June 21, 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Veer Savarkar International Airport Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the integrated terminal building of Veer Savarkar International Airport, at Port Blair, Andaman &Nicobar. . About Veer Savarkar International Airport It is located 2 km south of Port Blair. It is the main airport of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands of India. In 2002, Port Blair Airport at Andaman and Nicobar’s Island was renamed after Veer Savarkar International Airport. The Airport’s architecture is inspired by nature. It features a shell-shaped architecture that depicts the sea and islands. The airport design was structured keeping in mind the ecological aspect of the island and some of the sustainability features. These include like a double insulated roofing system to reduce heat gain and skylights to provide maximum inlet of abundant natural sunlight during day time to reduce artificial light usage inside the building. It is a civil airport, and its facilities are shared with the Indian Navy. Administration: The terminal is managed by the Airports Authority of India, while the traffic is handled by the Indian Navy. (UPSC CSE: Reforms In Civil Aviation Industry) About Veer Savarkar He was a freedom fighter and politician. Born May 28, 1883. He was born in Maharashtra’s Nashik. Death: February 26, 1966. Savarkar entered the Hindu Mahasabha and popularized Chandranath Basu’s term Hindutva to establish a collective “Hindu” identity as an essence of Bharat (India). He coined the Hindu nationalist ideology of He founded the organizations Abhinav Bharat Society and Free India Society. Abhinav Bharat Society (Young India Society): it was an Indian Independence secret society founded by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar and his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar in The Free India Society: it was formed by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in London in 1906. He organized a youth group named ‘Mitra Mela’ in 1899. He was the president of Hindu Mahasabha from 1937 to 1943. He was the first to acknowledge the mutiny of 1857 as the first struggle for Independence. He wrote the book ‘The History of the War of Indian Independence’. He championed atheism and rationality and disapproved of orthodox Hindu belief. He even dismissed cow worship as superstitious. He created the Aryan Weekly, a handwritten weekly in which he published illuminating articles on patriotism, literature, history, and science. He was sentenced to 50 years in the cellular jail of Andamans for revolting against the Morley-Minto reforms (Indian Councils Act 1909) in 1911. He was a critic of the Indian National Congress and its acceptance of India’s partition and of Mahatma Gandhi. MUST READ: Kushinagar International Airport SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal, designated as the Governor General of India? (2023) The Regulating Act The Pitt’s India Act The Charter Act of 1793 The Charter Act of 1833 Q.2) Consider the following freedom fighters (2023) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The 19th session of the Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA) was held in Rome, Italy. About Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA):- Established in 1983. The Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA) is the only permanent intergovernmental body focused on conserving all types of biodiversity for food and agriculture. Members: The Commission consists of 179 Member States and the European Union. Membership of the Commission is open to all Members of FAO. (UPSC CSE: 42nd Session of FAO Conference) Objective: to promote international policies for the sustainable use and conservation of genetic resources for food and agriculture, while also ensuring that benefits derived from biodiversity are fairly and equitably shared. The Commission offers a unique platform for its members and other stakeholder to promote a world without hunger by fostering the use and development of the whole portfolio of biodiversity important to food security and rural poverty. The CGRFA meets regularly to address policies on genetic resources for food and agriculture.(UPSC CSE: – GM Crops and their regulation) 19th session of the CGRFA Venue: FAO headquarters in Rome, Italy.(UPSC CSE: Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Animal Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (WG AnGR)) Date: from 17 to 21 July 2023. Organized by: Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO). Focus areas: the state of the world’s forest and plant genetic resources, access and benefit-sharing policies, and biotechnologies for the conservation and sustainable use of genetic resources. The Commission will also discuss:- a Framework for Action on Biodiversity for Food and Agriculture. the role of genetic resources for food and agriculture in mitigation of and adaptation to climate change microorganism and invertebrate genetic resources, including pollinator and biological control agents MUST READ: Food Security in India SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: According to the United. Nations ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’, India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year. Statement-II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of the world’s population living in its territory. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) “The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) National Co-Operative Consumers Federation of India Limited (NCCF) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Department of Consumer Affairs directed the National CO-Operative Consumers Federation of India Limited (NCCF) and National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd (NAFED) to sell tomatoes at a retail price of 70 rupees per kg. Background:- The tomatoes procured by NCCF and NAFED had been retailed at 90 rupees per kg initially and then reduced to 80 rupees per kg from 16th July. The reduction to 70 rupees per kg will further benefit the consumers. About National Co-Operative Consumers Federation of India Limited (NCCF) Establishment: 1965. Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. HQ: New Delhi. NCCF is the apex body of consumer cooperatives in the country. (UPSC CSE: India’s Cooperative Sector) It is registered under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002. Shareholding: Government of India owns 42%. Objectives of NCCF:- Render technical guidance and assistance to improve and increase their operation and management efficiency. Create and promote the formation of cadres of employees. Hold seminars, conferences, and meetings and undertake publicity, propaganda and similar other activities. Establish trade connections with manufacturers, their authorized distributors and suppliers/dealers including Government agencies and cooperative organizations. Import and export of agricultural commodities. Collect and disseminate necessary marketing intelligence for the benefit of its member institutions. Establish testing laboratories for testing consumer goods. To act as agents of Central/State Government or undertaking/corporation or cooperative institutions or any business enterprises for the purpose of sale, storage and distribution of consumer goods approved by the Board of Directors from time to time entrusted by Central/State Governments. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd (NAFED) Establishment: 1958. (UPSC CSE: NAFED) Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. HQ: New Delhi. It is an apex organization of marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce in India. It is registered under the Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002. Objectives: to promote Cooperative marketing of agricultural produce to benefit the farmers. Agricultural farmers are the main members of NAFED. They have the authority to say in the form of members of the General Body in the working of NAFED. MUST READ: Primary agricultural credit societies (PACS) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) India has more arable area than China. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China: How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? (2020) Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Social Capital Development Free electricity supply to farmers Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system Setting up cold storage facilities by the governments. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 5 only 1, 3, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, and 6 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Black Sea Grain initiative Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, India has voiced support for the UN’s efforts in continuing the Black Sea Grain initiative. Background:- India’s reaction came after Russia announced it was terminating the implementation of the UN-brokered deal that allowed the export of grain and related foodstuffs and fertilizers from Ukrainian ports. About the Black Sea Grain initiative:- IMAGE SOURCE: UN Signed in 2022. (UPSC CSE: Black Sea Grain Initiative) Signed at Istanbul. The deal, brokered by the United Nations (UN) and Turkey. Objective: to limit food price inflation emanating from supply chain disruptions because of Russian actions in the world’s ‘breadbasket’ by ensuring an adequate supply of grains. Time Period: Initially it was stipulated for a period of 120 days. It was to provide a safe maritime humanitarian corridor for the Ukrainian export of food grains. Need for the deal:- Ukraine is one of the world’s largest grain exporters. However, since Russia invaded Ukraine, exports of grain, food and fertilizers from both countries have been significantly hit. (UPSC CSE: Russia-Ukraine War.) The disruption in supplies resulted in rising prices. This added to the burden of an already existing food crisis in some countries. In a bid to address this crisis and ensure the smooth movement of supplies amidst the ongoing war, the United Nations and Turkey brokered the Black Sea Grain Initiative on 22 July 2022. The central idea was to calm markets by ensuring an adequate supply of grains, thereby limiting food price inflation. About the Black Sea:- IMAGE SOURCE: Britannica Location: between Eastern Europe and Western Asia in the Atlantic Ocean. Major rivers: Danube, Dnieper, and Don. Bordering countries: Bulgaria, Georgia, Romania, Russia, Turkey, and Ukraine. Important water bodies around the Black Sea:- The Black Sea ultimately drains into the Mediterranean Sea via the Turkish Straits and the Aegean Sea. Bosporus Strait: connects the Black Sea to the Sea of Marmara. Strait of the Dardanelles: connects the Sea of Marmara to the Aegean Sea. Kerch Strait: connects the Black Sea to the Sea of Azov. MUST READ: Loss of the ‘Moskva’ & Black Sea SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2023) Bulgaria Czech Republic Hungary Latvia Lithuania Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q.2) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores The region along North African shores stretches from Egypt to Morocco The region along the Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa The entire coastal areas of the Mediterranean Sea Index of Industrial Production (IIP) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recent reports show that the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) grew by 5.2 per cent in May 2023 from 4.2 per

