Manufacturing and Specified Electronic Components (Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) For Large Scale Electronics Manufacturing) Critical Key Starting materials/Drug Intermediaries & Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients Manufacturing of Medical Devices Automobiles and Auto Components Pharmaceuticals Drugs Specialty Steel Telecom & Networking Products Electronic/Technology Products ( Production Linked Incentive scheme (PLI) for IT Hardware) White Goods (ACs and LEDs) Food Products Textile Products: MMF segment and technical textiles (Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Textiles) High-efficiency solar PV modules Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) Battery Drones and Drone Components Benefits of the PLI Scheme:- Boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in the electronics value chain. Encourage local companies to set up or expand existing manufacturing units. Inviting foreign companies to set up shops in India. Target labor-intensive sectors in the hope to create new jobs in India. MUST READ: Production Linked Incentives in Key Sectors SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? (2022) Farmers harvesting their crops Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics A commercial bank lending money to a trading company A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Increase in the number of Elephants Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent estimates suggest that the number of elephants in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu has increased. Background:- Karnataka’s elephants increased from 6,049 in 2017 to 6,395 in 2023, the reports showed. In Tamil Nadu, there was a rise to 2,961 in 2023 from 2,761 in 2017. Meanwhile, in Kerala, the

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Gallantry awards Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: President Droupadi Murmu approved 76 Gallantry awards on the eve of Independence Day. Background:- These include four Kirti Chakra, all posthumous, 11 Shaurya Chakras, including five posthumous, two Bar to Sena Medals (Gallantry), 52 Sena Medals (Gallantry), three Nao Sena Medals (Gallantry) and four Vayu Sena Medals (Gallantry). About Gallantry Awards:- These gallantry awards are announced twice a year. The first on the occasion of Republic Day and then on the occasion of Independence Day. Order of precedence: Param Vir Chakra, the Ashoka Chakra, the Mahavir Chakra, the Kirti Chakra, the Vir Chakra, and the Shaurya Chakra. All the gallantry awards may be awarded posthumously. Historical Background:- Post-independence, the first three gallantry awards namely Param Vir Chakra, Maha Vir Chakra, and Vir Chakra. They were instituted by the Government of India on 26th January 1950. Thereafter, other three gallantry awardse. Ashoka Chakra Class-I, Ashoka Chakra Class-II, and Ashoka Chakra Class-III were instituted by the Government of India on 4th January 1952. These awards were renamed Ashoka Chakra, Kirti Chakra, and Shaurya Chakra respectively in January 1967. MUST READ: Padma awards SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Bindeshwar Pathak Syllabus Prelims – Important Personalities Context: The founder of ‘Sulabh International’ Bindeshwar Pathak passed away. He was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 1991. About Sulabh International:- Founded: 1970. Founded by: Dr Bindeshwar Pathak. HQ: New Delhi. Objectives: to achieve equitable sanitation and hygiene for all. It has been at the forefront of the Government of India’s flagship Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (Clean India Campaign) with a focus on ending open defecation. It stresses adopting a gender-inclusive approach in its intervention programmes. It has been awarded the Gandhi Peace Prize for 2016. ‘SULABH MUSEUM OF TOILETS’, was rated by Time magazine as One of the 10 unique museums in the world. Areas of Functioning:- Equitable sanitation (Preventive Measures for Manual Scavenging) Rural sanitation Urban Sanitation Water for all Community toilets in slums (Stop Manual Scavenging) Fecal sludge Management Awareness and advocacy Ensuring the Dignity of Manual Scavengers MUST READ: Manual Scavenging in India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution: (2023) Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution. There is no known ·safe level of exposure to mercury. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)? (2022) CCO is the major source of coal Statistics in the Government of India. It monitors the progress of the development of Captive Coal/ Lignite blocks. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to the acquisition of coal-bearing areas. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 4 Rashtrapati Bhavan Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: On the occasion of 77th Independence Day, President Droupadi Murmu on August 15 hosted ‘At Home’ reception at Rashtrapati Bhavan in Delhi. About Rashtrapati Bhavan:- Location: on Rajpath, New Delhi, India. It is situated on Raisina Hill. Designed by: Sir Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker. Built in 1929. The Rashtrapati Bhavan (‘Presidential Palace’) is the official residence of the President of India. This presidential residence took seventeen years to build and was finished in 1929. The presidential office, guest rooms, and staff rooms are among the more than 300 rooms. It employs 750 people, including 245 working in the President’s Secretariat. The King George V’s silver chair, can be found at the Gift Museum of Rashtrapati Bhavan, where he sat at the Delhi Durbar in 1911. The Ashoka Hall of Rashtrapati Bhavan is used for ceremonial functions such as the swearing-in of Ministers. Rashtrapati Bhavan Museum It is a world-class museum inside the Bhavan with a high-tech story-telling format. It is a contextual narrative woven around original exhibits. Rashtrapati Bhavan Mughal Garden The designs for the Mughal Gardens were created by Sir Edwin Lutyens as early as 1917. MUST READ: C.Rajagopalachari (1878-1972) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora River. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal River. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari River. Tampara Lake Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology/Geography Context: National Green Tribunal (NGT) has asked the Odisha government to stop ‘illegal’ construction in and around Tampara Lake. Background:- The National Green Tribunal, Eastern Zone, has directed the Odisha government not to go ahead with ‘illegal’ construction in and around Tampara Lake, a designated Ramasar site and one of the largest picturesque freshwater lakes of the State. ( NGT) About Tampara Lake:- Location: Ganjam district, Odisha. Formed: 1766. Formation: