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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 15th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Satavahana Syllabus Prelims – Ancient History Context: Explorers in Telangana recover artefacts which link Cherial village in Siddipet district to Satavahana period About the news: Field researchers have retrieved: several terracotta figurines of dolls, yakshini puppets, etc. pottery shreds of different designs, Colourful stone beads and terracotta beads which were part of ornaments during the Satavahana period. Coin from the Satavahana period. The coin bears the insignia of Ujjain on one side and Brahmi script on the other. Large bricks measuring 14 X 12 X 4 inches and figures of goddesses belong to the Ikshvaku as well as Satavahana periods. About Satavahanas: The Satavahanas came to power in the Deccan area after the decline of Mauryans in the region. The first king of the Satavahana dynasty was Simuka. Most glorious period under Gautamiputra Satkarni. Territorial spread: The Satavahana kingdom majorly comprised present Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Telangana. At times, their rule also included parts of Gujarat, Karnataka as well as Madhya Pradesh. Matronyms: The Satavahana kings used matronyms like Gautamiputra and Vaishishthiputra. This is a unique feature of Satavahana But this does not indicate that they were matriarchal or matrilineal in any sense. Multiple capitals: Two of the capitals were Amaravati and Pratishthana (Paithan). They assumed the title of Dakshinapatha Pati (Lord of Dakshinapatha). Grants: The Satavahanas started the practice of giving royal grants of land to Brahmans and Buddhist monks. For instance, the Karle inscription mentions the grant of Karajika village, near Pune, Maharashtra. Coins: The Satavahanas were the first native Indian kings to have issued their own coins. Gautamiputra Satakarni started this practice. Nahapana coins: Nahapana was a powerful Western Satraps king and the adversary of Gautamiputra Satkarni. Gautamiputa defeated him and more than 800 Nahapana silver coins (found near Nasik) bear the marks of being restruck by the Satavahana king. They mostly issued coins of lead, which is found on the Deccan and also coins of silver, copper and bronze. The coins had the portraits of rulers on them. These coins sometimes had bilingual legends, one side Prakrit and the other side in Tamil, Telugu or Kannada. Language: They patronised Prakrit more than Sanskrit. Sanskrit was rarely used. They used the Brahmi script. Religion: Even though the rulers were Hindus and claimed Brahmanical status, they supported Buddhism They revived Vedic Brahmanism and the corresponding rituals like the Ashvamedha yajna. Polity: The king was at the apex of the administrative hierarchy and considered the guardian of the established social order. The state was divided into aharas, each being governed by a minister called Amatya. The Satavahana kingdom had three grades of feudatories – Raja (who had the right to strike coins), Mahabhoja and Senapati. Art and architecture: Amravati Stupa was constructed by them. Paintings at Ajanta caves 9 and 10 are from Satavahana period. Major inscriptions: The earliest inscriptions of the Satavahans belong to the first century BCE when they defeated the Kanvas and established their power in parts of Central India. Nashik prashasti inscription by Gautami Balashri: It states that the horses of Gautamiputra drank waters of the “three oceans”(Arabian Sea, Bay of Bengal and Indian Ocean). It gives detailed account of Satavahana administration. Karle inscription: It mentions about donation of land to Buddhist monks. Source: Indian Express NOTA Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: In Karnataka elections, AAP receives fewer votes than NOTA. About NOTA: NOTA meaning ‘None of the Above’ options. It was incorporated by the SC through its judgement in People’s Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL) v. Union of India It has been an integral part of the Indian voting system for the past decade. The NOTA option was first used in the 2013 assembly elections held in four states — Chhattisgarh, Mizoram, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh and the Union Territory, Delhi. NOTA enables the voter to officially register a vote of rejection for all candidates who are contesting an election without violation of the secrecy of their decision. If a voter chooses to press NOTA on the EVM, it indicates that the voter has not chosen to vote for any party. Pre-NOTA period: Before NOTA option came into being, there was Section 49 (O) of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, which allowed voters to cast a negative vote. But such a vote was to be verified by the presiding officer. This provision was deemed unconstitutional by the SC as it did not protect the identity and choice of the voter. Under NOTA, the officials cannot find out the reason and the identity of the voter is also protected. In 2018, SC held that the NOTA option is meant only for universal adult suffrage and direct elections. Thus, NOTA is not applicable to Rajya Sabha elections. Issues with NOTA: First past the post system: As per RPA, 1951, the candidate who has polled the largest number of valid votes is to be declared elected by the Returning Officer. Thus, if out of total 10,000 votes, 9999 voters select NOTA option and just one candidate gets a single vote, even then the latter wins from that constituency. No re-election: There has been a debate for re-election to be held in case the total number of NOTA votes crosses a certain percentage. But re-election would lead to wastage of already scarce government resources. No right to recall: Currently, Right To Recall does not exist in the Indian electoral process and this weakens NOTA as the candidates are sure they won’t face any consequences. Limited use: So far, only a small number of Indian voters have come to see NOTA as an instrument of protest. NOTA has its limitations, but it has provided the voters with democratic means of NOTA to express their resentment rather than boycotting the polls outright. NOTA will become a meaningful means of negative voting only if it becomes a ‘right to reject’ rather than being a symbolic instrument to express resentment as it is now. Source:  The Hindu United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF)

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Global Report on Internal Displacement 2023 Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: The Global Report on Internal Displacement 2023 (GRID-2023) stated that in 2022, over 32 million people were displaced by disasters, 98% of which were triggered by weather-related events such as floods and storms. About the publisher: The Global Report on Internal Displacement 2023 (GRID-2023) is published by the Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre (IDMC). IDMC is the world’s leading source of data and analysis on Internal Displacement (ID). IDMC is an international non-governmental organization established in 1998 by the Norwegian Refugee Council in Geneva. It is focused on monitoring and providing information and analysis on the world’s internally displaced persons. About Internal displacement: Internal displacement refers to the situation where people are forced to leave their homes but remain within their country’s borders. Unlike refugees, internally displaced people have not crossed international borders and are not covered by any international convention. India has one of the highest numbers of IDPs in the world. India does not have a national policy or legal framework to deal with refugees or IDPs. India has not ratified the 1951 Convention and 1967 Protocol and does not permit UNHCR access to most refugee groups. Key highlights of the report: Highlights Details Total Number of IDPs Over 71 million IDPs across 110 countries and territories at the end of 2022, a 20% increase in a year Highest displacement Pakistan had the highest number of disaster displacements in the world in 2022, at 8.16 million. It was followed by Philippines and China. Total IDPs in India India recorded the fourth largest disaster displacement, with 2.5 million displacements. Actions needed ·        Unconditional cash assistance for