Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Alluri Sitarama Raju Syllabus Prelims –History Context: Recently, President Droupadi Murmu attended the birth anniversary of legendary freedom fighter 125th Alluri Sitarama Raju in Hyderabad. Background:- The 125th birth anniversary of Alluri Sitarama Raju was celebrated in Hyderabad on 4th July 2023. A 3D animation on the life of the revolutionary freedom fighter was also launched on the occasion. About Alluri Sitarama Raju:- Born on: July 4, 1897, in Andhra Pradesh. (UPSC CSE: Alluri Sitarama Raju ) He was nicknamed “Manyam Veerudu” (Hero of the Jungle) by local villagers for his heroic exploits. He was an Indian revolutionary who waged an armed campaign against British colonial rule in India. Sitarama Raju, under the influence of Gandhi’s Non-cooperation movement, inspired the tribals to seek justice in the local panchayat courts and boycott the colonial courts. He started to work for the Adivasi of the Eastern Ghats, who were living in abject poverty and being fleeced by police, forest and revenue officials. Rampa Rebellion: He launched the Rampa Rebellion against the British in 1922. The Rampa Rebellion Launched: 1922 was a tribal uprising. Leader: Alluri Sitarama Raju. Location: Godavari Agency of Madras Presidency, British India. The Rampa administrative area was home to about 28,000 tribes. Cause of rebellion: the passing of the 1882 Madras Forest Act. 1882 Madras Forest Act: it restricted the free movement of Adivasis in their forest habitats and prevented them from practising a traditional form of agriculture known as Tools: He utilized sporting traditional weaponry like bow-and-arrow and spears and employed tactics like using whistles and beating drums to exchange messages amongst themselves. War technique: Guerrilla warfare: His deep understanding of the forest terrain and skilful use of tribal war tactics made him a highly successful guerrilla warrior who struck terror in the hearts of the British. Death: In 1924, Raju was taken into police custody, tied to a tree, and shot, effectively ending the armed rebellion. Legacy and Recognition of Alluri Sitarama Raju:– Postal stamp: The Independent Indian Government released a postal stamp in his honour at the village of Mogallu, considered by many to be his birthplace. In 2022, the Government of Andhra Pradesh carved out a new district named after Alluri from the erstwhile Visakhapatnam district. Bronze statue: Prime Minister Narendra Modi unveiled a 30-foot tall bronze statue of revolutionary fighter Alluri Sitarama Raju at Pedda Amiram village in West Godavari district. Every year, the Government of Andhra Pradesh commemorates his birth date, the 4th of July, as a state festival. MUST READ: Tribal Freedom Fighters’ Museums SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) With reference to the history of India, Ulgulan or the Great Tumult is the description of which of the following events? (2020) The Revolt of 1857 The Mappila Rebellion of 1921 The Indigo Revolt of 1859-60 Birsa Munda’s Revolt of 1899-1900 National Anti-Doping Agency Syllabus Prelims – Important Institutions Context: Recently, the National Anti-Doping Agency, India today signed a Memorandum of Understanding with the South Asia Regional Anti-Doping Organisation (SARADO). Background:- The Memorandum of Understanding was signed in New Delhi. It aims to increase Regional Cooperation in anti-doping in Sports. About National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA):- NADA is a statutory body under the National anti-doping act, 2022. (UPSC CSE: National Fund to Control Drug Abuse) Established: 2005. Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports. HQ: New Delhi. Historical Background:- NADA was set up as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act in 2005 with a mandate for Dope-free sports in India. Doping: use of prohibited medications, drugs, or treatments by athletes with the intention of improving athletic performance. 2022: The National Anti-doping Bill was passed to make NADA a statutory body. Objectives of NADA:- To implement anti-doping rules as per the World Anti-Doping Code (Code). WADA: it was established in 1999 and is headquartered in Montreal, Canada. Objectives: to develop, harmonize and coordinate anti-doping rules and policies across all sports and countries. World Anti-Doping Code (Code): it is the core document that harmonizes anti-doping policies, rules, and regulations within sports organizations and among public authorities around the world. To promote education and research. To create awareness about doping and its ill effects. Functions of NADA:- To implement the Anti-Doping Code to achieve compliance by all sports organizations in the Country. To coordinate dope testing program through all participating stakeholders. To promote anti-doping research and education to inculcate the value of dope-free sports. To adopt best practice standards and quality systems to enable effective implementation and continual improvement of the program. South Asia Regional Anti-Doping Organisation (SARADO) Formation: 2007. It was formed on 16th May 2007 at the South Asian Anti-Doping Program Project Development Meeting held in Maldives. HQ: Maldives. Objective: to promote and coordinate the fight against doping in sports in all its forms among South Asia Regional Anti-Doping Organization(RADO) member countries. Members: It is comprised of Anti-Doping Organisations from Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal and Sri Lanka. MUST READ: Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Chenchu tribals Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, the Chenchu tribals, joined the drive to make Nallamala forests of Andhra Pradesh free of plastic. Background:- Eco-tourism, nature trails, jungle safaris and wildlife tourism brought the menace of plastic pollution. The native Chenchu tribals have been roped in for a drive to

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Jowar(sorghum) Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recent researches show that Jowar (sorghum)  can be an ideal alternative to wheat in times of increasing temperatures. Background:- The study was carried out by researchers from Columbia University, US; Chinese Academy of Agricultural Sciences; Indian School of Business; University of Delaware, US; Indian Institute of Technology Bombay; Yale University, US; and Washington State University, US. It focused on the two main Rabi cereals in India, wheat and jowar. The research highlighted the need for climate-smart agriculture interventions, specifically in the Rabi season. It stated the following benefits of Jowar over wheat:- Jowar is more resilient to projected climate changes but also requires much less water. While wheat is highly sensitive to increases in maximum daily temperature, jowar can handle temperature increases with far less impact on yields. Wheat requires 1.4 times more water than jowar owing to the extension of its growth cycle into summer. About Jowar:- It is a rainfed crop mostly grown in moist areas, which hardly needs irrigation. (UPSC CSE: The millet mission) It is the third most important food crop with respect to area and production. Rainfall: moderate rainfall of 30-100 cm. Temperatures: high temperatures ranging from 20 to 