Current Affairs

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR) Syllabus       Prelims: Environment Context: National Campaign for Updation and Verification of People’s Biodiversity Register was recently launched in Goa. About People’s Biodiversity Register: The program of People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR) is designed as a tool for the formal maintenance of the local knowledge of biodiversity. PBR is a record of knowledge, perception and attitude of people about natural resources, plants and animals, their utilization and conservation in a village or a panchayat. PBR is also a mechanism to create awareness among the people about the condition of plants and animals and their conservation and sustainable utilization. This mechanism can bring the people to participate in development planning which would be ecologically sustainable and socially justifiable. As per the Biological Diversity Act 2002, Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC) are created for “promoting conservation, sustainable use and documentation of biological diversity” by local bodies across the country. BMCs have been constituted by the local bodies in the States and Union Territories and are entrusted with preparation of the People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs), in consultation with local communities. Biological Diversity (BD) Act, 2002; The Biological Diversity (BD) Act, 2002 was legislated pursuant to India’s obligation under the Convention of Biological Diversity (CBD). The Biological Diversity (BD) Act, 2002 was enacted by the Parliament of India to conserve biological diversity, sustainably use its components and ensure fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources. Salient Features of the Act: The Act prohibits the following activities without the prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority: Any person or organization (either based in India or not) obtaining any biological resource occurring in India for its research or commercial utilization. The transfer of the results of any research relating to any biological resources occurring in, or obtained from, India. The claim of any intellectual property rights on any invention based on the research made on the biological resources obtained from India. The act envisaged a three-tier structure to regulate the access to biological resources: The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) The State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) The Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) (at local level) The Act provides these authorities with special funds and a separate budget in order to carry out any research project dealing with the biological natural resources of the country. It shall supervise any use of biological resources and the sustainable use of them and shall take control over the financial investments and their return and dispose of those capitals as correct. Under this act, the Central Government in consultation with the NBA: Shall notify threatened species and prohibit or regulate their collection, rehabilitation and conservation Designate institutions as repositories for different categories of biological resources The act stipulates all offences under it as cognizable and non-bailable. Any grievances related to the determination of benefit sharing or order of the National Biodiversity Authority or a State Biodiversity Board under this Act, shall be taken to the National Green Tribunal (NGT). National Biodiversity Authority (NBA); NBA is a statutory, autonomous body and it performs facilitative, regulatory and advisory functions. NBA is headquartered at NBA has an advisory and regulatory role to perform. NBA advises Central Government on Biodiversity Conservation Issues. It performs a regulatory role by granting approvals to Foreign Nationals and Companies for access to Bio-resources of India for commercial use. It also Grants approvals for intellectual property rights of Bio resources and associated Traditional Knowledge to Indians and Non-Indians. Structure of the NBA: The National Biodiversity Authority consists of the following members to be appointed by the central government, namely: A Chairperson. Three ex officio members, one representing the Ministry dealing with Tribal Affairs and two representing the Ministry dealing with Environment and Forests. Seven ex-officio members to represent the Ministries of the Central Government. Five non-official members to be appointed from amongst specialists and scientists having special knowledge and experience in the required matters. Must Read: Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Consider the following pairs: Terms have sometimes                              Their origin seen in the news Annex-I Countries                            Cartagena Protocol Certified Emissions Reductions        Nagoya Protocol Clean Development Mechanism       Kyoto Protocol Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mohenjo-Daro’s Dancing Girl Syllabus      Prelims: Ancient India Context: On International Museum Day, the Prime Minister unveiled the International Museum Expo’s mascot – a “contemporised” version of the famous Dancing Girl of Mohenjo-Daro. About International Museum Day: International Museum Day is an international day held annually on or around 18 May, coordinated by the International Council of Museums. The event highlights a specific theme, which changes every year reflecting a relevant theme or issue facing museums internationally.  About the International Museum Expo 2023 Mascot: The International Museum Expo 2023 Mascot was a life size (5 ft as compared to the original 10 cm) figure inspired from the Dancing Girl of the Indus Valley Civilization. The traditional craft of Channapatna toys was used to create this mascot. Mohenjo-Daro’s Dancing Girl figurine;   Source: Archeological Survey of India The Indus Civilization (3300-1300 BC with its mature stage dated to 2600-1900 BC), also known as the Harappa-Mohenjo-Daro Civilization, had been long forgotten until its discovery was announced in 1924. After the initial recognition as an ancient civilisation, a spate of excavations were conducted in the two major sites that were known until then – Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro. The Dancing Girl was discovered in one such excavation in 1926, by British archaeologist Ernest McKay in Mohenjo-Daro’s citadel. Dancing Girl is a prehistoricbronze sculpture made in lost-wax casting during c. 2300–1750 BC. It is 10.5 cm in height, 5 cm in width and 2.5 cm in depth. Even though Mohenjodaro and Harappa became part of Pakistani territory after the

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Khorramshahr- 4 Ballistic Missile Syllabus     Prelims: Science and Technology Context: Iran unveiled a new Liquid-Fuel Ballistic Missile named “Khorramshahr-4” with a range of 2,000 Kilometers. About Khorramshahr-4 Ballistic Missile: The Khorramshahr has the heaviest payload of Iran’s ballistic missile fleet. The Khorramshahr-4 is named after an Iranian city that was the scene of heavy fighting during theIran-Iraq War in the 1980s. Khorramshahr-4 Missile has a 2,000-kilometre range and can carry 1,500-kilogram warhead. The Khorramshahr-4 missile has a navigational aid system and can transport a large warhead. According to official accounts, the enemy’s defense systems cannot detect, intercept, or take action to destroy the warhead due to its fast speed when it strikes the target. This missile is the most recent iteration of the Khorramshahr family of point-blank missiles, which do not require final-stage guidance. The ability to target precisely when in mid-flight (above the atmosphere) distinguishes this missile from its earlier iterations. SOURCE: Times of India PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (2018) An Israeli radar system India’s indigenous anti-missile programme An American anti-missile system A defense collaboration between Japan and South Korea. X-Ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) Syllabus     Prelims: Science and Technology Context: The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) is collaborating with the Raman Research Institute (RRI), Bengaluru, to build the X-Ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) that is scheduled to be launched later this year. About X-Ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat): According toISRO, “XPoSat will study various dynamics of bright astronomical X-ray sources in extreme conditions.” The spacecraft will carry two scientific payloads in a low earth orbit. The primary payload POLIX (Polarimeter Instrument in X-rays) will measure the polarimetry parameters (degree and angle of polarization). POLIX is expected to observe about 40 bright astronomical sources of different categories during the planned lifetime of XPoSat mission of about 5 years. This is the first payload in the medium X-ray energy band dedicated for polarimetry measurements. The XSPECT (X-ray Spectroscopy and Timing) payload will give spectroscopic information on how light is absorbed and emitted by objects. It would observe several types of sources, such as X-ray pulsars, black hole binaries, low-magnetic field neutron star, etc. X-Ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) is India’s first, and only the world’s second polarimetry mission that is meant to study various dynamics of bright astronomical X-ray sources in extreme conditions. The other such major mission is NASA’s Imaging X-ray Polarimetry Explorer (IXPE) that was launched in 2021. IXPE carries three state-of-the-art space telescopes. Each of the three identical telescopes hosts one light-weight X-ray mirror and one detector unit. These will help observe polarized X-rays from neutron stars and super massive black holes. By measuring the polarisation of these X-rays, we can study where the light came from and understand the geometry and inner workings of the light source. Must Read: Indian Space Association SOURCE: Indian Express Angel Tax Syllabus   Prelims: Economy Context: The government provided an exemption from angel tax to pension and sovereign wealth funds, among others investing in India from 21 countries. About the Angel Tax: Angel tax is the tax payable by privately held companies on the issue of shares at a rate higher than the fair market value. In India, the ‘angel tax’ was first introduced in It aims to deter the generation and use of unaccounted money through the subscription of shares of a closely held company at a value that is higher than the fair market value of the firm’s shares. Section 56(2) (VIIB) of the Income Tax Act, deals with angel tax. Under Section 56(2) (vii) (b) of the Income Tax Act, if a closely held company issues shares at a price exceeding fair market value, the difference is to be taxed as income from other sources. The tax affects angel investment the most and therefore is popularly called the angel tax. An angel investor is usually a high-net-worth individual who funds startups at the early stages, often with their own money. About the Recent Exemption from Angel Tax; The Finance act, 2023 amended the angel tax provision of the Income Tax Act, bringing foreign investment under its ambit. Before the amendment, the provision applied only to investments by Indian residents and funds not registered as alternative investment funds (AIFs). India exempted investments by non-resident entities such as sovereign wealth funds and pension funds from 21 countries from the so-called ‘angel tax leaving out Mauritius, Singapore, and Luxembourg among others that account for significant equity inflow into the country. The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) issued the notification exempting foreign central banks, pension funds, sovereign wealth funds and endowment funds from 21 countries from the levy. The 21 countries are Australia, Austria, Belgium, Canada, Czech Republic, Denmark, Finland, France, Germany, Iceland, Israel, Italy, Japan, South Korea, New Zealand, Norway, Russia, Spain, Sweden, the UK and the US. Mauritius has the highest share in cumulative foreign direct equity investment since April 2000 at 26%, followed by Singapore with 23%. Investments by non-resident investors including multilateral entities, foreign banks and insurers, foreign portfolio investors and entities registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India will not face the angel tax. The exemption will also be available to foreign investments in startups registered with the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) but no changes have been made to the eligibility conditions to register. SOURCE: Economic Times PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly? Certificate of Deposit Commercial Paper Promissory Note Participatory Note Public Interest Litigation (PIL) Syllabus    Prelims: Polity Context: Recently, A public interest litigation (PIL) was filled against the forest department in view of the alleged hurdles created by forest officials in Khanapur, Karnataka in implementing government projects. The complainant has alleged that by holding up development work, the forest department has denied villagers of

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Model Prisons Act 2023 Syllabus Prelims : Polity Context:  Recently , The Centre has finalised a comprehensive ‘Model Prisons Act, 2023’ to replace the pre-independence era ‘Prisons Act, 1894’ which mainly focused on keeping criminals in custody and enforcing discipline and order in prisons. The Model Prisons Act, 2023, is being introduced following the spate of killings and gang violence within prisons. One such incident was the killing of 33-year-old Tillu Tajpuriya, who was allegedly stabbed to death by members of a  rival gang inside Tihar jail. About Model Prisons Act 2023 The current ‘Prisons Act, 1894’ is almost 130 years old and mainly focuses on keeping criminals in custody and enforcing discipline and order in prisons, with no provision for reform and rehabilitation. MHA assigned the task of revising the Prisons Act, 1894, to the Bureau of Police Research and Development. Under the new Act, prisons will be viewed as reformative and correctional institutions, with a focus on transforming and rehabilitating inmates back into society as law-abiding citizens. The Model Prisons Act, 2023 aims to ; Address the gaps in the existing Prisons Act by providing guidance on the use of technology in prison management. Make provisions for parole, furlough, and remission to prisoners to encourage good conduct. Special provisions for women and transgender inmates. Focus on the reformation and rehabilitation of inmates. Features of the new Model Prisons Act; Some salient features of the new Model Prisons Act include Provision for security assessment and segregation of prisoners. Individual sentence planning. Grievance redressal. The establishment of a prison development board. A focus on the physical and mental well-being of prisoners. Use of technology in prison administration, such as video conferencing with courts and scientific and technological interventions in prisons. Punishment of prisoners and jail staff for using prohibited items like mobile phones in jails. New provisions being proposed;  It seeks to create provisions for the grant of parole, furlough, and remission to prisoners to encourage good conduct. It aims to provide separate accommodation for women and transgender inmates, ensure the physical and mental well-being of prisoners, and focus on the reformation and rehabilitation of inmates. It also intends to bring about “attitudinal change towards prisoners” and initiate vocational training and skill development for prisoners for their reintegration into society. It also seeks to bring about “transparency in prison management” . Is the Model Prisons Act, 2023, binding on states? As per the provisions of the Constitution, ‘prisons’ and ‘persons detained therein’ fall under the State List. This means that the responsibility of prison management and administration solely vests with the state government, which alone is competent to make appropriate legislative provisions in this regard. So, the ministry also clarified while announcing the 2023 Act that it “may serve as a guiding document for the States” so that they may benefit from its adoption in their jurisdictions. Prisons Act, of 1894; It defined a “prison” as “any jail or place used permanently or temporarily under the general or special orders of a State Government for the detention of prisoners”, excluding police custody and subsidiary jails. It demarcated prisoners into three different categories according to the nature of their crimes, such as “criminal prisoner”, “convicted criminal prisoner” and “civil prisoner”. The 1894 Act dealt with provisions for accommodation, food, clothing, bedding segregation, and the discipline of prisoners, including solitary confinement. It also laid down provisions for the prisoners’ employment, health, and visits. Flaws in 1894 Act The act had no provisions for reformation or rehabilitation and permitted “whipping, provided that the number of stripes shall not exceed thirty,” albeit for only male prisoners. This Act did not apply to “civil jails in the State of Bombay, outside the city of Bombay, and those jails administered under the provisions of Sections 9–16 of the Bombay Act, 1874. The Prisoners Act 1900 It was introduced with the objective of consolidating the “several acts relating to prisoners” and replacing the “separate enactments by a single act, expressed more simply and intelligibly.” Presently, the jail manuals of each state also deal with the administration and management of its prisons. PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1. Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct SOURCE: The Indian Express Navigation With Indian Constellation (NavIC) Syllabus Prelims : Science and Technology Context: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched the first of the second-generation satellites for its navigation constellation. The 2,232 kg satellite, the heaviest in the constellation, was launched by a Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) rocket that lifted off from Sriharikota. About Navigation With Indian Constellation (NavIC) NavIC was erstwhile known as Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS). It was developed by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and its commercial wing ANTRIX. NavIC consists of 8 satellites located at a distance of approximately 36,000 Km and currently, 7 satellites are active. 3 satellites are in Geostationary Orbit (GEO) 5 satellites are in inclined Geosynchronous Orbit (GSO) Objective of the NavIC To provide navigation, timing, and reliable positioning services in and around India. It is being designed to give precise position data service to users located in India and also to users in the area out-spreading up to 1500 Km from India’s boundary. Other Countries with Navigation Satellite System Global Positioning System (GPS)- USA GLONASS – Russia Galileo – European Union BeiDou – Chinese Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS) – Japan PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1. Which one of the following countries has its own

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Global Hunger Hotspots Syllabus Prelims : Economics Context:  According to a new report published by United Nations, several parts of the world faces increase in acute food insecurity. India’s neighbors, Pakistan, Afghanistan and Myanmar, are among the hunger hotspots in the world. About Global Hunger Hotspots: Acute food insecurity can potentially increase in magnitude and severity for 18 areas in 22 countries, according to the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) and the World Food Programme (WFP). Findings of the report titled “Hunger Hotspots FAO‑WFP early warnings on acute food insecurity”: Highest concern level countries: Afghanistan, Nigeria, Somalia, South Sudan, Yemen Haiti, Burkina Faso and Mali. Highest concern level countries have populations facing or projected to face starvation or are at risk of deterioration towards catastrophic conditions, given they already have critical food insecurity and are facing severe aggravating factors. These countries require the most urgent attention. Hotspots with very high concern countries: Pakistan, the Central African Republic, Ethiopia, Kenya, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, the Syrian Arab Republic and Myanmar. These hotspots have many people facing critical acute food insecurity, coupled with worsening drivers that are expected to intensify life‑threatening conditions in the coming months. Hunger hotspot countries: Lebanon, El Salvador, Nicaragua, Malawi, Guatemala and Honduras.  Major Reasons   Global food crisis Eruption of conflict due to organized violence and armed conflict and these Conflict disrupt livelihoods Economic concerns continue to drive acute food insecurity Weather extremes, such as heavy rains, tropical storms, cyclones, flooding, drought and increased climate variability, remain significant drivers in some countries and regions Recommendations Urgent and scaled-up assistance is required in all hunger hotspots to protect livelihoods and increase access to food. Address existing humanitarian needs and ensure short‑term protective interventions before new needs materialize. Must Read: Food Security in India. SOURCE: Down to Earth PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which of the following is/are the indicator/ indicators used by IFPRI to compute the Global Hunger Index Report? (2016) Undernourishment Child stunting Child mortality Select the correct answer using the code given below:  1 only  2 and 3 only  1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only Q2. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts? (2018)  Angola and Zambia  Morocco and Tunisia Venezuela and Colombia  Yemen and South Sudan Ternary Nanoparticles Syllabus Prelims : Science and Technology Context: A recent study has shown that new nanostructures system can be used to solve environmental problems and the weakness of renewable energy source. About Ternary Nanoparticles: Ternary nanoparticles are nanoparticles composed of three different types of materials or elements. These nanoparticles consist of a combination of three distinct components, which can be metals, metal oxides, semiconductors, or other materials. The term “ternary” indicates the presence of three components in the nanoparticle’s composition. Properties of Ternary Nanoparticles It exhibit a range of unique properties that arise from the combination of three different materials or elements. Ternary nanoparticles offer the ability to fine-tune the composition by adjusting the relative ratios of the three components. This allows researchers to tailor the properties of the nanoparticles to meet specific requirements Ternary nanoparticles can exhibit improved stability compared to their binary counterparts. Ternary nanoparticles can possess multiple functionalities due to the combination of different materials. Ternary nanoparticles often exhibit interesting optical properties, such as enhanced absorption or emission spectra, due to the interaction between different components. Ternary nanoparticles can be synthesized with precise control over their size, shape, and morphology. Applications Ternary Nanoparticles These are employed as catalysts in various chemical reactions. Ternary nanoparticles are used in energy storage and conversion devices. These with specific optical and electronic properties are utilized in photovoltaic devices such as solar cells also used in light-emitting diodes (LEDs), photodetectors, and displays. It is employed in biomedical imaging techniques, including magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), computed tomography (CT), and fluorescence imaging. These are used as carriers for controlled and targeted drug delivery. Ternary nanoparticles are explored for environmental applications, such as water purification and air pollution control. SOURCE: Nature.com PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1.Consider the following statements (2022) Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. Nanoparticles of same commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 All India Survey of Higher Education Syllabus Prelims :Polity Context:  The All India Survey of Higher Education (AISHE) Survey 2020-21 conducted under the Ministry of Education found that the Muslim community’s enrolment in higher education declined at a time when the enrolment of SCs, STs and OBCs improved. About All India Survey of Higher Education All India Survey of Higher Education is an annual web-based survey, which started in 2010-11 and conducted by Ministry of Education. Various parameters of data collection includes teachers, student enrolment, programmes, examination results, education finance, and infrastructure. For the first time, the Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) of India have filled their data using an entirely online data collection platformthrough the Web Data Capture Format (Web DCF) developed by the Department of Higher Education and the National Informatics Centre (NIC). Key findings from the report: Gross Enrolment Ratio(GER) for all enrolments (as per 2011 Census) increased by over 2 points to 27.3. The female enrolment in higher educationprogrammes had increased to 49% of total enrolments in 2020-21 compared to 45% in 2019-20. SC: More SC students who were enrolled in 2020-21 compared two lakh to the previous year. ST: The year also saw about three lakh more ST students and six lakh more OBC students being enrolled for higher education. The proportion of Muslim students enrolling for higher education dropped to 4.6% in 2020-21 from 5.5% in 2019-20 During2020-21, the number of universities has increased by 70, and the number of colleges has increased by 1,453. The female per 100 male faculty has improved to 75 in 2020-21 from 74 in 2019-20

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Telangana’s woollen gongadi shawls Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recent initiatives to refashion Telangana’s woollen gongadi shawls into shoes for farmers have been observed. About Telangana’s woollen gongadi shawls:- Gongadi is the traditional woollen blanket woven by the indigenous Kuruma communities. It is made from the wool of the indigenous Deccani sheep, which is locally known as Nalla gorrae. Nalla gorrae: it is a breed of sheep found in the Deccan Plateau region. (UPSC MAINS: Landform formation due to volcanic eruptions) The blanket is famous for its durability and versatility. It lasts for more than a decade due to its unique hand weaving. (UPSC CSE: Textile Industry in India) Unique natures of gongadi = it does not fade but grows darker in time. The traditional gongadi is produced organically, without using any dyes either natural or synthetic. Sizing of the strings is done using the paste of soaked and cooked tamarind seeds. MUST READ: Hyderabad lac bangles set to get GI tag SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2018) Crafts                                       Heritage of Puthukkuli Shawls             Tamil Nadu Sujni Embroidery             Maharashtra Uppada Jamdani saris      Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is /are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Kalamkari painting refers to (2015) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India. a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in NorthEast India. a block-painted woollen cloth in the Western Himalayan region of India. a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India. Tele-Law programme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: According to recent reports the Tele-Law programme has achieved a new milestone with 40 lakh beneficiaries across the country. About the Tele-Law programme:- IMAGE SOURCE: CODESSLIDE.IN The Tele-Law programme was launched in (UPSC CSE: Tele-Law) Ministry/ministries: Ministry of Law and Justice and Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). Objective: the programme connects the disadvantaged section with a panel of lawyers through an e-interface platform. It uses video conferencing facilities and telephone services to connect lawyers to litigants who need legal advice. It is to facilitate the delivery of legal advice through a panel of lawyers stationed at the State Legal Services Authorities (SALSA) and CSC (Common service centres). (UPSC CSE: NALSA) The service is free for those who are eligible for free legal Aid under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987. For all others, a nominal fee is charged. MUST READ: Citizens’ Tele-Law Mobile App SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Regarding Digi Locker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Kanger Valley National Park Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a rare mouse deer was caught on a camera trap set up at Kanger Valley National Park. About Kanger Valley National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: SLIDESHARE Kanger valley national park is situated in Jagdalpur, It was established as a national park in the year (UPSC CSE: Eco-sensitive Zones (ESZ) ) It derives its name from the Kanger River that flows through it. The Cuddapah group of rock formations, as well as the Vindhyan group of rock formations, are the most prevalent rock formations in the park. The state bird of Chattisgarh, the Bastar Hill Myna, is the most famous species in this area.It can imitate human voices. Kutumbasar, Kailash, and Dandak are three caves in the park, known for their geological features of stalagmites and stalactites. Fauna: Tigers, Leopards, Mouse Deer, Rhesus Macaque, Sloth Bear, Flying Squirrel, Chital, Sambar, Barking Deer, Pythons, Cobra, Snakes etc. (UPSC CSE: Chhattisgarh’s state animal, Wild buffalo, close to extinction) Flora: Teak, Haldu, Sal, Tendu, Mahua, Saja, Bija, Dhavara, Tinsa, , Mahulbel, Amarbel, Bandha etc. MUST READ: Indravati Tiger Reserve SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous? (2020) Kanha National Park Manas National Park Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary Foucault pendulum Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: A Foucault’s Pendulum, was installed in the new Parliament building inaugurated recently. About Foucault’s Pendulum:- IMAGE SOURCE: si.edu The Foucault pendulum is a device that proves the Earth’s rotation. A French scientist, Leon Foucault invented the Foucault pendulum. Historical Context: In 1851, the Foucault pendulum experiment conclusively demonstrated the Earth’s rotation, settling debates about the planet’s movement. (UPSC MAINS: What is Geomagnetism?) Working: The pendulum consists of a heavy iron ball suspended by a steel wire and swings in a plane, mimicking the Earth’s rotation on its axis. A Foucault pendulum always rotates clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere. The rate of rotation depends on the latitude. (UPSC CSE: Climate change causing a shift in Earth’s axis) The rate

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Small Finance Banks Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recent reports suggest that Small Finance Banks have revolutionised banking services in rural and semi-urban areas. About Small Finance Banks:- IMAGE SOURCE: tnpscthervupettagam.com Small Finance Banks are the financial institutions, which provide financial services to the unserved and unbanked region of the country. They are registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act, 2013. Minimum paid-up capital– 100 cr. Capital adequacy ratio – 15% of risk-weighted assets. Foreign shareholding capped at 74% of paid capital. Foreign Portfolio investment ( FPIs) cannot be more than 24%. Priority sector lending requirement of 75% of total adjusted net bank credit. (UPSCE MAINS: Micro finance has the ability to unleash rural India’s entrepreneurial zeal.) Eligibility Criteria:- Resident individuals/professionals, having at least 10 years of experience in banking and finance can start Small Finance Banks with the approval of RBI. Existing Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs), Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs), and Local Area Banks (LABs) in the private sector. (UPSC CSE: Digital Banks) Indian residents and have a successful record of accomplishment of running their businesses for at least a period of five years must control these. Joint ventures for setting up small finance banks are not permitted. Functions:- Take small deposits and disburse loans. Distribute mutual funds, insurance products and other simple third-party financial products. Lend 75% of their total adjusted net bank credit to priority sector. (Revised Priority Sector Lending Guidelines). Maximum loan size would be 10% of capital funds to single borrower, 15% to a group. Minimum 50% of loans should be up to 25 lakhs. MUST READ: Inclusive Growth SOURCE: THE PRINT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, the Central Bank’s function as the “lender of last resort” usually refers to which of the following? (2020) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 3 only Q.2) With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks in India, consider the following statements: (2021) They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. They can issue equity shares and preference shares. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, of 1949 through an Amendment in 1996 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 World’s largest grain storage plan Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Union Cabinet approved a programme for “world’s largest grain storage”. About World’s largest grain storage plan:- This scheme intends to construct grain storage facilities in the cooperative sector. Every block will have a dedicated godown with a capacity of 2,000 tonnes. Objective: to revolutionize the storage and distribution of food grains, ensuring their preservation and availability across the country. Supervision of the scheme: an inter-ministerial committee will oversee implementation. Schemes identified for convergence under the Plan:- Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare:- Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure Scheme (AMI) Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH) Sub Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM) Ministry of Food Processing Industries:- Pradhan Mantri Formalization of Micro Food Processing Enterprises Scheme (PMFME) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution:- Allocation of food grains under the National Food Security Act Procurement operations at Minimum Support Price Benefits:- The plan aims to address not just the shortage of agricultural storage infrastructure. (UPSC MAINS: Evaluate the storage mechanism for agricultural produce in India. ) Functioning as Procurement centres for State Agencies/ Food Corporation of India (FCI) Creation of decentralised storage capacity- it would reduce food grain wastage and strengthen the food security of the country. Providing various options to the farmers-, it would prevent the distressed sale of crops, thus enabling the farmers to realise better prices for their produce. Reduce the cost incurred in the transportation of food grains to procurement centres. MUST READ: Free Foodgrain Scheme SOURCE: THE HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past? (2020) Minimum Support Price Government’s trading Government’s stockpiling Consumer subsidies Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? (2020) Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Social Capital Development Free electricity supply to farmers Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system Setting up cold storage facilities by the governments. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 5 only 1, 3, 4 and 5 only 2, 3 and 6 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Chytridiomycosis Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, scientists developed a diagnostic test for Chytridiomycosis. About Chytridiomycosis:- IMAGE SOURCE: SLIDESERVE.COM Chytridiomycosis is a fungal disease in frog populations. (UPSC CSE: White fungus) It has caused severe declines in over 500 frog species and led to 90 extinctions, making it the deadliest animal disease known. (UPSC CSE: Mucormycosis ) How does it infect? It infects frogs skin. This damages their ability to balance water and salt levels. Origin- the disease originated in Asia. It spread globally through amphibian trade and travel. Mortality rate- extremely high. Natural immunity:- Some amphibian species have some form of natural immune resistance and do not become sick when they carry the fungus. This Immunity might come from anti-microbial chemicals within the skin, symbiotic bacteria on the skin, white blood cells and antibodies in the blood, or combinations of these mechanisms. So far, no clear trend has been