supporting the immediate needs of IDPs; ·        Developing livelihoods and skills for IDPs; ·        Building resilience and preparedness at an individual, community, and national levels; ·        Addressing the impacts of climate change and investing in adaptation measures are crucial to mitigate future displacements   Factors for Internal Displacement: Internal displacement in India arises from secessionist movements, identity-based autonomy movements, localized violence, and environmental disaster and development-induced displacement. In 2022, the Russia-Ukraine caused a displacement of 16.9 million — “the highest figure ever recorded for any country.” The number of displacements associated with conflict and violence nearly doubled to 28.3 million. In recent years, disasters have displaced more people than historically dominant reasons for conflicts and violence. This makes climate change — that leads to frequent weather-related disasters — the key driver of massive internal migration of people, who we popularly call “climate refugees”. As per the report, in 2022, 32.6 million people were displaced due to disasters and 6 out of 10 disaster displacements were triggered by floods. Why is there a sudden increase in such disasters? The prolonged three-year La Niña phenomenon has contributed to the rise in weather-related disasters, especially floods, leading to widespread disasters across the globe. There is also a rise in drought in Eastern Africa which also adds to the displacement. La Niña is the cooler than the normal phase of the El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO) phenomenon in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean. Source:  DTE Positive Indigenisation List Syllabus Prelims – Defence Context: The Union Ministry of Defence (MoD) has approved the fourth and the largest positive indigenisation list of 928 strategically-important Line Replacement Units (LRUs), sub-systems, spares and components, including high-end materials and spares. About Positive Indigenisation List: The list means that defence PSUs cannot import the specified items beyond the timelines indicated against them. These items will be purchased only from domestic manufacturers. The DPSUs will undertake indigenisation of these items through different routes under ‘Make’ category and in-house development through the capabilities of MSMEs and private Indian industry. In the last two years, the defence ministry has brought in three positive indigenisation lists of 351, 107 and 780 items which will have to be procured only from indigenous sources after the timelines mentioned against each item. What is the need for such a list? The fundamental idea is to promote self-reliance in defence while reducing imports of defence items and equipment. This is important as India is one of the largest defence importers globally and the demand for better defence equipment is going to increase in the future given the rising security threats. The DPSUs, MSMEs and private sector would get more opportunities to grow in this sector thereby providing impetus to the growth in economy. Enhanced investment in defence, especially from the private sector would lead to more research in defence technology. The design capabilities of the domestic defence industry would be enhanced by involving academia and research institutions. Source: Indian Express Adopt A Heritage Syllabus Prelims – Indian Art and Culture About ‘Adopt a Heritage’ scheme The ‘Adopt a Heritage: Apni Dharohar, Apni Pehchaan’ scheme is an initiative of the Ministry of Tourism, in collaboration with the Ministry of Culture and the Archaeological Survey of India along with the State/UT governments. Private firms, corporates, NGOs and public sector units can enter into agreements with the Union Ministry of Culture to adopt and maintain State-owned archaeological sites or monuments. It aims to develop synergy among all partners to effectively promote ‘responsible and sustainable tourism’. Agencies/Companies would become ‘Monument Mitras’ through the innovative concept of ‘Vision Bidding’, where the agency with the best vision for the heritage site will be given an opportunity to maintain the monument through their CSR activities. The project primarily focusses on providing basic amenities like cleanliness, public conveniences, drinking water, ease of access for differently abled and senior citizens, and enhanced facilities like surveillance system, night viewing facilities, etc., to provide an enhanced tourism experience. The project began with 93 ASI monuments and has extended to heritage, natural and tourist sites across India, some of which are not protected under ASI currently. Rationale Behind ‘Adopt a Heritage’ Need for amenities: There is a need to develop a robust mechanism for the provision of basic amenities on an immediate basis. Advanced

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Trimbakeshwar Mahadev Temple Syllabus Prelims – Arts and Culture Context: Maharashtra government announced a probe by a Special Investigation Team (SIT) after trustees of the famous Trimbakeshwar Mahadev temple in Nashik district lodged a police complaint, alleging that a group of Muslims forced their way into the temple. IMAGE SOURCE: https://www.mouthshut.com/product-reviews/Trimbakeshwar-Shiva-Temple-Nashik-reviews-925796880 About Trimbakeshwar Mahadev Temple Trimbakeshwar town is an ancient Hindu Pilgrim centre located at the source of the Godavari River, the longest river in peninsular India. Trimbakeshwar is abode of one of the twelve Jyotirlingas. The extraordinary feature of the Jyotirlinga located here is the Linga in the temple is in the form of a three faced embodying Tridev, Lord Bramha, Lord Vishnu and Lord Shiva. The present Trimbakeshwar temple was constructed by third Peshwa Balaji Bajirao (1740-1760) on the site of an old temple. There are entry gates on all the four sides, viz. East, West, South and North. As per spiritual conceptions the direction East denotes the beginning, West denotes maturity, south denotes fulfillment or completion and the North stands for the revelation. In the year 1954 the Sansthan was registered under public trust registration act. Shri Trimbakeshwar Sansthan takes care of daily three-time pooja, all the festivals and gala carnivals of the year. MUST READ: Twelve Jyotirlingas SOURCE: Indian Express PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about Somnath Temple: It is believed to be the first among the twelve jyotirlinga shrines of Shiva. The present temple was reconstructed in the Chalukya style of Hindu temple architecture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Geko Mizoramensis Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: A team of biologists has recorded the  Gekko Mizoramensis as a new species of parachute gecko, so named because of skin flaps along the body and tail enabling it to glide. IMAGESOURCE:https://akm-img-a-in.tosshub.com/indiatoday/images/story/202305/parachute_gecko_0-sixteen_nine.jpg?VersionId=JmD2zbue_V8xocfFehFAgBqk_5Qsf9R_&size=690:388 About Gekko mizoramensis Distribution: The species is found in Southeast Asia. It is specifically found in Mizoram, a region in India, as well as parts of Bangladesh, Myanmar, Thailand, and Cambodia. Gekko Mizoramensis is arboreal, meaning it primarily inhabits trees. It is nocturnal, being most active during the night. The gecko has the ability to glide from one tree to another, aided by its webbed limbs and flat tail. However, it does not possess the capability to fly. SOURCE: The Hindu PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Why is a plant called Prosopis Juliflora often mentioned in the news? Its extract is widely used in cosmetics. It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows. Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides None of the above London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has asked banks and financial institutions to adopt the Secured Overnight Financing Rate (SOFR), to complete the transition from the scandal-hit London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR) and Mumbai Interbank Forward Outright Rate (MIFOR). About LIBOR LIBOR, the acronym for London Interbank Offer Rate, is the global reference rate for unsecured short-term borrowing in the interbank market. It acts as a benchmark for short-term interest rates. It is used for pricing of interest rate swaps, currency rate swaps as well as mortgages. It is an indicator of the health of the financial system and provides an idea of the trajectory of impending policy rates of central banks. LIBOR is administered by the Intercontinental Exchange or ICE. It is computed for five currencies with seven different maturities ranging from overnight to a year. The five currencies for which LIBOR is computed are Swiss Franc, Euro, Pound Sterling, Japanese Yen and US Dollar. The London Interbank Offered Rate and the Mumbai Interbank Forward Outright Rate would cease to be a representative benchmark from June 30, 2023. In 2017, the U.S. Federal Reserve announced the Secured Overnight Financing Rate (SOFR) as a preferred alternative. Accordingly, in India, new transactions were to be undertaken using the SOFR and the Modified Mumbai Interbank Forward Outright Rate (MMIFOR), replacing MIFOR. Secured Overnight Financing Rate (SOFR) SOFR is the main replacement for LIBOR in the United States. This benchmark is based on the rates U.S. financial institutions pay each other for overnight loans. These transactions take the form of Treasury bond repurchase agreements, otherwise known as repos agreements. They allow banks to meet liquidity and reserve requirements, using Treasurys as collateral. SOFR comprises the weighted averages of the rates charged in these repo transactions. SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS Khasi Tribe Syllabus Prelims: Demographics Context A tribal council’s order not to issue a Scheduled Tribe (ST) certificate to any Khasi person who adopts the surname of her or his father has triggered a war of words in matrilineal Meghalaya. About Khasi Tribe The Khasis are one of the three indigenous matrilineal communities in the north-eastern State. The other two are Garos and Jaintias. The Khasis inhabit the eastern part of Meghalaya, in the Khasi and Jaintia Hills. Khasis residing in Jaintia hills are now better known as Jaintias. They are also called The Khasis occupying the northern lowlands and foothills are generally called Bhois. The Khasi people are an indigenous ethnic group of Meghalaya in north-eastern India with a significant population in the bordering state of Assam, and in certain parts of Bangladesh. The Khasi people form the majority of the population of the eastern part of Meghalaya, and is the state’s largest community, with around 48% of the population of Meghalaya. Constitutional Status: Under the Constitution of India, the Khasis have been granted the status of Scheduled Tribe. Social Structure: They are among the few Austroasiatic-speaking peoples in South Asia. The Khasis, the Jaintias and the Garos have a matrilineal society. Earlier in the conservative Jaintia non-Christian families, however, the father only visits the family in the night and is not responsible for the maintenance of the family. Inheritance: Khasis follow a matrilineal system of inheritance. In the Khasi society, it is only the youngest daughter or “KaKhadduh” who is eligible to

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th May 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) WPI and CPI Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: WPI slips into negative territory for the first time in three years, falls -0.92% in April About the news: The decline in the rate of inflation in the month of April is primarily contributed by the fall in prices of basic metals, food products, mineral oils, textiles, non-food articles, chemical and chemical products, rubber and plastic products, and paper products. The country’s WPI inflation has been easing continuously for the last 11 months. The depreciation in WPI is in line with the decline of retail inflation, based on the Consumer Price Index (CPI), which eased to an 18-month low of 4.7 percent in April. What is WPI? The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is an index necessary for calculating inflation in a country. Released by: The Office of the Economic Adviser, Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry of Commerce & Industry. It measures the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses. But the general public does not buy products at wholesale price. So, it is not useful for calculating market prices of goods for common people. It is the most widely used inflation indicator in India. The base year of All-India WPI has been revised from 2004-05 to 2011-12 in 2017. WPI vs CPI Parameters WPI CPI Indicates average change in prices of commodities at the wholesale level. average change in the prices of commodities at the retail level. Prices paid by Manufacturers and dealers Consumers Goods & Services Only goods are covered Goods and services both are covered Released by Office of Economic Advisor (Ministry of Commerce & Industry) ·       National Statistical Office (NSO) (Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation) calculates CPI (Rural/Urban/Combined) ·       Labour Bureau calculates CPI for Industrial Workers (IW), Agricultural Labour (AL) and Rural Labour (RL). Types of Commodities covered Manufacturing inputs and intermediate goods like minerals, machinery basic metals, etc. Education, transportation, recreation, apparel, foods and beverages, housing and medical care Base year 2011-12 2012 Note: CPI is chosen by RBI as the key indicator of inflation and is more important in policy making. Source:  NewsOnAir Eretmoptera murphyi Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Eretmoptera murphyi, a tiny flightless insect has come to be an invasive species in Antarctica and is now changing the soil composition and ecosystem there. Animals and plants that are unintentionally or purposefully brought into a natural setting where they are not typically present and have severe negative effects on their new ecosystem are referred to as invasive alien species. About Eretmoptera murphyi It is a native of South Georgia, a sub-Antarctic Island. It is a midge i.e., small insects which bite It was accidentally introduced to Signy Island in the 1960s during a botany experiment. It is believed that people might have carried the insects on their shoes accidentally. Given the favorable conditions, it flourished there later. Eretmoptera murphyi feasts on dead organic matter. This has led to faster decomposition of plant materials which led to increase in the soil nitrate levels by three-five times compared to places on the island where it is absent and only native invertebrate species live. High levels of nitrate can: Be toxic for other plant species, contaminate groundwater. lead to excessive algae growth, which can deplete oxygen levels and harm aquatic life. (eutrophication) Concerns: The midge invasion highlights that even harsh conditions can no longer protect Antarctica from the threat of invasive species. The midge can also survive in water, which raises concerns that it could spread to other islands. The activity of the midges, along with climate change, may also create conditions for other invasive species to become established and accelerate the effects of climate change. Source:   DTE Samudra Shakti-23 Syllabus Prelims – Defence Context: The 4th edition of INDIA-INDONESIA BILATERAL EXERCISE SAMUDRA SHAKTI – 23 commenced recently. About Exercise: In pursuance of India’s Act East Policy, Exercise ‘Samudra Shakti’ was conceived in 2018 as a bilateral Indian Navy-Indonesian Navy exercise. The exercise aims to strengthen the bilateral relationship, enhance mutual understanding and interoperability in maritime operations between the two navies. India’s Participation: INS Kavaratti: India’s indigenously designed & built Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) stealth corvette is the main highlight. It is one of the 4 corvettes built under Project 28 (Kamorta class). The other three are INS Kamorta, INS Kadmatt and INS Kiltan. An Indian Navy Dornier Maritime Patrol aircraft and Chetak helicopter is also participating Other Exercises with Indonesia: Garuda Shakti (Military Exercise) IND-INDO CORPAT (Maritime Exercise) Source: PIB Unique Economic Offender Code Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The government plans to introduce a new mechanism whereby companies and individuals accused of