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Prime Minister Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, a review meeting on the Prime Minister Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) scheme was held. Background:- The Secretary, of the Department of Financial Services exhorted the banks to expeditiously clear the sanction and disbursement pendency of applications. He further urged banks to devise a strategy and step up the efforts to increase the digital onboarding of street vendors and scale up their digital payments. About PM SVANidhi scheme:- IMAGE SOURCE: makspay.com Launched in 2020. (UPSC CSE: PM SVANidhi scheme) Ministry: Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs. Implementation agency: Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). Objective: Providing affordable Working Capital loans to street vendors to resume their livelihoods that have been adversely affected due to the Covid-19 lockdown. The scheme intends to facilitate collateral-free working capital loans of up to INR10,000/- of one-year tenure, to approximately 50 lakh street vendors. It is a Central Sector Scheme. Central sector schemes: schemes with 100% funding by the Central government and implemented by the Central Government machinery. Duration of the scheme: The duration of the scheme initially was until March 2022. It has been extended till December 2024.  Features of the scheme:- Loan limit: Vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to Rs. 10,000.This loan is repayable in monthly instalments for the tenure of one year. No collateral is required to avail of the loan. Processing fee: There is no processing fee to apply for the scheme, making it cost-effective for street vendors. Loan repayment period: one year. Interest subsidy: On timely/ early repayment of the loan, an interest subsidy @ 7% per annum. It will be credited to the bank accounts of beneficiaries through Direct Benefit Transfers on a quarterly basis.  Eligibility Criteria:- The eligible vendors are identified as per the following criteria:- Certificate of Vending/Identity Card: Street vendors in possession of a Certificate of Vending/Identity Card issued by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs). The vendors, who have been identified in the survey but have not been issued a Certificate of Vending/Identity Card; Provisional Certificate of Vending would be generated for such vendors through an IT-based Platform. Urban Local Bodies(ULBs) are encouraged to issue such vendors the permanent Certificate of Vending and Identification Card immediately and positively within a period of one month Letter of Recommendation: Street Vendors, left out of the ULB-led identification survey or who have started vending after completion of the survey and have been issued a Letter of Recommendation (LoR) to that effect by the ULB/Town Vending Committee (TVC). Advantages of the scheme:- The scheme promotes digital transactions through cash-back incentives up to an amount of Rs. 100 per month. The scheme encourages entrepreneurship. It also helps to create employment opportunities. (UPSC CSE: Programme of Socio-Economic Profiling of PM SVANidhi launched) MUST READ: SVANidhi se Samriddhi program SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Government set the target for building more than one crore houses by the end of 2024 under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) About Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U):- Launched in 2015. (UPSC CSE: PMAY-U) Ministry: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). Objective: to improve the affordability of land and property amidst the continuous surge in prices. It is a Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS) and is also known by the name “Housing for All by 2022″. Individuals availing loans to buy residential property or land or to construct homes would be eligible for interest subsidies on the said credit. Eligibility under the scheme:- Economically Weaker Section (EWS): households with annual income up to ₹ 3, 00,000. Low-Income Group (LIG): households with annual income between ₹ 3, 00,001 and ₹ 6, 00,000. Middle Income Group-1 (MIG-1): households with annual income between ₹ 6, 00,001 and ₹ 12, 00,000. Middle Income Group-2 (MIG-2): households with annual income between ₹ 12, 00,001 and ₹ 18, 00,000. The applicant or his/her family members must not own a pucca house in any part of the country. The town/city in which the family resides must be covered under the scheme. The family MUST NOT have previously availed the benefits of any housing-related schemes set up by the Government of India. Benefits under the scheme:- Slum rehabilitation: of eligible Slum Dwellers with the participation of private developers using land as a resource. Promotion of Affordable Housing: through Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS). Affordable Housing in Partnership with Public & Private Sectors: Central Assistance per EWS house in projects where 35% of houses are for EWSs. Subsidy for Beneficiary-Led individual house construction /enhancement: For individuals of the EWS category requiring individual houses (separate project for such beneficiaries) MUST READ: Affordable Rental Housing Complexes (ARHCs) as a sub-scheme of Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Government has set a target to open ten thousand Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Kendras (PMBJKs) under Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP) by March 2024. About Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana(PMBJP):- Launched:2008. (PMBJP) Historical Background:- It was launched by the Department of Pharmaceuticals under the name Jan Aushadhi Campaign in 2008. 