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Small Finance Banks Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recent reports suggest that Small Finance Banks have revolutionised banking services in rural and semi-urban areas. About Small Finance Banks:- IMAGE SOURCE: tnpscthervupettagam.com Small Finance Banks are the financial institutions, which provide financial services to the unserved and unbanked region of the country. They are registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act, 2013. Minimum paid-up capital– 100 cr. Capital adequacy ratio – 15% of risk-weighted assets. Foreign shareholding capped at 74% of paid capital. Foreign Portfolio investment ( FPIs) cannot be more than 24%. Priority sector lending requirement of 75% of total adjusted net bank credit. (UPSCE MAINS: Micro finance has the ability to unleash rural India’s entrepreneurial zeal.) Eligibility Criteria:- Resident individuals/professionals, having at least 10 years of experience in banking and finance can start Small Finance Banks with the approval of RBI. Existing Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs), Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs), and Local Area Banks (LABs) in the private sector. (UPSC CSE: Digital Banks) Indian residents and have a successful record of accomplishment of running their businesses for at least a period of five years must control these. Joint ventures for setting up small finance banks are not permitted. Functions:- Take small deposits and disburse loans. Distribute mutual funds, insurance products and other simple third-party financial products. Lend 75% of their total adjusted net bank credit to priority sector. (Revised Priority Sector Lending Guidelines). Maximum loan size would be 10% of capital funds to single borrower, 15% to a group. Minimum 50% of loans should be up to 25 lakhs. MUST READ: Inclusive Growth SOURCE: THE PRINT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, the Central Bank’s function as the “lender of last resort” usually refers to which of the following? (2020) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 3 only Q.2) With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks in India, consider the following statements: (2021) They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. They can issue equity shares and preference shares. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, of 1949 through an Amendment in 1996 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 World’s largest grain storage plan Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Union Cabinet approved a programme for “world’s largest grain storage”. About World’s largest grain storage plan:- This scheme intends to construct grain storage facilities in the cooperative sector. Every block will have a dedicated godown with a capacity of 2,000 tonnes. Objective: to revolutionize the storage and distribution of food grains, ensuring their preservation and availability across the country. Supervision of the scheme: an inter-ministerial committee will oversee implementation. Schemes identified for convergence under the Plan:- Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare:- Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure Scheme (AMI) Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH) Sub Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM) Ministry of Food Processing Industries:- Pradhan Mantri Formalization of Micro Food Processing Enterprises Scheme (PMFME) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution:- Allocation of food grains under the National Food Security Act Procurement operations at Minimum Support Price Benefits:- The plan aims to address not just the shortage of agricultural storage infrastructure. (UPSC MAINS: Evaluate the storage mechanism for agricultural produce in India. ) Functioning as Procurement centres for State Agencies/ Food Corporation of India (FCI) Creation of decentralised storage capacity- it would reduce food grain wastage and strengthen the food security of the country. Providing various options to the farmers-, it would prevent the distressed sale of crops, thus enabling the farmers to realise better prices for their produce. Reduce the cost incurred in the transportation of food grains to procurement centres. MUST READ: Free Foodgrain Scheme SOURCE: THE HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past? (2020) Minimum Support Price Government’s trading Government’s stockpiling Consumer subsidies Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? (2020) Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Social Capital Development Free electricity supply to farmers Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system Setting up cold storage facilities by the governments. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 5 only 1, 3, 4 and 5 only 2, 3 and 6 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Chytridiomycosis Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, scientists developed a diagnostic test for Chytridiomycosis. About Chytridiomycosis:- IMAGE SOURCE: SLIDESERVE.COM Chytridiomycosis is a fungal disease in frog populations. (UPSC CSE: White fungus) It has caused severe declines in over 500 frog species and led to 90 extinctions, making it the deadliest animal disease known. (UPSC CSE: Mucormycosis ) How does it infect? It infects frogs skin. This damages their ability to balance water and salt levels. Origin- the disease originated in Asia. It spread globally through amphibian trade and travel. Mortality rate- extremely high. Natural immunity:- Some amphibian species have some form of natural immune resistance and do not become sick when they carry the fungus. This Immunity might come from anti-microbial chemicals within the skin, symbiotic bacteria on the skin, white blood cells and antibodies in the blood, or combinations of these mechanisms. So far, no clear trend has been

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) KAVACH Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: The recent train tragedy in Odisha has brought to the surface the need for KAVACH in preventing rail accidents. Kavach was not available on this route. About KAVACH:- IMAGE SOURCE: newssimplified.in KAVACH is an Automatic Train Protection (ATP) electronic system designed to help the Indian Railways achieve Zero Accidents. Objective: to achieve safety in train operations across Indian Railways. Development:- It has been indigenously developed. It is developed by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with the Indian industry. Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO): it is a research and development organisation under the Ministry of Railways. Working of KAVACH:- It has a set of electronic devices and Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) devices installed in locomotives, in the signalling system as well as the tracks. (UPSC CSE: RFID) These connect to each other using ultra-high radio frequencies to control the brakes of trains. It also alerts drivers, all based on the logic programmed into them. (UPSC MAINS: KAVACH) It is a Safety Integrity Level 4 (SIL-4) certified technology. Safety Integrity Level (SIL): it comes from two voluntary standards used by plant owners/operators to quantify safety performance requirements for hazardous operations. There are four SIL Levels (1-4). A higher SIL Level means a greater process hazard and a higher level of protection. KAVACH is the world’s cheapest automatic train collision protection system. Initial development of Kavach started in 2012 under the name Train Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) and completed development on 2022. First successful trial: between Gullaguda–Chitgidda Railway stations of South Central Railway in 2022. The Budget of 2022-23 had proposed rollout of Kavach in 2000 kms. Salient features:- Automatic activation of the train braking system if the driver fails to control the train speed. Preventing collision between two Locomotives equipped with a functional KAVACH system. Sending continuous updates of Movement. (UPSC CSE: Mobile Train Radio Communication (MTRC) ) Auto Whistling while approaching Level Crossing Gates Sending SoS Messages during emergency situations. Centralised live monitoring of train movements through the Network Monitor System. MUST READ: Vande Bharat 2.0 SOURCE: BUISINESSLINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following communication technologies: (2022) Closed-circuit Television Radio Frequency Identification Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies? 1 and 2 only. 