32°C. Vulnerability of Jowar: Both excessive moisture and prolonged drought are harmful. Soil: Well-drained light soils are ideal. It is cultivated as the major food crop in semi-arid areas of central and south India. In north India, Jowar is mainly a Kharif crop whereas it is sown as both Kharif and Rabi in the southern states. Highest producers: Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. India is the largest producer of jowar in the world. Health Benefits of Jowar:- Gluten-free Jowar, a gluten-free whole grain, is considered an excellent alternative for people who suffer from ‘gluten intolerance’. High in fiber Compared to other cereal grains like barley or rice, jowar contains a much higher concentration of fiber. Controls Blood Sugar Levels: Jowar is a complex carbohydrate that digests slowly. As a result, it leads to stable blood sugar levels. Hence, it is a great diet choice for diabetics and people who want to lose weight High in Protein: 100 grams of Jowar provides 11 grams of protein, which supplies the body with energy and aids in cell regeneration. Full of Iron: Jowar contains 8.45 mg of iron in every cup. Bone Health: Jowar Good is d for Bone Health because it contains high magnesium levels. It helps maintain calcium levels in the body as magnesium increases calcium absorption. Packed with Vitamins, Minerals, and Micronutrients It contains B vitamins, which help the body build new tissues and cells and potassium and phosphorus. It contains traces of zinc, copper, and over 20 micronutrients and high levels of antioxidants. Helps Weight Loss Jowar has a much higher concentration of dietary fiber when compared to other cereal grains. This high fiber content ensures higher satiety levels, lowering consumption by keeping hunger pangs at bay. This makes it the ideal whole-grain option for weight loss. Improves Digestive System The high dietary fiber content in Jowar also helps improve digestion. The whole grain helps improve digestive health and helps to treat conditions like diarrhea, bloating, stomach ache and constipation. Improves Heart Health The abundance of fiber in jowar helps lower LDL (or bad cholesterol) levels in the body, thus reducing the risk of a heart attack. The cholesterol-lowering properties of jowar also reduce the chances of hindered blood flow, arteriosclerosis and plaque formation. The whole grain also contains antioxidants, apart from nutrients like magnesium, iron, and vitamins B and E. As a result, it helps avoid several cardiovascular conditions. Jowar also helps regulate plasma LDL cholesterol concentration while improving the HDL levels in the body. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL): the “bad” cholesterol which transports cholesterol particles throughout your body. High-density lipoprotein (HDL): the “good” cholesterol, picks up excess cholesterol and takes it back to your liver. Improves Energy Levels Sorghum contains high amounts of niacin (or Vitamin B3). Niacin ensures that the energy levels in the body are consistent throughout the day. Boosts Blood Circulation Iron and copper are two essential minerals found in Jowar. These minerals come together to play a vital role in improving the body’s blood circulation. It also improves the overall circulation of blood in the body while reducing the chances of Anemia: a problem of not having enough healthy red blood cells or hemoglobin to carry oxygen to the body’s tissues. MUST READ: International Year of Millets – 2023 SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) India has more arable area than China. The proportion of the irrigated area is more in India as compared to China. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following trees : (2023) Jackfruit (Artoca7pus heterophyllus) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Antimicrobial Resistance Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: The One Health Priority Research Agenda on Antimicrobial Resistance was launched recently. About One Health Priority Research Agenda on Antimicrobial Resistance:- IMAGE SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH Launched: June 28, 2023. Launched by: the United Nations (UN) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), the UN Environment Programme (UNEP), the World Health Organization (WHO) and the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH). The concept acknowledges the health of humans, domestic and wild animals, plants, and the larger environment, including ecosystems, are inextricably linked and interdependent. Objectives of One Health Priority Research Agenda on Antimicrobial Resistance:- To prioritise 40 research topics for evidence generation to inform policy and interventions by 2030. To guide a variety of stakeholders in generating new evidence to address antimicrobial resistance(AMR), with a focus on low- and middle-income countries. AMR: it is the resistance acquired by any microorganism (bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites, etc.) against

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Dalai Lama Syllabus Prelims –Important Personalities Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi has greeted, Dalai Lama on his 88th birthday recently. Background:- In a tweet, the Prime Minister informed that he has also spoken to Dalai Lama on the phone and wished him a long and healthy life. About Dalai Lama:- IMAGE SOURCE: pinterest.com The Dalai Lama is the spiritual leader who belongs to the Gelugpa tradition of Tibetan Buddhism. Gelugpa tradition: it is the largest and most influential tradition in Tibet. The Dalai Lamas are believed to be manifestations of Avalokiteshvara or Chenrezig. Avalokiteshvara: the Bodhisattva of Compassion and the patron saint of Tibet. There have been only 14 Dalai Lamas in the history of Tibetan Buddhism. The first and second Dalai Lamas were given the title posthumously. Tenzin Gyatso: the 14th and current Dalai Lama. In 1989, he was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for his non-violent struggle for the liberation of Tibet. Historical Background:- Until China’s annexation of Tibet in the 1950s, the Dalai Lamas were the head of the Tibetan government. Later, plans were made to bring Tibet officially under Chinese control. 1959: Tibetans took to the streets demanding an end to Chinese rule. The current Dalai Lama fled to India during this Tibetan uprising. Former Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru granted him permission to form the ‘Tibetan government in exile’ in Dharamsala (Himachal Pradesh). (UPSC CSE: India-China Trade) The Process to Choose Dalai Lama: Following the Buddhist belief in the principle of reincarnation, the current Dalai Lama is believed by Buddhists to be able to choose the body into which he is reincarnated. That person, when found, will then become the next Dalai Lama. According to Buddhist scholars, it is the responsibility of the High Lamas of the Gelugpa tradition and the Tibetan government to seek out and find the next Dalai Lama following the death of the incumbent. If more than one candidate is identified, the true successor is found by officials and monks drawing lots in a public ceremony. Once identified, the successful candidate and his family are taken to Lhasa (or Dharamsala) where the child studies the Buddhist scriptures in order to prepare for spiritual leadership. Tibetan Buddhism Tibetan Buddhism is the combination of the teachings of Mahayana Buddhism with Tantric and Shamanic, and the teachings of Bon, an ancient Tibetan religion. (UPSC CSE: Bamiyan Buddhas) Impact of Tibet and the Dalai Lama on India and China Relations:- Background: Tibet was India’s actual neighbour for centuries. 1914: Tibetan representatives, along with Chinese representatives, signed the Shimla convention with British India, delineating boundaries. However, following China’s full accession of Tibet in 1950, the convention and the McMahon line that separated the two countries were rejected. 1954: India and China signed an agreement in which they agreed to recognize Tibet as the “Tibet region of China.” Current Situation: One of the major irritants in India-China relations is the Dalai Lama and Tibet. China regards the Dalai Lama as a separatist with considerable clout among Tibetans. In the face of rising tensions between India and China, India’s Tibet policy has shifted. This policy shift indicates that the Indian government is actively negotiating with the Dalai Lama in public forums. The shift in India’s Tibet policy is increasing tensions between India and China. (UPSC CSE: India-China: Concerns) MUST READ: India-China Relations, a Year after Galwan SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located? (2023) Andhra Gandhara Kalinga Magadha Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2022) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora River. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal River. Pandu – Lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari River. National Green Tribunal (NGT) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the National Green Tribunal (NGT) imposed a fine of about 80,000 crore on states for not disposing of sewage and garbage. Background:- The NGT observed that there is a huge gap in the treatment of sewage and disposal of solid waste by states and UTs. The highest penalty has been imposed on Tamil Nadu at Rs 15,419.71 crore followed by Maharashtra at Rs 12,000 crore, Madhya Pradesh at Rs 9,688 crore and Uttar Pradesh at Rs 5,000 crore. About National Green Tribunal (NGT):- IMAGE SOURCE: universalinstitutions.com Establishment: 2010. (UPSC CSE: NGT) The National Green Tribunal is a statutory body under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010. Objective: for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. HQ: New Delhi. Regional Offices: Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai. Language: It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes involving multi-disciplinary issues. (UPSC MAINS: What are tribunals) The Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. It is rather guided by principles of natural justice. Timeline for case disposal: The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavor for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same. Tribunal’s orders are binding and it has the power to grant relief in the form of compensation and damages to affected persons. (UPSC MAINS: Discuss the mandate of the National Green Tribunal (NGT)) Benefits: The Tribunal’s dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters shall provide speedy environmental justice and help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts. India became the third country in the world to set up a specialized environmental tribunal, only after Australia and New Zealand. Composition of NGT Sanctioned strength: The act allows for up to 40 members (20 expert members and 20 judicial members). Chairman: The administrative head of the tribunal. He also serves as a judicial member. He is required to be a serving or retired Chief Justice of a High Court or

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Chandrayaan III Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Chandrayaan III spacecraft was integrated with the GSLV Mark III launch vehicle recently. The launch is planned between 12-19th July 2023. About Chandrayaan III:- IMAGE SOURCE: indiandefensenews.in Chandrayaan-3 is the successor to the Chandrayaan-2 mission. (UPSC CSE:CHANDRAYAAN-2) Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LVM3). Launched from: Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC), Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. It consists of an indigenous Lander module (LM), a Propulsion module (PM) and a Rover. Lander: a spacecraft that descends towards and comes to rest on, the surface of an astronomical body. Propulsion module: a box-like structure, mounted with a large solar panel on one side and a large cylinder on top. Rover: a small vehicle that can move over rough ground, often used on the surface of other planets, sometimes controlled from the earth. The Lander and the Rover have scientific payloads to carry out experiments on the lunar surface. There will not be any orbiters like Chandrayaan 2 in it. (UPSC CSE: CHANDRAYAAN-2) Objectives of Chandrayaan-3 mission:- To demonstrate a Safe and Soft Landing on Lunar Surface To demonstrate Rover roving on the moon and To conduct in-situ scientific experiments. Lander payloads:– Chandra’s Surface Thermophysical Experiment (ChaSTE): to measure the thermal conductivity and temperature Instrument for Lunar Seismic Activity (ILSA) for measuring the seismicity around the landing site Langmuir Probe (LP): to estimate the plasma density and its variations. A passive Laser Retroreflector Array from NASA is accommodated for lunar laser ranging studies. Rover payloads:- Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer (APXS) and Laser Induced Breakdown Spectroscope (LIBS) for deriving the elemental composition near the landing site. Propulsion Module Payload:- Spectro-polarimetry of Habitable Planet Earth (SHAPE): Future discoveries of smaller planets in reflected light would allow us to probe into a variety of Exo-planets which would qualify for habitability or for the presence of life. GSLV-Mk III It is also known as the Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3). It is a three-stage vehicle with two solid motor strap-ons, a liquid propellant core stage and a cryogenic stage. It is the heaviest and the shortest among India’s operational launch vehicles. Weighs: 641 tonnes, which is equal to the weight of five fully loaded passenger planes. Capacity: GSLV can take 10,000-kg satellites to lower earth orbits. MUST READ: Gaganyaan SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Unmanned Aircraft Systems and Innovative Air Mobility Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) of India has recently signed a memorandum of understanding with the European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA). Background:- The MoU is for cooperation in Unmanned Aircraft Systems and Innovative Air Mobility. This MoU will facilitate collaboration on unmanned aircraft and innovative air mobility between the two civil aviation authorities. About the Collaboration on Unmanned Aircraft Systems and Innovative Air Mobility:- This memorandum of understanding (MoU) will facilitate collaboration on unmanned aircraft and innovative air mobility between the two civil aviation Unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV): it is commonly known, as a drone. It is an