2015: It was re-launched as ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Yojana’ (PMJAY). 2016: it was again renamed “Pradhan Mantri Bharatiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana” (PMBJP). Ministry: Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. Implementing Agency: the Pharmaceuticals & Medical Devices Bureau of India (PMBI). Objectives of PMBJP: to provide quality medicines at affordable prices to people through special Kendras known as Pradhan Mantri Bharatiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana Kendra. Funding: Financial Support is provided by the government to eligible NGOs/Trusts/agencies/individuals to establish Jan Aushadhi stores. Benefit of PMBJP: The scheme ensures easy reach to affordable medicine to the people in every nook and corner of the country. Salient Features of PMBJP:- Ensure access to quality medicines. Create awareness about generic medicines through education and publicity so that quality is not synonymous with only high prices. The scheme ensures easy reach to affordable medicine to the people in every nook and corner of the country. Create demand for generic medicines by improving access to better healthcare through low treatment cost and easy availability wherever needed in all therapeutic categories. Janaushadhi Sugam facilitates the public by providing a digital platform at the tip of their fingers. Jan Aushadhi Sugam: a mobile app that helps in locating the nearest Janaushadhi Kendra and the availability of medicines with its price. Pharmaceutical & Medical Devices Bureau of India (PMBI) has been established for co-coordinating procurement, supply and marketing of generic drugs through the Jan Aushadhi Stores. (Pradhan Mantri Janaushadhi Kendra (PMJK)) The quality, safety and efficacy of medicines are ensured to the required standards before the same are supplied to Supers stockists /Jan Aushadhi Stores from the Warehouse. MUST READ: Ayushman Bharat PMJAY SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Advance Authorisation Scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) implemented the Advance Authorisation Scheme. Background:- The Scheme was implemented under the Foreign Trade Policy. It allows duty-free import of inputs for export purposes. About Advance Authorisation Scheme:- Launched: 2015. (Advance Authorization Scheme (AAS)) Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Objective: to make India’s products competitive in the global market. It is a type of duty exemption scheme introduced by the Government of India under the Foreign Trade Policy 2015-2020. (New Foreign Trade Policy) Salient Features of AAS:- Under this scheme, exemption from the payment of import duties is given to raw materials/inputs required for the manufacture of export products. They are not allowed to sell the products in the domestic market. Validity: Advance Authorization is valid for 12 months from the date of issue of such Authorization. Composition fee formula: The revised composition fee formula is based on a specific rate for different levels of the ‘CIF (cost, insurance, freight) value of authorization. The fees levied under these 3 slabs:- ₹5,000 for a cost, insurance, freight (CIF) value of advance authorization license valued at up to ₹2 crores. ₹10,000 for a value between ₹2 crore and 10 crores ₹15,000 for value over ₹10 crores. The simplification of calculations for composition fees helps in automation and faster service delivery by making the process more efficient and easier to understand. The eligibility of inputs is determined by Sector-specific Norms Committees based on input-output norms. The quantity of inputs allowed for a given product is based on specific norms defined for that export product, which considers the waste generated in the manufacturing process. DGFT provides a sector-wise list of Standard Input-Output Norms (SION) under which the exporters may choose to apply. Benefits of Advance Authorization Scheme:- When duties paid on raw materials are saved, it automatically brings down the cost of the final export product. About Directorate General of Foreign Trade:- It is an attached office of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Headed by: Director General of Foreign Trade. HQ: New Delhi. Inception: Keeping in line with liberalization and globalization and the overall objective of increasing exports, DGFT has since been assigned the role of “facilitator”. Objective: implementing the Foreign Trade Policy and promoting India’s exports. Functions of DGFT:- It also issues licenses to exporters. It monitors their corresponding obligations through a network of 25 Regional Offices. All regional offices provide facilitation to exporters in regard to developments in International Trade i.e. WTO agreements, Rules of Origin and anti-dumping issues, etc. It helps exporters in their import and export decisions in an internationally dynamic environment. MUST READ: Conditional Market Authorization SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Cannabis Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, Union Minister Jitendra Singh expressed satisfaction with the research work conducted on Cannabis Project by CSIR-IIIM. Background:- Union Minister of State for