economic offences will be assigned a unique code called the ‘Unique Economic Offender Code’. About Unique Economic Offender Code: The code will be alpha-numeric and system-generated. It will be issued once the police or central investigative agency sends the data about an offender to the National Economic Offence Records (NEOR). It will be specific to each offender and will be linked with his/her Aadhaar number in the case of an individual or PAN in the case of a company. Under NEOR, this codification will provide a 360-degree profile of the economic offender and their record. What is the benefit from such a classification? With this mechanism, multi-agency probes will be launched against individuals or companies swiftly. Authorities from different agencies won’t have to wait for chargesheets to be filed by one agency before starting a probe. What is the National Economic Offence Records (NEOR)? NEOR is a central repository of all economic offences. It will share data related to each economic offender with all central and state intelligence and enforcement agencies. The Central Economic Intelligence Bureau has been given the task of coordinating and completing the NEOR project with the help of the National Informatics Centre (NIC). Once completed, all data from central and state agencies will be migrated to the national repository using the

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Nutrient Based Subsidy Scheme Syllabus Prelims -Economy Context: Cabinet Approves revision in Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) rates for RABI Season, 2022-23 and for KHARIF Season, 2023 on Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) fertilizers About Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Scheme The Nutrient Based Subsidy Scheme provides subsidies for all non-urea-based fertilizers. Under the NBS regime – fertilizers are provided to the farmers at the subsidized rates based on the nutrients (N, P, K & S) contained in these fertilizers. Also, the fertilizers which are fortified with secondary and micronutrients such as molybdenum (Mo) and zinc are given additional subsidy. The subsidy on P&K fertilizers is announced by the Government on an annual basis for each nutrient on a per kg basis for Rabi and Kharif seasons. The subsidy on P&K fertilizers is being governed by NBS Scheme since 2010. It is being implemented by the Department of Fertilizers, Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers. Significance of the NBS Scheme It will have the the two-fold benefit of ensuring availability of DAP and other P&K fertilizers to farmers at subsidized, affordable and reasonable prices and will also   ensure rationalization of subsidy on P&K fertilizers . Balanced nutrient availability will improve soil health which in turn enhances yield of crops resulting in increased income to the farmers. Concerns Related with NBS Scheme Imbalanced Price and Deteriorating Soil Health: All Non-Urea based fertilisers are regulated under NBS Scheme however on the other hand the prices of other on regulated fertilizers have gone up. This led to the more application of subsidised urea fertilizers on soil lead to soil nutrient imbalance. Costs of Subsidies: Fertilizer subsidies are the second-largest subsidy after food subsidies. Thus it leads to fiscal imbalances of budgets Diversion: Subsidized urea is being diverted to large purchasers, traders, or even non-agricultural consumers like plywood manufacturers and producers of animal feed. The government loses around Rs 6,000 crore annually due to illegal diversion of highly subsidised urea for industrial use. It has also been diverted to neighbouring countries like Bangladesh and Nepalthat leads to enhenaced border related crimes such as black marketing. Environmental Pollution: The compounded harmful effects of imbalanced fertilizer use are not only intensifying soil and atmospheric pollution but also impacting water bodies (eutrophication) and causing threat to biodiversity and human health. MUST READ: Soil Health https://iasbaba.com/2022/12/soil-health/ SOURCE: PIB https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1924767 PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider the following statements: (2020) At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not administered by the Government. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas. Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the (2015) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture. Agricultural Produce Market Committee South Asia Gas Enterprise Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context:  An undersea UAE-Gujarat gas pipeline proposed that connects Middle East with India. About the Gas Pipeline Project A $5-billion, undersea UAE-Gujarat gas pipeline proposed, 2,000-km-long energy corridor connecting Middle East and India, a $5 billion project, can lead to an annual saving of about `7,000 crore in comparison with similar quantity of liquefied natural gas (LNG) import. South Asia Gas Enterprise (SAGE), an international consortium of companies in deepwater pipeline projects, has sought the support of ministry of petroleum and others to develop an undersea gas pipeline from Gulf to India. The proposed 2,000-km-long energy corridor connecting Middle East and India, a $5 billion project, can lead to an annual saving of about `7,000 crore in comparison with similar quantity of liquefied natural gas (LNG) import. About SAGE South Asia Gas Enterprise Private Limited is a Private incorporated on 21 November 2005. It is classified as Non-govt company and is registered at Registrar of Companies, Delhi. It is promoted by the New Delhi based Siddho Mal Group, in Joint Venture with a UK-based Deepwater Technology Company. SAGE is working with a Global Consortium of some of the most reputed companies in the field of Deepwater Pipelines, to create a Multi-Billion Dollar “Energy Corridor” that can transport gas from the Middle East to India, bypassing the land route through Pakistan. Significance of the project The proposed 2,000-km energy corridor connecting the Middle East and India will lead to an annual saving of about Rs 70 billion ($849.60 million). The route will run via Oman and UAE through the Arabian Sea, allowing import from Oman, UAE, Saudi Arabia, Iran, Turkmenistan and Qatar, a region with 2,500 trillion cubic feet of gas reserves. Qatar, Iran, Iraq and Turkmenistan together have enormous Natural Gas reserves to the tune of 2,000 trillion cubic feet (TCF) and SAGE plans to transport some of this to India through its Deepwater Pipeline Infrastructure. Dialogue and discussions with the above-mentioned countries are on at the Highest Levels. The option of Gas Swaps between these nations is also being explored. In addition, SAGE also plans to supply Natural Gas to Oman/ UAE on its Pipeline Route to India, and seeks to further build Cooperative Relations with the friendly Gulf and Middle East countries. MUST READ: TAPI Gas Pipeline Project https://iasbaba.com/2022/01/india-central-asia-summit/ SOURCE: The Financial Express https://www.financialexpress.com/industry/5-billion-undersea-uae-gujarat-gas-pipeline-proposed/3089046/ Kishtwar High Altitude National Park Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Snow Leopards spotted in Jammu & Kashmir’s Kishtwar National Park. The presence of the elusive snow leopards in Jammu and Kashmir’s Kishtwar High Altitude National Park has been confirmed by a research team of Department of Wildlife Protection through camera trap. Attributed as one of the seven snow leopard reserves under a project launched by Central Government, the Kishtwar High Altitude National Park lies in Doda District, about 40km north-east of Kishtwar Town. The park was established to conserve the snow leopard species, its prey populations and its fragile mountain habitat. Spread over an area of 400 sq km the park was declared a national park on 4 February