aircraft without any human pilot, crew, or passengers on board. Innovative air mobility (IAM): The concept of innovative air mobility (IAM) accommodates commercial and non-commercial operations with novel aircraft designs that do not automatically fall under one of the known categories of aero planes or helicopters. They may have the capability to vertically takeoff and land, have specific (distributed) propulsion features, may be operated in unmanned configuration, etc. This collaboration would include cooperation between DGCA and EASA in the areas of development of certification standards and environmental standards and related requirements for the certification and use of unmanned aircraft systems and innovative air mobility operations which includes licensing of personnel, training, air traffic management and infrastructure, including Unmanned Aircraft System Traffic Management (UTM) standards and services. The MoU will also ensure regular information sharing between the two authorities on the technological developments and research in this area and their respective strategies for outreach to relevant stakeholders. Further, the MoU will result in collaboration in conducting conferences, workshops, and training programs by DGCA and EASA in this area. About Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA):- IMAGE SOURCE: DGCA The Directorate General of Civil Aviation is the regulatory body in the field of Civil Aviation primarily dealing with safety issues. (UPSC CSE: DGCA) It is a statutory body of the Indian Central Government under the Aircraft (Amendment) Bill, 2020. Objectives: to regulate civil aviation in India. Ministry: Ministry for Civil Aviation. HQ: New Delhi. It has regional offices in various parts of India. Functions of DGCA:- It investigates aviation accidents and incidents. It maintains all regulations related to aviation. It is responsible for the issuance of licenses. It is responsible for the regulation of air transport services to/from/within India. It is responsible for the enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety and airworthiness standards. It also coordinates all regulatory functions with International Civil Aviation Organization. European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) EASA is an Agency of the European Union (EU). (UPSC CSE: India-EU) EU: international organization comprising 27 European countries. It develops common safety and environmental rules at the European level. Objective: to promote the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation. Established: 4 July 2018. HQ: Cologne, Germany. It is headed by an Executive Director. The work of the Agency is overseen by a Management Board, which represents EU Member States and the European Commission. It is a body governed by European public law. It is distinct from the Community Institutions (Council, Parliament, Commission,

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Performance Grading Index for Districts (PGI-D) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The Performance Grading Index for Districts (PGI-D) combined reports for 2020-21 and 2021-22 were released recently. About Performance Grading Index for Districts (PGI-D):- Released first: 2017-18. (UPSC CSE: Performance Grading Index) By: Department of School Education and Literacy (DoSE&L), Ministry of Education. Objective: to help the Districts to prioritize areas for intervention in school education and thus improve to reach the highest grade. The report the performance of the school education system at the District level by creating an index for comprehensive analysis. 83-indicator-based PGI-D has been designed to grade the performance of all districts in school education. Significance: The PGI-D is expected to help the state education departments to identify gaps at the district level and improve their performance in a decentralized manner. The indicator-wise PGI score shows the areas where a district needs to improve. Methodology The PGI-D structure comprises of total weightage of 600 points across 83 indicators. These are grouped under 6 categories viz., Outcomes, Effective Classroom Transaction, Infrastructure Facilities & Student’s Entitlements, School Safety & Child Protection, Digital Learning and Governance Process. These categories are further divided into 12 domains. PGI-D grades the districts into ten grades viz., Daksh and Akanshi-3. Daksh: it is the Highest achievable Grade for Districts scoring more than 90% of the total points in that category or Akanshi-3: The lowest grade in PGI-D, which is for scores up to 10% of the total points. PGI for districts report – 2020-21 & 2021-22 The Covid Pandemic has affected the performance of districts during 2020-21 to 2021-22 as compared to 2019-20. None of the districts attained the top two grades. 79 districts made consistent improvement in PGI-D scores in the last 4 years. In spite of the Covid pandemic at its peak in 2021-22, 290 districts have made a notable improvement in their performance when compared to 2019-20 (pre-pandemic) with 2021-22. Overall, 194 districts have made grade level improvement in 2021-22 as compared to 2018-19. MUST READ: Education & Aspiring India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. 3 . It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. 4 . Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’?(2017) To enable famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Syllabus Prelims –Governance and Economy Context: Recently, Delhi High Court dismissed PepsiCo’s plea against a revocation order on its Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) certificate for potato variety. Background:- The Delhi High Court on July 5, 2023, dismissed an appeal filed by PepsiCo India Holdings (PIH) against a 2021 order that had revoked the PVP (plant varietal protection) certificate granted to the company for a potato variety (FL-2027). (UPSC CSE: RSTV IAS UPSC – Pepsico v/s Potato Farmers) The FL-2027 variety of potatoes, used in Lays potato chips, came to the limelight in April 2019, when it became the centerpiece for a fight in the potato belt of northern Gujarat. Alleging that farmers who were not part of its “collaborative farming programme” were also growing and selling this variety in Gujarat, PepsiCo had filed rights infringement cases against farmers. About FL2027:- It is a for a potato variety. Its commercial name is FC-5. It has a 5 per cent lower moisture content than other varieties. With 80 per cent moisture content, as compared to the usual 85 per cent, this variety is considered more suitable for processing and therefore, for making snacks such as potato chips. The variety was first cultivated by Dr Robert W. Hoopes, who holds the most potato patents and potato variety protections in the whole world. FL2027 came to be registered in the US in 2005 and was put to commercial use in India in 2009. PepsiCo had then granted licenses to some farmers in Punjab to grow the variety on a buyback system. Buyback system allows the company to buy all the produce from these farmers at pre-decided rates. PepsiCo applied for registration of the potato variety in India in 2011. It was granted registration in Pepsi’s North America subsidiary Frito-Lay has the patent for the potato plant variety FL-2027 until October 2023. For India, Pepsi Co has patented FC-5 until January 2031 under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FR) Act, 2001. PPVFR Act, 2001 has been enacted in India for giving effect to the TRIPS Agreement:- The PPVFR Act retained the main spirit of TRIPS. The Act also had strong provisions to protect farmers’ rights. The act allows farmers to plant, grow exchange & sell patent-protected crops, including seeds, & only bars them from selling it as “branded seed”. It recognized three roles for the farmer: cultivator, breeder & conserver. As cultivators, farmers were entitled to plant-back rights. As breeders, farmers were held equivalent to plant breeders. As conservers, farmers were entitled to rewards from a National Gene Fund. The patent dispute Issue:- In 2019, PepsiCo sued nine Gujarat farmers for cultivating the same potato variety, accusing them of infringing its intellectual property rights (IPR). It sought over Rs. 1 crore each from the farmers for alleged patent infringement under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act, 2001. However,