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of (2020) Digital security infrastructure Food security infrastructure Health care and education infrastructure Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure Pet coke Syllabus Prelims –Geography, Environment and Ecology Context: The Government recently, permitted the import of pet coke as a raw material for lithium-ion batteries. About Pet Coke:- IMAGE SOURCE: bulkcarrierguide.com Pet Coke is one of the industrial by-products produced during oil refining. It is dark solid carbon material. It is used as a source of energy and carbon for various industrial applications. It is abundantly used in India in several manufacturing industries such as cement, steel and textile. It is significantly cheaper than coal, has high calorific value and is easier to transport and store. There are two kinds of pet coke produced during oil refining viz. Fuel-grade pet coke (80%) and Calcined pet coke (20%). India is the world’s biggest consumer of pet coke. (UPSC CSE: Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) ) Local producers: Indian Oil Corp, Reliance Industries and Bharat Petroleum Corp. Cement companies in India account for about three-fourths of the country’s pet coke use. Environment and Health Hazards of Pet Coke:- Pet coke is a much more potent pollutant than coal. It contains a whopping 74,000 PPM of sulphur content, which is released into the atmosphere as emissions, which is much higher than vehicular emissions. It is also a source of fine dust, which can get through the filtering process of the human airway and lodge in the lungs, which can cause serious health problems. It releases sulphur, nitrous oxide, mercury, arsenic, chromium, nickel, and hydrogen chloride, which contribute to global warming. (UPSC CSE: COP 27). Lithium It is a soft, silvery-white metal. It is the lightest metal and the lightest solid element. It has the highest specific heat capacity of any solid element. It is a good conductor of electricity. It is flammable and can even explode when exposed to air and water. Lithium is a crucial building block of the lithium-ion rechargeable batteries. Currently, India is heavily dependent on import of these cells and the move to ink sourcing pacts for lithium is seen as a move to reduce its dependency on China, which is a key source of both the raw material and cell. Lithium-ion batteries A lithium-ion battery or Li-ion battery is a type of rechargeable battery. Working: Li-ion batteries use an intercalated (Intercalation is the reversible inclusion or insertion of a molecule into materials with layered structures) lithium compound as one electrode material. The battery consists of electrolyte, which allows for ionic movement, and the two electrodes are the constituent components of a lithium-ion battery cell. Lithium ions move from the negative electrode to the positive electrode during discharge and back when charging. Applications:- Power electric vehicles (EVs), laptops and mobile phones. Applications in electronic gadgets, Telecommunication, Aerospace, Industries. Power source for electric and hybrid electric vehicles. Advantages of Li-Ion battery:- It is light weighted and is one-third the weight of lead acid batteries. It is nearly 100% efficient in both charging and discharging as compared to lead battery, which has 70% efficiency. It completely discharges i.e. 100% as compared to 80% for lead acid. It has life cycle of 5000 times or more compared to just 400-500 cycles in lead acid. It also maintains constant voltage throughout entire discharge cycle whereas voltage in lead acid battery drops consistently throughout its discharge cycle. It is much cleaner technology and is safer for environment. It can be wireless. Disadvantages of Li-ion Batteries:- Long charging times. Safety issues: instances of batteries catching fires have been

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Mission Vatsalya Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, a consultation meeting of the functionaries of Child Care Institutions was held to review the effective implementation of Mission Vatsalya. About Mission Vatsalya:- IMAGE SOURCE: government plans It’s an umbrella scheme for child protection services in the country. Ministry: Ministry of Women and Child Development. Prior to 2009, the Ministry of women and child development Implemented three schemes for children in need of protection, The juvenile justice programme for children in need of care and protection as well as children in conflict with the law, The integrated programme for street children, The scheme for assistance to children’s homes. In 2010, these were merged into a single plan known as the Integrated Child Protection Scheme. In 2017, it was renamed “Child Protection Services Scheme,” and again in 2021-22 it was renamed as Mission Vatsalya. It is one of the new triad of schemes along with Mission Shakti, and Poshan 2.0. It aims at securing a healthy and happy childhood for every child. (UPSC MAINS: Measures to promote the rights and interests of the girl child) Components:- Strengthening service delivery structures Upscaling institutional care and services Encouraging non-institutional community-based child care Emergency outreach services Training and capacity building Objectives:- To secure a healthy and happy childhood for each and every child in the country. To ensure opportunities to enable them to discover their full potential. To assist States/UTs in delivering the mandate of the Juvenile Justice Act 2015. (UPSC CSE: The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment Bill, 2021) To achieve the Sustainable Development (SDG)goals. It promotes family-based non-institutional care of children in difficult circumstances. Implementation:- Under the mission, the Government plans to partner with the private sector as well as volunteer groups. MUST READ: Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’? (2017) To enable famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. RBI’s lightweight’ payments system Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced the conceptualisation of the ‘lightweight’ payments system. About RBI’s lightweight’ payments system:- The lightweight’ payment system is to ensure uninterrupted digital payments during emergencies such as natural calamities or war. Background: the RBI is working on strengthening the oversight framework for Centralised Payment Systems as part of the Utkarsh 2.0 initiative. Salient Features:- This system will operate independently of existing payment technologies like UPI(Unified Payment Interface), NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer), and RTGS(Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS)) It can be operated from anywhere. It requires minimal staff during emergencies. It will process critical transactions, such as bulk payments and interbank payments, during extreme and volatile situations. The system operates on minimalistic hardware and software. It gets