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Right to Assembly Syllabus Prelims: Indian Constitution  Context: The Andhra Pradesh High Court has set aside a Government Order (GO) issued by the Andhra Pradesh government that sought to regulate public meetings, processions, and assemblies on roads, highways, and streets. About Right to Assembly -Article 19(1) (b) The right to assemble peaceably and without arms is provided under Article 19(1) (b) of the Indian Constitution. Every citizen has the right to assemble peaceably and without arms. It includes the right to hold public meetings, demonstrations and take out processions. This freedom can be exercised only on public land and the assembly must be peaceful and unarmed. This provision does not protect violent, disorderly, riotous assemblies, or one that causes breach of public peace or one that involves arms. The purpose of organising a gathering or meeting is to spread ideas and educate the public. As a result, the right to peaceful assembly follows naturally from the right to free speech and expression. Restrictions: Article 19(3) impose restrictions on the exercise of the right to freedom of assembly. According to Article 19(3), the state can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of right of assembly on two grounds, namely, Sovereignty and integrity of India and Public order including the maintenance of traffic in the area concerned. Apart from this, section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code empowers a magistrate to impose restrictions on assembly, meeting, or procession if there is a possibility of obstruction, annoyance, or danger to human life, health, and safety, or a disturbance of public tranquillity or riot or an affray. MUST READ: Fundamental Rights (https://iasbaba.com/2020/05/mind-maps-fundamental-rights-part-1-general-studies-2/) SOURCE: Indian Express https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/andhra-hc-government-order-struck-down-processions-8616123/ PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement? (2018) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution Corporate Debt Market Development Fund Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: SEBI has introduced the Corporate Debt Market Development Fund, a backstop facility for specified debt funds during market dislocations. About Corporate Debt Market Development Fund Corporate Debt Market Development Fund is a form of an Alternative Investment Fund (AIF). It will be backstop facility for the purchase of investment grade corporate debt securities in times of stress or in case of market dislocation. The purpose of this fund is to bring about confidence in corporate bond market and boost secondary market liquidity. The fund will have a corpus of ₹3,000 crore, of which ₹2,700 crore will come from mutual fund debt schemes. The corporate bond backstop fund will have 10x leverage and a sovereign guarantee. The contribution will also be made by the specified debt-oriented mutual fund schemes and asset management companies of mutual funds towards building the initial corpus of the CDMDF. Access to the fund will be limited to specified mutual fund schemes in proportion to the contribution made to the fund at a mutual fund level. The SEBI board has approved the framework for triggering CDMDF’s asset purchases during market dislocation. CDMDF, based on a guarantee to be provided by the National Credit Guarantee Trust Company (NCGTC) may raise funds, for the purchase of corporate debt securities during market dislocation. The move will instill confidence among corporate bond market participants and generally enhance secondary market liquidity. Backstop facility A backstop is an act of providing last-resort support or security in a securities offering for the unsubscribed portion of shares. When a company is trying to raise capital through an issuance, it may get a backstop from an underwriter or a major shareholder, such as an investment bank, to buy any of its unsubscribed shares. MUST READ: Alternate Investment Fund (https://iasbaba.com/2023/01/alternate-investment-fund-and-credit-default-swap/) SOURCE: The Hindu Business line https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/markets/new-backstop-fund-mooted-to-bail-out-mf-debt-schemes-in-distress/article66676446.ece PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2017) It is an organ of NITI Aayog. It has a corpus of Rs 4,00,000 crore at present. Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Institute Of Cost Accountants of India Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The Delhi High Court has restrained the Institute of Cost Accountants of India from using the acronym ICAI after the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India moved a trademark infringement lawsuit. About Institute of Cost Accountants of India. The Institute of Cost Accountants of India was established by an Act of Parliament, the Cost and Works Accountant Act, 1959. The institute was formed with the objectives of promoting, regulating and developing profession of cost accountancy in India It is under the administrative control of Ministry of Cooperate Affairs. The Institute is a founder member of International Federation of Accountants, Confederation of Asian and Pacific Accountants and South Asian Federation of Accountants. About Institute of Chartered Accountants of India It is a statutory body established under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 for the regulation of the profession of Chartered Accountancy in India. It is the only licensing cum regulating body of the financial audit and accountancy profession in India. It recommends the accounting standards to be followed by companies in India to National Advisory Committee on Accounting Standards (NACAS). The institute has achieved recognition as a premier accounting body in the fields of education, professional development, maintenance of high accounting, auditing and ethical standards. In India, accounting standards and auditing standards are recommended by the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) to the Government of India which sets the Standards on Auditing (SAs) to be followed in the audit of financial statements in India. Membership: Members of the Institute are known as Chartered Accountants (CA). Becoming a member requires passing the prescribed examinations, three

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) National AYUSH Mission Syllabus Prelims : Centrally Sponsored Schemes Context: Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya delivered the inaugural address at the National AYUSH Mission Conclave organized by Ministry of AYUSH. About National AYUSH Mission National AYUSH Mission is a Centraly Sponsored Scheme under the Ministry of AYUSH.  Government of India has launched National AYUSH Mission (NAM) in 2014. The aims of NAM are to main-stream AYUSH Systems into health care services, to develop evidence-based AYUSH management protocol through scientific documentation and to ensure the accessibility of quality AYUSH services. Funding pattern:  60% share is provided by the Central Government and 40% is provided by the State Government. Structure State level: NAM is functioning under State AYUSH Health Society which is regulated by a Governing Body with Chief Secretary as Chairperson and Secretary, AYUSH as Member Secretary. The Executive Committee under this society, with Secretary, AYUSH as Chairperson and State Mission Director (SMD), NAM as Member Secretary, is managing routine activities. NAM has State Program Management and Supporting Unit (SPMSU) functioning under State Mission Director who is an IAS officer. State level functions are co-ordinated by two State Program Managers, one each from Ayurveda and Homoeopathy. District level: District Program Management and Supporting Unit (DPMSU) is managed by District Program Managers (DPM). In the Governing Body of District AYUSH Health Society, President of concerned District Panchayath is the Chairperson & District Collector is the Co-chairperson and DPM NAM is the Member Secretary. Executive Committee of District AYUSH Health Society is chaired by District Collector and NAM DPM is the Member Secretary. Objectives To provide cost effective AYUSH Services, with a universal access through upgrading AYUSH Hospitals and Dispensaries, co-location of AYUSH facilities at Primary Health Centres (PHCs), Community Health Centres (CHCs) and District Hospitals (DHs). To strengthen institutional capacity at the state level through upgrading AYUSH educational institutions, State Govt. ASU&H Pharmacies, Drug Testing Laboratories and ASU & H enforcement mechanism. Support