Science and Technology, Dr Jitendra Singh, recently visited the cannabis cultivation field of CSIR-Indian Institute of Integrative Medicine, Jammu at its Chatha Farm. About Cannabis Project:- IMAGE SOURCE: vecteezy.com It is the first-ever cannabis medicine project in India. Location: Jammu. Implementing Agencies: CSIR-Indian Institute of Integrative Medicine. CSIR-Indian Institute of Integrative Medicine International Collaborations: It will be established in collaboration with Canada. This project will be the first major foreign investment in Jammu and Kashmir after it became a Union Territory (UT). Significance: The medicine prepared from Cannabis is used to produce pain-relief medicine. About CSIR-Indian Institute of Integrative Medicine:- Established: 1941 Historical Background:- It was established as a research and production center, known as the Drug Research Laboratory of J&K State. It was later taken over by the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) of Govt. of India in 1957 as Regional Research Laboratory, Jammu. The Mandate of Institute was redefined in 2007 and its name changed to the Indian Institute of Integrative Medicine (IIIM). Mandate: to discover new drugs and therapeutic approaches from Natural Products, both of plant and microbial origin, enabled by biotechnology, to develop technologies, drugs and products of high value for the national and international markets. Function and duties: Discovery of novel pharmacologically active natural products from plants and microbial species and translating them into drug leads and candidates by medicinal chemistry, preclinical pharmacology and clinical development. About Cannabis:- According to the WHO, cannabis is a generic term used to denote the several psychoactive preparations of the plant Cannabis sativa. ( UN Decides Cannabis Not A Dangerous Narcotic) Cannabis, weed, pot, and marijuana all refer to the same group of plants known for their relaxing and calming effects. Cannabis is made up of more than 120 components, which are known as cannabinoids. Medical uses:- The most common uses for medical cannabis are in severe or long-term pain, due to:- Chemotherapy (cancer treatments) Painful muscle spasms. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) Cancer-related pain Glaucoma HIV/AIDS-related weight loss or nausea/vomiting Huntington’s disease Inflammatory bowel disease Multiple sclerosis Muscle spasms Neuropathy Parkinson’s disease Short-term effects of cannabis:- relaxation giddiness experiencing things around you, such as sights and sounds, more intensely increased appetite altered perception of time and events focus and creativity Side effects:- coordination issues delayed reaction time nausea lethargy anxiety increased heart rate decreased blood pressure paranoia Long-term effects of cannabis:- Brain development: According to some research, people who start using cannabis in their teens may have more memory and learning problems than those who don’t use cannabis in their teens. Dependence: Some people can also become dependent on cannabis or even experience withdrawal symptoms when not using cannabis, such as irritability, low appetite, and mood swings. Respiratory problems: Smoking cannabis carries similar risks to smoking tobacco. Legal Regulations in India:- Under India’s Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act 1985, the production, manufacture, possession, sale, purchase, transport, and use of cannabis is a punishable offence. (Status of Cannabis) The Act was enacted in 1985 which succeeded the Dangerous Drugs Act 1930. The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) is vested with the power to charge individuals in cases related to the illegal use and supply of narcotics. The NDPS Act defines:- Ganja: flowering or fruiting tops of the cannabis plant but it clearly excludes the seeds and leaves. Charas: the separated resin extracted from the cannabis plant. The Act illegalizes any mixture with or without any neutral material, of any of the two forms of cannabis, charas and ganja, or any drink prepared from it. The legislature left seeds and leaves of the cannabis plant out of the ambit of the Act because the serrated leaves of the plant have negligible tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) content. ‘Bhang’, which is a paste made out of the leaves of the cannabis plant is hence not outlawed. Similarly, CBD oil, an acronym for cannabidiol derived from the leaves of the cannabis plant, would not come under the NDPS Act. The NDPS Act does not permit the recreational use of cannabis in India. MUST READ: Drug Addiction SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following trees: (2023) Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus.) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) Syllabus Prelims – Defense Context: Recently, Union Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurated the Aviation Security Control Centre (ASCC) of the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) in New Delhi. About ASCC:- It will monitor all threats and social media chatter for the 66 civil airports currently under the CISF’s security cover. It will access 24×7 real-time data monitoring and trend analysis of passengers and air traffic. It is equipped with cutting-edge technologies such as a data center, research and development lab and a war room to deal with emergencies. The center will get real-time feed from each of the security operations control centers (SOCCs) operational at these 66 airports. These include the “extremely busy and hyper-sensitive” civil aviation facilities in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru, Jammu, Srinagar and Amritsar among others. The facility will provide “realistic” inputs about passenger traffic at a given point in time. It will help in mobilizing the resources for “optimum utilization. It will also monitor bomb threat calls, VVIP movements, other major incidents, passenger clearance time, and utilization of security gadgets and queue management systems among others at the 66 airports. About Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) Establishment: 1969. (Ayushmaan CAPF) Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs. CISF is an armed force of the Union established under the