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) International Maritime Organization Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the summit of the United Nations International Maritime Organization (IMO) concluded in London. Background:- Maritime countries upgraded their Greenhouse House Gas (GHG) emissions strategy to reach net zero “by or around” 2050 without specifying a definite year agreed to upgrade their Greenhouse House Gas (GHG) emissions strategy to reach net zero “by or around” 2050. About International Maritime Organization:- IMAGE SOURCE: south-star-ltd.com IMO is the United Nations specialized agency. Establishment: HQ: London, United Kingdom. Objective: to create a regulatory framework for the shipping industry that is fair and effective, universally adopted and universally implemented. Membership: IMO currently has 175 Member States and three Associate Members. India joined the IMO in (UPSC CSE: International Maritime Organization (IMO) & India) Functions:- Its role is to create a level playing field so that ship operators cannot address their financial issues by simply cutting corners and compromising on safety, security and environmental performance. IMO’s work supports the UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). The IMO is not responsible for enforcing its policies. It has the responsibility for the safety and security of shipping and the prevention of marine and atmospheric pollution by ships. (UPSC CSE: Maritime Security) Key Conventions of IMO: International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification, and Watchkeeping for Seafarers (STCW) International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) MUST READ: Green Ports & Green Shipping in India SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q.2) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Water Positive India Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Bureau of Water Use Efficiency (BWUE) and the Indian Plumbing Association (IPA) have signed a MoU with the aim of achieving a Water Positive India. Background:- The MoU focuses on creating awareness and promoting rainwater harvesting structures, low-flow fixtures and sanitary ware, treatment of grey and black water, and water audit of the built environment. About the Bureau of Water Use Efficiency (BWUE):- Establishment: 2022. HQ: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. The Bureau of Water Use Efficiency (BWUE) has been set up under the scheme of the National Water Mission. Functions of said Bureau:- To plan and execute a nationwide program for the promotion of efficient use of water in irrigation, domestic water supply, and municipal and/or industrial uses in the country. To make necessary regulatory directions to promote Water Use Efficiency. Prescribing guidelines for water conservation codes, standardizing and developing codes and facilitating their notification from concerned authorities. Developing standards for water-efficient fixtures, appliances, sanitary wares and other equipment using water in both urban/rural areas. Evolving a system of efficiency labelling. Evolve a system for incentivizing promotional efforts to increase water use efficiency. Create a Resource Centre and Data Bank related to various aspects of Water Use Efficiency. Promote research and development including research in the field of water conservation. Indian Plumbing Association (IPA) Establishment: 1993 It is the apex body of plumbing professionals in the country. Objectives of IPA:- To uplift the dignity of the profession by encouraging members to: Adopt correct professional practices. (UPSC CSE: Catch The Rain Awareness Generation Campaign) Adhere to ethical codes of conduct. Aim for the highest standards of workmanship. Promote and foster healthy relationships within the fraternity. To promote the advancement of plumbing services in the country by: Organizing seminars, exhibitions, and symposiums to educate members of the trade and the general public. Providing a platform for the dissemination of information and exchange of ideas on matters related to the plumbing profession. Establishing harmonious means of communication to facilitate better interface between the plumbing community, government/quasi-government agencies, statutory bodies, NGOs and private agencies. Establishing training and education programmes to create plumbing professionals. Mission of IPA:- Redefining Plumbing Standards in India. Striving for an overall improvement of the plumbing profession in India at par with international standards. Active participation with the global body in the plumbing profession. National Water Mission: It is one of the eight missions launched under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) for combating the threats of global warming. (UPSC CSE: Jal Jeevan Mission) NAPCC: it is a Government of India’s programme launched in 2008 to mitigate and adapt to the adverse impact of climate change. Launched: 2008. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Objective of the National Water Mission:- To conserve water. To minimise the wastage of the water. To ensure equitable distribution across the country and within States through integrated water resources management. Goals of the National Water Mission:- Comprehensive water database in the public domain and assessment of the impact of climate change on water resources. Promotion of citizen and state actions for water conservation, augmentation and preservation. Focused attention to vulnerable areas including over-exploited areas. Increasing water use efficiency by 20%. Promotion of basin-level integrated water resources management. MUST READ: National Water Policy SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: Recently, the last date of submission for the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar was extended. Background:- The Ministry of Women and Child Development has extended the last date of submission for the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar till the 31st of August,2023. About Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar:- IMAGE SOURCE: noticebard.com The Awards are announced on December 26 on ‘Veer Bal Diwas’. Veer Baal Diwas: marks a tribute