cultivation of medicinal plants by adopting Good Agricultural Practices (GAPs) so as to provide sustained supply of quality raw-materials and support certification mechanism for quality standards, Good Agricultural/Collection/Storage Practices. Support setting up of clusters through convergence of cultivation, warehousing, value addition and marketing and development of infrastructure for entrepreneurs. Components of the Mission Mandatory Components AYUSH Services. AYUSH Educational Institutions. Quality Control of ASU&H (Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani & Homoeopathy) Drugs. Medicinal Plants. Flexible Component AYUSH Wellness Centres comprising Yoga and Naturopathy Tele-medicine Innovations in AYUSH including Public Private Partnership IEC (Information, Education and Communication) activities Voluntary certification scheme: Project based, etc. MUST READ : AYUSH Health and Wellness Centers (HWC) https://iasbaba.com/2020/03/ayush-wellness-centre-to-come-under-nam/ SOURCE: PIB https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1925182 Green Deposits and the Regulatory Framework Syllabus Prelims: Economy Context: Recently, the Reserve Bank of India came up with a regulatory framework for banks to accept green deposits from customers. About Green Deposits A green deposit is a fixed-term deposit for investors looking to invest their surplus cash reserves in environmentally friendly projects. This new offering in the market indicates the increased awareness of the importance of ESG (Environmental, social and governance) and sustainable investing. Green deposits are not very different from the regular deposits that banks accept from their customers. The only major difference is that banks promise to earmark the money that they receive as green deposits towards environment-friendly projects. For example, a bank may promise that green deposits will be used towards financing renewable energy projects that fight climate change.  A green deposit is just one product in a wide array of other financial products such as green bonds that help investors put money into environmentally sustainable projects. Regulatory Framework The RBI’s framework for the acceptance of green deposits lays down certain conditions that banks must fulfill to accept green deposits from customers. Banks will have to come up with a set of rules or policies approved by their respective Boards that need to be followed while investing green deposits from customers. The RBI has come up with a list of sectors that can be classified as sustainable and thus eligible to receive green deposits. These include renewable energy, waste management, clean transportation, energy efficiency, and afforestation. Banks will be barred from investing green deposits in business projects involving fossil fuels, nuclear power, tobacco, gambling, palm oil and hydropower generation. The new rules are aimed at preventing greenwashing, which refers to making misleading claims about the positive environmental impact of an activity. The framework applies to all scheduled commercial banks and small finance banks (except for regional rural banks and local area banks) and non-banking finance companies (including housing finance companies). Both corporate and individual customers can invest in green deposits. MUST READ: Green Washing https://iasbaba.com/2022/11/greenwashing/ SOURCE: The Hindu https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/explained-what-are-rbi-regulations-on-green-deposits/article66866265.ece PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q.1)  Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing:”? Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound. Non-Inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country. Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development. Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme. Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) Syllabus Prelims : Economy Context : The Central Government, in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India amended rules under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, bringing in international credit card spends outside India under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS). About Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) In 2004, the Committee on Procedures and Performance Audit on Public Services (‘CPPAPS’) recommended a scheme for liberalising personal outward remittances in India. The same year, RBI introduced the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (‘LRS’), allowing Indian residents to make individual foreign exchange transactions with relative ease. LRS allows Indian residents to freely remit up to USD $250,000 per financial year for current or capital account transactions or a combination of both. Any remittance exceeding this limit requires prior permission from the RBI. Only individual Indian residents are permitted to remit funds under LRS. Corporates, partnership firms, HUF, trusts, etc are excluded from its ambit. However, it is

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Forum for India–Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) Summit 2023 Syllabus Prelims : International Relations Context: Recently, Prime Minister of India attended Forum for India–Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) Summit in Papua New Guinea. About Forum for India–Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC ) Summit Forum for India-Pacific Islands cooperation is a multinational grouping developed in 2014 for cooperation between India and 14 Pacific Islands nations. FIPIC consists of Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, Marshall Islands, Federated States of Micronesia, Nauru, Niue, Samoa, Solomon Islands, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Tonga, Tuvalu and Vanuatu. India established the Forum for FIPIC as a part of the Act East Policy. Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Fiji convened FIPIC’s inaugural gathering in 2014. All 14 countries actively participated in this landmark event. In 2015, the second meeting of the forum was held in Jaipur, with the participation of all 14 countries. Third summit of India-Pacific Islands Co-operation (FIPIC Summit 2023) held at Port Moresby was jointly hosted with Papua New Guinea. Prime minister of India co- chaired the summit with PM of Papua New Guinea. On this occasion, Prime Minister of India unveiled a comprehensive 12-step initiative aimed at advancing India’s collaborations with the countries in the Pacific region. India’s development partnership with Pacific Island Countries (PICs) encompasses various areas, such as infrastructure development, with a particular emphasis on education, health, and culture. Additionally, community development projects have involved initiatives such as refurbishing libraries and school buildings, renovating colleges, providing IT infrastructure to educational institutions, and establishing digital libraries. Act East Policy The Act East Policy launched in November 2014, is considered to be an upgrade of the Look East Policy. India’s Act East Policy focuses on the extended neighbourhood in the Asia-Pacific region. The Objective of ”Act East Policy” is to promote economic cooperation, cultural ties and develop strategic relationship with countries in the Asia-Pacific region. Act East Policy (AEP) provides an interface between North East India including the state of Arunachal Pradesh and the ASEAN region. Various plans at bilateral and regional levels include steady efforts to develop and strengthen connectivity of Northeast with the ASEAN region through trade, culture, people-to-people contacts and physical infrastructure (road, airport, telecommunication, power, etc.). Some of the major projects include Kaladan Multi-modal Transit Transport Project, the India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway Project, Rhi-Tiddim Road Project, Border Haats, etc. MUST READ: ASEAN SOURCE: The Hindu https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/pm-modi-underlines-importance-of-free-and-open-indo-pacific-at-fipic-summit-in-papua-new-guinea/article66879690.ece. PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION  Q1. With reference to the “Look East Policy” of India, consider the following statements India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in East Asian affairs. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of the Cold War. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbours in Southeast and East Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Koundinya Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims : Environment Context:  A three-day Jumbo census in Seshachalam hills, Koundinya Wildlife Sanctuary hints at sizeable presence of Jumbos in the region. About Koundinya Wildlife Sanctuary Kaundinya Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary and an elephant reserve situated in Andhra Pradesh, India. It is the only sanctuary in Andhra Pradesh with a population of Asian elephants, which migrated after 200 years from neighboring regions. This Sanctuary comes under Project elephant – a Country wide Elephant Conservation Project taken up by Government of India. The Sanctuary also has many places of attraction around it. Forest Type: Southern tropical dry deciduous forest, with patches of thorn, scrub and grassy plains. Flora: Plants like Albizzia amara, Ficus glomerata, Zizyphus xylocarpus, Gymnosporia Montana, etc; make this a green panoramic place with a breathtaking floral diversity. Fauna: Insects like Gongylus praying mantis, Painted grasshopper, Plain tiger butterfly, Common grass yellow butterfly, etc; abound this elephant land. Reptiles like Common cobra, Rat snake, Indian rock python, Forest calotes, Skinks, etc; make this place their abode. Birds like Partidges, quails, storks, Cotton teal, etc; make this Sanctuary their domicile. A further balance in the food-web is maintained by mammals like Indian Elephant, Panther, Sloth bear, Wild boar, Chowsingha, Nilgai, Hyena, Jackal, etc. MUST READ: Asian Elephants SOURCE : The Hinduhttps://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/jumbo-census-in-seshachalam-hills-koundinya-wildlife-sanctuary-hints-at-sizeable-presence/article66870607.ece. PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Consider the following pairs: (2013) Nokrek Biosphere Reserve : Garo Hills Logtak (Loktak) Lake : Barail Range Namdapha National Park : Dafla Hills Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 None Q2.From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats? (2017)  Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve  Nallamala Forest Nagarhole National Park  Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve Deputy Chief Minister Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: D K Shivakumar was sworn in as Deputy Chief Minister (CM) of Karnataka. About Post of Deputy CM Articles 163-164 deals with Council of Ministers (CoM) in states. Article 163(1) of the Constitution says, “There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advice the Governor in the exercise of his functions”. Article 164 (1) says “there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions.” Hence, neither Article 163 nor Article 164 mentions a Deputy Chief Minister. Therefore, the post of Deputy CM is understood as being equivalent in rank to that of Cabinet Minister (in the state). The Deputy CM enjoys the same pay and perks as a Cabinet Minister. Ten other states in the country (besides Karnataka) currently have Deputy CMs. Perhaps the first Deputy CM in India was Anugrah Narayan Sinha. He was served as the Deputy Chief Minister cum Finance Minister from the time of the first Congress Ministry of Bihar in 1937 till his death on 5 July 1957. SOURCE: The Indian Express https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-politics/dk-shivakumar-deputy-cm-post-explained-8621053/ PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. With reference to the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: (2022) As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd May 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 24th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC) Syllabus     Prelims: Geography Context: Iranian President Ebrahim Raisi and his Russian counterpart Vladimir Putin have signed an agreement to finalize the construction of the Rasht (Iranian city on Caspian Sea)-Astara (Azerbaijan) railway, which is expected to boost the International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC). About International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC): International North-South Transport Corridor is a multi modal transportation established in 2000 for promoting transportation and cooperation among the Member States. Russia, India and Iran signed preliminary agreements to develop the 7,200-km-long International North-South Transport Corridor (NSTC) in 2002. Three years later, Azerbaijan signed up for the project. This agreement was eventually ratified by 13 countries — India, Russia, Iran, Azerbaijan, Belarus, Bulgaria, Armenia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Oman, Tajikistan, Turkey and Ukraine. The ambitious trade corridor seeks to link Russia’s Baltic Sea coast to India’s western ports in the Arabian Sea through Azerbaijan and Iran. The corridor encompasses sea, road and rail routes. India’s Interest: India’s interest in the development of the INSTC is manifested by its $2.1 billion investments, including the construction of the port of Chabahar in Iran and the construction of a 500 km Chabahar-Zahedan railway line. Chabahar is now capable of processing ultra-large container ships. For India, the INSTC opens the way for trading with Iran and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan. This, naturally, has implications in terms of reaching out to both Afghanistan and Central Asia, significant corners in our extended neighbourhood. The corridor will also provide access to potential markets in the wider Eurasia region. MUST READ: Chabahar Port (UPSC Prelims) SOURCE: The Hindu PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India? (2017) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase. India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened. India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India. Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus     Prelims: Environment Context: The first-ever sighting of Barkudia limbless skink (Barkudiamelanostica), a small reptile has been reported at the Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary. About Barkudia limbless skink: Barkudia limbless skink is a small reptile. It is fossorial in nature, is characterised by its elongated body, muddy brown colouration, and absence of limbs, a unique adaptation to its environment. This species is listed as Critically Endangered in theIUCN Red List of Threatened Species. Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary: The Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary is an important protected area located near Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh. The sanctuary is named after the local hillock, Kambalakonda, and is home to a number of rare and endangered species, including the Indian leopard. The Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary is a dry deciduous forest with meadows and scrub. The forest is surrounded by the Gambheeram reservoir on the northeast and the Simhachalam hill range on the west. These unique physical features create a unique microclimate that supports the survival and growth of various species of plants and animals. SOURCE: The Hindu PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1. From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats? (2017)  Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve  Nallamala Forest Nagarhole National Park Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve Thirukkural Syllabus      Prelims – Indian Culture Context: PM Modi releases Tamil classic ‘Thirukkural’ in Tok Pisin language. Tok Pisin is the official language of Papua New Guinea. About Thirukkural: Tirukkural, (Tamil: “Sacred Couplets”) also called Kural. It is the most celebrated of the Patiren-kirkkanakku (“Eighteen Ethical Works”) in Tamil literature and a work that has had an immense influence on Tamil culture and life. It is attributed to the poet Tiruvalluvar, who is thought to have lived in India in the 6th century. The traditional accounts describe it as the last work of the third Sangam, but linguistic