activated only when needed. Lightweight’ payments system v/s UPI(Unified Payment Interface) UPI and other conventional systems prioritise handling large transaction volumes and require a stable and robust infrastructure. (UPSC CSE: UPI) On the other hand, the lightweight system is designed to operate even in volatile and extreme conditions when regular payment systems may not be accessible. Utkarsh 2.0: In January 2023, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched Utkarsh 2.0, which is the second phase of its medium-term strategy for strengthening regulatory and supervisory mechanisms. Utkarsh 2.0 builds upon the foundation laid by Utkarsh 0.1, which was launched in July 2019 and covered the period from 2019 to 2022. Utkarsh 2.0 will guide the RBI over the period from 2023 to 2025 and includes six vision statements that are designed to improve the performance of the RBI’s statutory and other functions, enhance its relevance and significance at the national and global levels, and improve its internal governance, infrastructure, and human resources. The six vision statements are: Excellence in performance of statutory and other functions: Strengthened trust of citizens and institutions in the RBI: Enhanced relevance and significance in national and global roles: Transparent, accountable, and ethics-driven internal governance: Best-in-class and environment-friendly digital and physical infrastructure: This vision statement seeks to improve the RBI’s digital and physical infrastructure by making it the best-in-class and environmentally friendly Innovative, dynamic, and skilled human resources: MUST READ: Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements: (2018) BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, the BHIM app has only two factors of authentication. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Duty-free quota-free (DFQF) scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: As per recent reports, about 85 per cent of 11,000 products offered at zero tariffs by India to least developed countries (LDCs) under the duty-free quota-free (DFQF) scheme of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) remains unutilised. About the duty-free quota-free (DFQF) scheme:- IMAGE SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD Background: The decision to provide duty-free quota-free (DFQF) access for least developed countries (LDCs) was first taken at the WTO Hong Kong Ministerial Meeting in 2005. Least developed countries (LDCs): The WTO recognizes as least-developed countries (LDCs) those countries, which have been designated as such by the United Nations. There are at present 48 LDCs on the UN list. 31 of these are members of the WTO. It requires all developed and developing country members to provide preferential market access for all products originating from all LDCs. India became the first developing country to extend this facility to LDCs in 2008. It provided market access to 85% of India’s total tariff lines. It aimed to integrate LDCs into the global trading system and improve their trading opportunities. The scheme was expanded in 2014 providing preferential market access on about 2% of India’s tariff lines to LDCs. India offers 11,506 preferential tariff lines to LDCs of which 10, 991 are duty-free. Of the duty-free tariff lines, 1,129 are agricultural goods and the remaining 9,862 are non-agricultural goods. Key findings of WTO data for 2020:- 85% of India’s tariff lines show a zero utilisation rate compared to 64% by China. Among the remaining, only 8% demonstrate a utilisation rate of above 95% against 17% by China. Noteworthy amounts of LDC exports are entering under non-preferential (most favoured nation) tariff routes into India even though they are covered by the Indian preference scheme. There is a significant variation between the beneficiary LDCs. Guinea and Bangladesh: show the highest amount of eligible imports Benin: reports a utilisation rate of 98%, the highest of all beneficiary countries. Afghanistan: Fruits and nuts worth $325 million exported were entered under the most-favoured-nation (MFN) despite the preference margin of 28 percentage points being offered under the Indian preference scheme. Most-favoured-nation (MFN): treating other people equally. Under the WTO agreements, countries cannot normally discriminate between their trading partners. If a country grants someone a special favour (such as a lower customs duty rate for one of their products), they have to do the same for all other WTO members. This principle is known as most-favoured-nation (MFN) treatment. Chad: exports of mineral fuels, oils and products, etc, of a value of $48 million are entering India under MFN. The World Trade Organization (WTO):- IMAGE SOURCE: slideserve.com The WTO is the international organization whose primary purpose is to open trade for the benefit of all. Objective: to help producers of goods and services, exporters, and importers conduct their business. WTO agreements are negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments. Ministerial Conference: the topmost decision-making body of the WTO is the Ministerial Conference, which usually meets every two years. (UPSCE CSE:12th WTO Ministerial Conference) Historical Background:- The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) traces its origins to the 1944 Bretton Woods Conference, which established two key institutions, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank. An agreement as the GATT signed by 23 countries in Geneva in 1947 came into force on Jan 1, 1948, with the following purposes: To phase out the use of import quotas. to reduce tariffs on merchandise trade. Uruguay Round (1987-1994): culminated in the Marrakesh Agreement, which established the World Trade Organization (WTO). The WTO incorporates the principles of the GATT and provides a more enduring institutional framework for implementing and extending them. The GATT 1994 is an international treaty binding upon all WTO Members. It is only concerned with trade in goods. Members: it has had 164 members since 2016. India is a founding member of WTO. (UPSC CSE: Moratorium on e-commerce trade) WTO is not an UN-specialized agency. It is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations. It is a forum for governments to negotiate trade agreements. It is a place for them to settle trade disputes. It is a place where member governments try to sort out the trade problems they face with each other. MUST READ: Reviving WTO SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Gulf of Mannar Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The Gulf of Mannar became the first Marine Biosphere Reserve in the South East Asia. About the Gulf of Mannar:- IMAGE SOURCE: casmbenvis. nic. in Gulf of Mannar is an inlet of the Indian Ocean, between south-eastern India and western Sri Lanka. It is bounded to the northeast by Rameswaram (island), Adam’s (Rama’s) Bridge (a chain of shoals), and Mannar Island. The gulf receives several rivers, including the Tambraparni (India) and the Aruvi (Sri Lanka). The port of Tuticorin is on the coast. It has been renowned for its highly productive pearl banks and religious significance. The Government of India designated it as the country’s first Marine Biosphere Reserve in 1989. Gulf of Mannar National Park has also been identified as the important Bird Area by BNHS-Birdlife International because of its rich avian fauna. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve has been identified as an Important Marine Mammals