to the martyrdom of Guru Gobind Singh’s sons. (UPSC CSE: Parkash Purab of Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji) The awards are conferred by the President of India at New Delhi at a special ceremony/function to be held in January every year. Historical Background: It was instituted in 1979 as the National Child Welfare Awards, renamed in 2018 as Bal Kalyan Puraskar. (UPSC CSE: Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA)) Objective: It is organized to celebrate the energy, determination, ability, zeal and enthusiasm of our children. Field: This national-level award is given in the fields of Bravery, Sports, Social Service, Science and Technology, Environment, Arts and Culture, and Innovation. Awarded by: Ministry of Women and Child Development. Eligibility:- A child who is an Indian Citizen and residing in India and is not exceeding 18 years (as of the last date of receipt of application/nomination). The act/incident/achievement should have been within 2 years of the last date of receipt of application/nomination for the year of consideration. The applicant should not be a previous recipient of the same award earlier in any category (including National Child Awards for Exceptional Achievement, as were awarded by the Ministry earlier) Nomination can be done by:- State Governments, Union Territory Administrations, District Collectors/District Magistrates, and Panchayati Raj Institutions. All Central and State School Boards, Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan, Navodaya Vidyalaya Sangathan, National Commission for Protection of Child Rights, State Commissions for Protection of Child Rights and National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child Development. Ministry of Social Justice, Department of Disabilities, Department of School Education in Ministry of Education, all state Departments of School Education, Ministry of Youth Affairs, Department of Sports, Sports Authority of India, Ministry of Culture, Ministry of Science and Technology, Ministry of Environment & Forests, Ministry of Defence, Ministry of Home Affairs, and Press Information Bureau. National Selection Committee. Selection Process The applications received are first scrutinized by the Screening Committee. The final selection is done by the National Selection Committee. Decoration:- Medal Cash prize of Rs. 1,00,000 Certificate and citation The Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar is given under two categories:- Bal Shakti Puraskar It is given by the Government of India every year to recognize exceptional achievements of children in various fieldse., innovation, scholastic achievements, social service, arts & culture, sports and bravery. Eligibility: A child who is an Indian Citizen residing in India and is between 5-18 years of age. Decoration: A medal, a cash prize of Rs. 1,00,000, book vouchers worth Rs.10,000, a certificate and a citation. Bal Kalyan Puraskar It is given as recognition to Individuals and Institutions, who have made an outstanding contribution towards service for children in the field of child development, child protection and child welfare. Eligibility: An individual who is an Indian Citizen residing in India and should have attained the age of 18 years or above (as of 31st August of the respective year). S/he should have worked for the cause of children for not less than 7 years. The institution should not be entirely funded by the government and should have been in the field of child welfare for 10 years and performing consistently in the field. MUST READ: Padma awards SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four INS Utkrosh Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: The Chief of Defense Staff, CDS, General Anil Chauhan inaugurated LRMR Hangar & Dispersal at Naval Air Station, INS Utkrosh in Port Blair. The twin hangar spread over 6000 sq. mt. can accommodate a combination of P8I aircraft with Dronier & Advanced Light Helicopters. It will help in strengthening the security of the Indian Oceans Region. About INS Utkrosh:- It is an Indian naval air station under the joint-services Andaman and Nicobar Command of the Indian Armed Forces. (UPSC CSE: SLBM launch by INS Arihant) Location: Port Blair, Andaman & Nicobar Islands. Commissioning: It was commissioned in This station operates the Do-228 maritime patrol aircraft and a SAR (Search & Rescue) flight of HAL Chetak helicopters. Maritime patrol aircraft (MPA): a fixed-wing aircraft designed to operate for long durations over water in maritime patrol roles. Search and rescue (SAR) service: provided to the survivors of aircraft accidents as well as aircraft in distress (and their occupants) regardless of their nationality. Significance:- The station handles courier flights from the mainland and civil flights to and from Port Blair. It shares airside facilities with Veer Savarkar International Airport which handles civilian traffic. The facilities at INS Utkrosh have been significantly upgraded. The runway has been lengthened to almost 11,000 feet (3,400 m). Except for the civilian terminal operated by the Airports Authority of India, all other air traffic operations over Port Blair are undertaken by INS Utkrosh. MUST READ: Kalvari-Class Submarine INS Vagir SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (2016) Amphibious warfare ship Nuclear-powered submarine Torpedo launch and recovery vessel Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier Directorate of Revenue Intelligence Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence seized over 48 kg of gold paste estimated to be worth 25 crore rupees at Surat

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2023 Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: As per recent announcements, India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2023 will be held from the 27th of October this year in New Delhi. About India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2023:- India Mobile Congress (IMC) is the largest telecom, media, and technology forum in Asia. Organized by: It is jointly organized by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) and the Cellular Operators Association of India (COAI). Mission: to catapult India into the limelight, becoming a beacon of the all-encompassing digital transformation shaping the future. Significance: It is a leading forum for bringing together industry, government, academia, and other ecosystem players. Venue: Pragati Maidan, New Delhi. (UPSC CSE: IMC 2021) Ministry: Minister of Information Technology. This is the seventh edition of Asia’s premier digital technology exhibition. (UPSC CSE: IMC 2021) Aim of IMC 2023: The event will harness India’s potent expertise in cutting-edge technologies such as 5G, 6G, broadcasting, satellite, and semiconductors and sculpt an electric atmosphere where ideas ignite, alliances shape, and digital boundaries are incessantly expanded. Theme of the India Mobile Congress-2023: Global Digital Innovation. Sub Themes of the India Mobile Congress-2023: Engage, Learn, Innovate. The event plays a pivotal role in driving meaningful conversations, facilitating enriching connections, and sparking ingenuity across industries. This year IMC is introducing Aspire, the grand Start-Up event. It will lay emphasis on igniting the future of entrepreneurship growth among young innovators and industry delegates in the telecom and other digital domains. MUST READ: Telecom industry in India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: (2022) Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. In the Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain-based social networks. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than by a corporation Which of the following given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, Union Cooperation Minister Amit Shah addressed the 42nd Foundation Day of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) in New Delhi. Background:- Union Cooperation Minister Amit Shah has said that NABARD is ensuring development and prosperity in rural areas by making rural banking accessible. For the last four decades, NABARD has proved to be the backbone of this country’s rural economy, infrastructure, agriculture, and cooperative institutions. NABARD has a huge role in making every person in the village self-reliant especially the women, through self-help groups and establishing them in society with self-respect. About National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD):- Established: 1982. It is a statutory body under the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act, of 1981. NABARD came into existence in 1982 by transferring the agricultural credit functions of RBI and refinance functions of the then Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC). NABARD today is fully owned by the Government of India. HQ: Mumbai Role of NABARD:- It is an apex institution, which has the power to deal with all matters concerning policy, planning. It deals with the operations in giving credit for agriculture and other economic activities in rural areas. (UPSC CSE: Revised Rural Area Development Plan) It is a refinancing agency for those institutions that provide investment and production credit for promoting several developmental programs for rural development. It is improving the credit delivery system in India. It coordinates the rural credit financing activities while maintaining liaison with the Government of India, State Governments, and also RBI. Functions of NABARD:- It provides refinance for IRDP accounts in order to give the highest share for the support for poverty allevia­tion programs run by IRDP. It also makes the service area plan, to provide backward and for­ward linkages and infrastructural support. NABARD also prepares guidelines for the promotion of group activities under its programs and provides 100% refinance support for them. It is making efforts to establish linkages between the Self-help Group(SHG). It refinances projects that are taken under the ‘National Watershed Development Programme ‘ and the ‘National Mission of Wasteland Development. It also has a system of District Oriented Monitor­ing Studies. (UPSC CSE: Start-Up Village Entrepreneurship Programme) It also supports Vikas volunteer Vahini programs which offer credit and development activities to poor farmers. It also inspects and supervises the cooperative banks and RRBs to periodically ensure the development of rural financing and farmers’ welfare. It recommends licensing for RRBs and Cooperative banks to RBI. It provides assistance and support for the training and development of the staff of various other credit insti­tutions, that are engaged in credit distributions. It also runs programs for agriculture and rural development. MUST READ: Cooperative Sector Reforms SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Muslim World League Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently, President Droupadi Murmu had a meeting with the Secretary General

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, IN SPACe, the commercial arm of the Indian Space Research Organisation, ISRO has called for an Expression of Interest from Indian private Industries to manufacture a Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV). Background:- The Chairman of INSPACe, Dr. Pawan Goenka has outlined the objective of involving private players in the manufacturing of Small launchers by saying that this will pave the way for India to become a global hub for small satellite launches. About Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV):- IMAGE SOURCE: Bharat Rakshak SSLV is an indigenously developed mini rocket launcher. (UPSC CSE: ISRO to undertake maiden flight of SSLV) It is the smallest vehicle at ISRO with a 110-ton mass. It is specially designed to carry smaller commercial satellites into the low-earth orbit (LEO) from 200-2,000 km above the Earth’s surface. Low-earth orbit (LEO): an orbit that is relatively close to Earth’s surface. It is normally at an altitude of less than 1000 km but could be as low as 160 km above Earth. It is a three-stage Launch Vehicle configured with three Solid Propulsion Stages and a liquid propulsion-based Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) as a terminal stage. Payload capacity: up to 500 kg. It has the capacity to deliver:- 600 kg to Low Earth Orbit (500 km) or 300 kg to Sun-synchronous Orbit (500 km) Advantages of SSLV:- It is a low-cost launch vehicle. It has a Low turn-around time. It is flexible in accommodating multiple satellites. It has minimal launch infrastructure requirements, etc. It is intended to cater to a market for the launch of small satellites into low earth orbits with a quick turn-around time. It will take only 72 hours to integrate, unlike the 70 days taken now for a launch vehicle. Only six people will be required to do the job, instead of 60 people. It will shift the burden of commercial launches from PSLV. PSLV: is the third generation launch vehicle of India and the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages. The SSLV is likely to cost a fourth of the current PSLV. (UPSC CSE: PSLV-C54 launch) IN-SPACe : Establishment: 2020. HQ: Ahmedabad, Gujrat. Objective: promotion, encouragement and regulation of space activities of both government and private entities. It is an autonomous agency in the Department of Space. (UPSC CSE: IN-SPACe) It also facilitates the usage of ISRO facilities by private entities. Composition: It comprises technical experts for space activities along with safety experts, academic experts and legal and strategic experts from other departments. It also comprises members from the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) and the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) of the Government of India. Functions of IN-SPACe:- To develop a space start-up ecosystem in India. To boost the participation of students in the Indian space sector and develop future space force frontiers. To create international opportunities for Indian space companies. To make India the spaceport and ground station hub for selected countries/regions. To develop space tourism and to spread awareness to the public about space technology and its benefits and role in the everyday life of individuals To develop IN-SPACe talent and knowledgebase. MUST READ: Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Home Minister Amit Shah will address two days G20 Conference on Crime and Security in the Age of Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) and Artificial Intelligence (AI). Background:- Two days G20 Conference on Crime and Security in the Age of NFTs, AI, and Metaverse will be organized in Gurugram, Haryana on the 13th and 14th of July. (UPSC CSE: India and G20 Presidency) The conference will bring together over 900 participants from G20 countries, 9 special invitee countries, international bodies, technology leaders, and domain experts from the country and across the world. About Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs):- IMAGE SOURCE: datasciencecentral.com NFTs are assets in the digital world that can be bought and sold like any other piece of property, but which have no tangible form of their own. (UPSC CSE: Non Fungible Tokens (NFTs)) Anything that can be converted into a digital form can be a Non-Fungible Token (NFT). It includes drawings, photos, videos, GIFs, music, in-game items, selfies etc. Even a tweet can be turned into an NFT, which can then be traded online using cryptocurrency. NFT transactions are recorded on blockchains. Historical Background of NFTs: 2015: Terra Nulius was the first NFT on Ethereum Blockchain. 