analysis suggests a later date of 450 to 500 CE and that it was composed after the Sangam period. It has 133 sections of 10 couplets each are divided into three books: aram (virtue), porul (government and society), and kamam (love). Important Messages of Thirukural: It is considered one of the greatest works on ethics and morality, it is known for its universality and secular nature. The first section opens with praise of God, rain, renunciation, and a life of virtue. It then presents a world-affirming vision, the wisdom of human sympathy that expands from one’s family and friends to one’s clan, village, and country. The porul section projects a vision of an ideal state and relates good citizenship to virtuous private life. The kamam section addresses both “secret love” and married love; The section on married love is written as a dialogue between husband and wife. It emphasizes non-violence and moral vegetarianism as virtues for an individual. It highlights truthfulness, self-restraint, gratitude, hospitality, kindness, goodness of wife, duty, giving, and so forth. Besides covering a wide range of social and political topics such as king, ministers, taxes, justice, forts, war, greatness of army and soldier’s honor, death sentence for the wicked, agriculture, education, abstinence from alcohol and intoxicants. It also includes chapters on friendship, love, sexual union, and domestic life MUST READ: Sangam Age (UPSC Mains – Sangam Age) SOURCE: The Hindu PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct? (2022)  Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture. The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets. Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethic. Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational. Fortified Rice Syllabus     Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Government will supply 35 million tonne (MT) of iron fortified rice to the 800 million beneficiaries under the National Food Security Act (NFSA) by March 31, 2024. Additionally 3.4 MT of fortified rice will be supplied to 83 million beneficiaries under the social sector programme such as Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and PM Poshan

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Ordinance 2023: Syllabus     Prelims: Polity Context: Recently, the central government promulgated an Ordinance that undid the unanimous verdict of a five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court had earlier ruled that the government of National Capital Territory of Delhi has legislative and executive power over administrative services in the National Capital, excluding matters relating to public order, police and land. The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Ordinance 2023: The President promulgated the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Ordinance 2023 that took away the power of the Delhi government over services. Instead, the lieutenant governor (LG), an official appointed by the central government was given the final say on the question of transfers and postings of bureaucrats in the Delhi government. The ordinance established a statutory body, the National Capital Civil Services Authority, to decide on issues concerning the transfer and posting of bureaucrats. The authority comprises the chief minister (CM), the chief secretary, and the principal home secretary of the government of the national capital territory of Delhi, which means that the decision of the elected CM can be vetoed or overruled by two senior unelected bureaucrats. The 2023 ordinance was promulgated in the wake of the unanimous judgment passed by the Constitution bench of the Supreme Court (SC) on May 11, holding that the democratically elected government of Delhi, rather than the LG, should exercise control over services in Delhi. Thus, other than the constitutionally mandated exceptions of land, police, and public order, the five-judge bench held that the elected Delhi government had final legislative and co-extensive executive power over issues of transfer and posting of the bureaucrats. The rationale behind the court’s judgment was that an elected government must be able to control and hold to account the civil service officers posted in its services, since they “play a decisive role in the implementation of government policy.”  Promulgation of Ordinance; Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President of India to promulgate Ordinances. President can promulgate ordinance at any time when both Houses of Parliament are not in session (recess of Parliament) , the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him/her to take immediate action, he/she may promulgate such Ordinances as the circumstances appear to him/her to require. These ordinances have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament but are in the nature of temporary laws. The ordinance can only be promulgated on those subjects on which Parliament is empowered to legislate, that is, the Union list or Concurrent list. An ordinance is subject to the same constitutional limitations as an Act of Parliament. Hence, an ordinance cannot abridge or take away any of the fundamental rights. Every ordinance issued must be laid before both the Houses of Parliament within six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament and it ceases to exist if it is not approved within six weeks of reassembly. Whenever a Bill seeking to replace an ordinance is introduced in the House, a statement explaining the circumstances that had necessitated immediate legislation through ordinance route should also be placed before the House. After the ordinance has been passed, it is required to be approved by the parliament within six weeks of reassembling. The same will cease to operate if disapproved by either House. The 44th Constitutional Amendment has reiterated that the satisfaction of the President to promulgate ordinance could be challenged in case an ‘immediate action’ was not required. Thus, it is subject to Judicial Review. The President may withdraw an ordinance at any time. However, he exercises his power with the consent of the Council of Ministers headed by the President. The Ordinances may have retrospective effect and may modify or repeal any act of parliament or other ordinances. Article 213 deals with the broadly analogous powers of the Governor to promulgate/ withdraw an Ordinance when the state legislature is not in session. An Ordinance is valid for six weeks, or 42 days, from the date on which the next session starts. If the two Houses start their sessions on different dates, the later date will be considered, say the explanations in Articles 123 and 213. Repromulgation of Ordinance; To re-promulgate Ordinance simply means to effectively extend the life of an Ordinance. An Ordinance ‘ceases to operate’ 6 weeks after the two Houses reassemble, except if it is converted into an Act by then. Re-promulgation sidesteps this limitation. In 2017, (Krishna Kumar Singh and Another v. State of Bihar) a seven-judge Bench of the court, which included present Chief Justice of India (CJI) D Y Chandrachud, reiterated that legislation should normally be done by the legislature, and the Governor’s power to issue an Ordinance is in the nature of an emergency power. The court clarified that there might be circumstances permitting the re-promulgation of an Ordinance — however, it said, repeated re-promulgations without bringing the Ordinance to the legislature would usurp the legislature’s function, and will be unconstitutional. In Dr D C Wadhwa and Ors v. State of Bihar and Ors (1986) case, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court headed by then CJI P N Bhagwati held that “an Ordinance promulgated by the Governor to meet an emergent situation shall cease to be in operation at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of the Legislature.” If the government wishes for the Ordinance to continue in force beyond the six-week period, it “has to go before the Legislature”, which is the constitutional authority entrusted with law-making functions. SOURCE: The Hindu PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1. Consider the following statements: The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in

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