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Tele MANAS Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking across States (Tele MANAS), helpline has reached a significant milestone. Background:- Over 200,000 calls received on the Tele-MANAS Helpline since its launch in October 2022. Over 42 functional Tele MANAS Cells across 31 States and UTs, the service is currently catering to 1,300+ calls per day in 20 languages. About Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking across States (Tele MANAS):- IMAGE SOURCE: MOHFW.GOV.IN Launched: 2022. Ministry: Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. Acknowledging the mental health crisis in the wake of the COVID-19 pandemic and an urgent need to establish a digital mental health network that will withstand the challenges amplified by the pandemic, the Government of India announced National Tele Mental Health Programme (NTMHP) in the Union Budget 2022-23. Objectives of Tele MANAS:- To enable people to seek support for their mental health issues while maintaining the anonymity of the callers, thereby reducing the stigma generally surrounding mental health issues. To exponentially scale up the reach of mental health services to anybody who reaches out, across India, any time, by setting up a 24×7 tele-mental health facility in each of the States and UTs of the country To implement a full-fledged mental health-service network that, in addition to counselling, provides integrated medical and psychosocial interventions including video consultations with mental health specialists, e-prescriptions, follow-up services and linkages to in-person services. To extend services to vulnerable groups of the population and difficult-to-reach populations. Salient Features of Tele MANAS:- Tele MANAS will be organized as a two-tier system. (Tele-MANAS) Tier 1: comprise the State Tele MANAS cells, which include trained counsellors and mental health specialists. Tier 2: comprise specialists at District Mental Health Programme (DMHP)/Medical College resources for physical consultation and/or e Sanjeevani for audio-visual consultation. Toll-free helpline numbers: 14416 or 1-800-891-4416 with multi-language provision allows callers to select the language of their choice for availing the services. ( Address Stigma and Discrimination in Mental Health) Eligibility:- Any individual with mental health issues can reach out to Tele MANAS services for help. Family members of persons with mental health issues can reach out for help. Grass-root health care providers/community health providerse., Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs), and community volunteers from the community can reach out to Tele MANAS on behalf of an individual or individuals in that community with mental health issues. MUST READ: Need for stronger mental health strategy SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: India’s public sector healthcare System largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care. Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming. to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Cyber security Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, the National Security Advisor (NSA) Ajit Doval participated in the Friends of BRICS meeting in Johannesburg and discussed the issue of cyber security. Background:- In addition to BRICS, the Friends of BRICS countries, which participated, are Belarus, Burundi, Iran, UAE, Saudi Arabia, Egypt, Kazakhstan, and Cuba. ( BRICS) About Cyber security:- IMAGE SOURCE: cyberin90.blogspot.com Cyber Security is protecting cyberspace including critical information infrastructure from cyberattacks, damage, misuse and economic espionage. (Cyber Security) A cyberattack is an attempt to gain illegal access to a computer system to cause damage.(Cyberattacks) Mode of cyberattack: It can occur on any modern digital device. Impact: can range from an inconvenience for an individual to global economic and social disruption.  Common cyber threats:- Malware: It is any kind of software that is designed to cause damage to a single computer, server, or computer network. Examples: Ransomware, Spyware, Worms, viruses, and Trojans are all varieties of malware. Spoofing: Cybercriminals try impersonating a bank’s URL with a website that is quite similar to the original one and has similar functions as well. (Cybersecurity & Banks) Phishing: it is attempting to obtain sensitive information such as credit card details, etc. for fraudulent activities, by disguising oneself as an authentic, trustworthy entity via electronic communication Denial of Service attacks: It is an attack meant to shut down a machine or network, making it inaccessible to its intended users. Man-in-the-middle (MitM) attacks: They occur when attackers insert themselves into a two-party transaction. Once the attackers interrupt the traffic, they can filter and steal data. Structured Query Language (SQL) Injection: SQL stands for a programming language used to communicate with databases. Many of the servers that store critical data for websites and services use SQL to manage the data in their databases. A SQL injection attack specifically targets such kinds of servers, using malicious code to get the server to divulge information it normally would not. Need for Cyber Security:- Others can inappropriately use for Individuals Photos, videos and other personal information shared by an individual on social networking sites. This can further lead to serious and even life-threatening incidents. For Business Organizations: Companies have a lot of data and information on their systems. A cyber-attack may lead to loss of competitive information (such as patents or original work) and loss of employees’/customers’ private data. This may result in a complete