2017: Then came Curio Cards, CryptoPunks and CryptoCats . 2021: NFTS slowly moved into public awareness, expanding into mainstream adoption in early 2021. Characteristic Features of NFTs:- Blockchain backed: NFTs are different from other digital forms in that they are backed by Blockchain technology. (UPSC CSE: Blockchain Technology and Voting) Exclusive ownership: NFTs can have only one owner at a time. Digital Storage: NFT owners can also digitally sign their artwork and store specific information in their NFTs metadata. Confidentiality: This will be only viewable to the individual who bought the NFT. Conditions to buy NFTs:- Anyone who holds a cryptocurrency wallet can buy an NFT. (UPSC CSE: Cryptocurrency) That is the only prerequisite to purchasing an NFT. One does not need any KYC documents to purchase an art. Risks associated with NFTs:- Risk of Fraud: In the recent past, several incidents of NFT Frauds have been reported. This includes the emergence of fake marketplaces, unverified sellers often impersonating real artists and selling copies of their artworks for half price. Environmental Risks: In

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Directorate General of foreign trade (DGFT) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the directorate general of foreign trade (DGFT) has imposed restrictions on imports of certain gold jewellery and articles. Background:- Restrictions mean that a license will be required from the government to import these goods. Although, no such permission is required for imports under the India-UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) tariff rate quota ((TRQ). CEPA: It is a kind of free trade pact, which covers negotiation on the trade in services and investment, and other areas of economic partnership. TRQ: It allows a lower tariff rate on imports of a given product up to a specified quantity. About Directorate General of foreign trade (DGFT):- Establishment: 1991. HQ: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Headed by: Director General of Foreign Trade. Objective: promoting India’s exports. Functions of DGCI:- Licensing of imports and exports. Regulate, restrict or prohibit exports and imports. (UPSC CSE: Free Trade Agreements regime) Providing a complete database of all exporters and importers in India. It has the authority to prohibit, restrict, and regulate importers and exporters. It plays an advisory role to the Government on Policy measures pertaining to national and international economic scenarios. It is responsible for formulating and implementing the Foreign Trade Policy. (UPSC CSE: New Foreign Trade Policy) It also issues scrips/authorization to exporters and monitors their corresponding obligations. MUST READ: Moratorium on e-commerce trade SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-! : Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second-largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Third G20 Sherpas Meet Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: The third Sherpas meeting under India’s G20 Presidency began in Hampi, Karnataka recently. About G20 Sherpas: A Sherpa is a personal representative of the leader of a member country at an international Summit meeting such as the G20. The Sherpa engages in planning, negotiation and implementation tasks through the Summit. They coordinate the agenda, seek consensus at the highest political levels, and participate in a series of pre-Summit consultations to help negotiate their leaders’ positions. Sherpas are career diplomats or senior government officials appointed by the leaders of their countries. There is only one Sherpa per Summit for each member country; he/she is assisted by several sous Sherpas. G20 Sherpa Meeting under India’s G20 Presidency: The former CEO of NITI Aayog, Amitabh Kant is the G20 Sherpa from India. The 1st Sherpa Meeting of India’s G20 Presidency was held on 04 December 2022, in Udaipur Rajasthan. The Second G20 Sherpas meeting under India’s G20 Presidency, chaired by India’s G20 Sherpa Shri Amitabh Kant took place in the picturesque village of Kumarakom, Kerala, from March 30 to April 2, 2023. G20:- Establishment: 1999. (UPSC CSE: G20) Members: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the U.K., the U.S. and the European Union. Presidency of the G20: it rotates every year among members. The country holding the presidency, together with the previous and next presidency-holder, forms the ‘Troika’. India assumed the presidency of the G20 grouping from Indonesia, in 2022 and will hold the post for a year. During India’s presidency, India, Indonesia and Brazil will form the troika. The G20 does not have a permanent secretariat or Headquarters. About Hampi:- IMAGE SOURCE: Condé Nast Traveller India Hampi comprises mainly the remnants of the capital city of the Vijayanagara Empire. Vijayanagara Empire: the last great Hindu Kingdom dating 14th-16th century CE. Hampi was the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire in the 14th century. Discovery: The ruins at Hampi were brought to light in 1800 by an engineer and antiquarian named Colonel Colin Mackenzie. (UPSC CSE: Hampi Stone Chariot) Hampi was the capital city during the four different dynasties:- Sangama (1336 to 1485 CE): Founded by Harihara I. Saluva (1485 to 1503 CE): Founded by Saluva Narasimha. Tuluva (1491 to 1570 CE): Founded by Tuluva Narasa Nayaka and the most famous king was Krishnadeva Raya. Aravidu (1542 to 1646 CE): Founded by It is located in the Tungabhadra basin in Bellary District, Central Karnataka. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is called the “World’s Largest Open-air Museum”. (UPSC CSE: Hampi World Heritage site) It is also known as Pampa Kshetra, Kishkindha Kshetra and even Bhaskara Kshetra. Characteristic features of temples at Hampi: wide chariot streets flanked by a row of pillared mandapas. Famous places: Krishna temple complex, Narasimha, Ganesa, Hemakuta group of temples, Achyutaraya temple complex, Vitthala temple complex, Pattabhirama temple complex, Lotus Mahal complex, etc. MUST READ: Kingdom of Vijayanagara SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well-known (2023) capital cities ports centres of iron-and-steel making shrines of Jain Tirthankaras