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Chandra Shekhar Azad Syllabus Prelims –Indian History/Important Personalities Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid his tributes to Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Chandra Shekhar Azad on their birth anniversaries on July 23. Background:- Saluting Indian nationalist and freedom fighter Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Prime Minister Modi said in a tweet, Lokmanya Tilak shook the foundation of British rule by demanding complete Independence. While remembering revolutionary freedom fighter Chand Shekhar Azad fondly, the Prime Minister called him a gallant son of ‘Bharat Mata’ and a remarkable man. About Bal Gangadhar Tilak:- Birth: July 23, 1856. Birthplace: Ratnagiri (now in Maharashtra state), India. Death: August 1, 1920, in Mumbai. He was a scholar, mathematician, philosopher, and ardent nationalist who helped lay the foundation for India’s independence by building his own defiance of British rule into a national movement. He was also known as Lokmanya Tilak. His famous declaration “Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it” served as an inspiration for future revolutionaries during India’s struggle for freedom. The British Government termed him the “Father of Indian Unrest”. (Sedition Law) Important Institutions Started by Tilak:- Deccan Education Society (1884): He was the founder of the Deccan Education Society along with his associate Gopal Ganesh Agarkar and others. Fergusson College (1885): He was one of the founders of the Fergusson College in Pune. The ideology of Tilak:- He vocalized his strong opposition to the moderate views of the Indian National Congress (INC) on self-rule. He maintained that simple constitutional agitation in itself was futile against the British. He wanted an armed revolt against the British. Following the partition of Bengal by Lord Curzon, Tilak wholeheartedly supported the Swadeshi (Indigenous) movement and the Boycott of British goods. Due to this fundamental difference in outlook, Tilak and his supporters came to be known as the extremist wing of INC. He was a great reformer and throughout his life, he advocated the cause of women’s education and women’s empowerment. Tilak proposed Grand celebrations on ‘Ganesh Chaturthi’ and ‘Shivaji Jayanti’. He envisioned these celebrations inciting a sense of unity and inspiring nationalist sentiment among Indians. Political ventures of Tilak:- 1890: He joined the Indian National Congress (INC). Tilak protested against the oppressive nature of the British efforts and wrote provocative articles on it in his newspapers on the epidemic of the Plague in Pune and adjacent regions. His article inspired the Chapekar brothers and they carried out the assassination of Commissioner Rand and Lt. Ayerst on June 22, Because of this, Tilak was imprisoned for 18 months on Sedition charges for inciting murder. Indian Home Rule League (1914): He founded the Indian Home Rule League. Lucknow Pact (1916): he concluded the Lucknow Pact with Mohammed Ali Jinnah, which provided for Hindu-Muslim unity in the nationalist struggle. Newspapers by Tilak:- Weeklies: Kesari (Marathi) and Mahratta (English) Books by Tilak:- Gita Rhasya Arctic Home of the Vedas. About Chandra Shekhar Azad:- Birth: 23rd July 1906. Birth Place: Alirajpur district of Madhya Pradesh. ( Chandra Shekhar Azad) Death: On February 27, 1931. He died at Azad Park in Allahabad on 27th February 1931. Chandrashekhar Azad was a great Indian freedom fighter. He was the mentor of Bhagat Singh. He is considered one of the greatest revolutionaries that India has produced. Political ventures of Chandrashekhar Azad:- 1921: when Gandhiji launched the Non-Cooperation Movement, Chandra Shekhar, then a 15-year-old student, joined. He was arrested. On being presented before a magistrate, he gave his name as “Azad” (The Free), his father’s name as “Swatantrata” (Independence) and his residence as “Jail”. From that day, he came to be known as Chandra Shekhar Azad among the people. 1925: Involved in the Kakori train Robbery. 1926: he was involved in an attempt to blow up the Viceroy of India’s train. 1928: he was involved in the shooting of J. P. Saunders at Lahore to avenge the killing of Lala Lajpat Rai. Organizations by Chandrashekhar Azad:- Hindustan Republican Association: After the suspension of the non-cooperation movement in 1922 by Gandhi, Azad joined Hindustan Republican Association (HRA). MUST READ: Dayanand Saraswati SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal, designated as the Governor General of India? (2023) The Regulating Act The Pitt’s India Act The Charter Act of 1793 The Charter Act of 1833 Q.2) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: An international symposium on sustainable livestock transformation was inaugurated at the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB). About National Dairy Development Board (NDDB):- Establishment: Ministry: Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying. HQ: Anand, Gujarat, India. Objective: to replace exploitation with empowerment, tradition with modernity, stagnation with growth, transforming dairying into an instrument for the development of India’s rural people. The NDDB is a statutory body set up by an act of Parliament and was founded by Dr Verghese Kurien. Historical Background of NDDB:- It was initially constituted as a society under the Societies Act 1860. It was later merged with the former Indian Dairy Corporation, which was created and registered under the Companies Act 1956, by the NDDB Act 1987, which took effect on October 12, 1987. Significance of NDDB:- Empowering Rural economy: The NDDB’s initiatives altered India’s rural economy by making dairying a viable and profitable business for millions of milk producers. ( Women and Cooperative Dairy Farming) Long-term livelihood: The NDDB reaches out to dairy farmers and provides them with alternative income-generating opportunities, allowing them to build long-term livelihoods. NDDB has been effective in combining dairy farmers’ traditional wisdom and experience with modern management strategies in order to capture the milk and milk products market while also assisting farmers. Operation Flood: Its most notable achievement is Operation Flood, which lasted 26 years and transformed India into

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Silver cockscomb Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Studies have shown that Silver cockscomb is not a troublesome weed for Karnataka’s Soliga tribe. Background:- Silver cockscomb is a troublesome weed. ( Expansion of the Invasive Plants) If left unchecked, it can spread quickly and suppress the growth of other crops, affecting their yield. But for the Soliga tribe, silver cockscomb is a nutritious leafy green vegetable that grows well even on fallow land and in drought-like conditions. About Silver cockscomb:- Silver cockscomb is a short-lived 50-60 cm-tall plant. It is also known as Lagos spinach. Scientific name: Celosia argentea . Local Names:- In Karnnada: Anne soppu In Marathi: Kurdu In Tamil: Pannai keerai Family: Amaranthaceae family. The family includes economically important plants like spinach, beetroot and quinoa. It bears simple, spirally arranged leaves around the stem with pinkish or silky white flowers. It grows well even on fallow land and in drought-like conditions. Its leaves have lower levels of oxalic acid and phytic acid. Uses of Silver cockscomb:- It grows widely on farmlands across the country and most farmers use the plant as Soliga tribe use it as a nutritious leafy green vegetable, as it is high in nutrients such as beta-carotene and folic acids, and has vitamin E, calcium and iron. It is frequently used in traditional Chinese and Indian medicine for treating eye diseases and ulcers. (WHO and Traditional Medicine) About the Soliga tribe:- They are an indigenous tribe of Karnataka. Location: They reside in the peripheral forest areas near Biligiri Rangana Hills and Male Mahadeshwara in the Chamarajnagar district of Karnataka. They are the first tribal community living inside the core area of a tiger reserve in India to get their forest rights officially recognised by a court of law. MUST READ: New genus of parasitic flowering plant SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following trees: (2023) Jackfruit (Artoca7pus heterophyllus) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements (2023) Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Ludwigia peruviana Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: As per recent reports, Ludwigia Peruviana is threatening the elephant habitats in Tamil Nadu. Background:- Ludwigia peruviana, has infested the majority of the hill station’s swamps, where elephants used to find lush grass even in the summer. It is among the 22 priority invasive plants in Tamil Nadu. About Ludwigia peruviana:- Ludwigia peruviana is an invasive aquatic weed. (Invasive alien plants in Nilgiri Biosphere Region) Habitat: it is originally native to Central and South America. It is an aquatic plant, which is now challenging the existence of local vegetation in various swampy areas around the world. It is a perennial shrub. Perennial: A plant that lives for more than two years. It is deciduous in cooler climates and evergreen in warmer tropical climates. It can form floating islands on the water’s surface. The plant can grow to a height of about 12 feet. Leaves are:- Oval to lance-shaped with a pointed tip and narrow base. Hairy and prominently veined. Flowers are:- Its flower is pale yellowish in colour. Each flower lasts for only one day. Issues with Ludwigia peruviana:- It is an aquatic plant, which is now challenging the existence of local vegetation in various swampy areas around the world. It grows faster in wetlands than other harmful weeds. It has shaken the balance of these perennial foraging grounds, limiting the growth of grass and native plants that are palatable to elephants and other animals including gaur. It grows in swamps and there is little scope to use machinery. Even if Ludwigia is pulled out manually, the soft plant easily breaks and it spreads again from the root or broken stems that fall in the swamp Ways to control Ludwigia peruviana:- Prevention: Reducing nutrient runoff into the waterway can limit growth. Physical removal: Seedlings can be pulled or dug out. Disposal: Plants can be destroyed by burning or deep burial. Slashing/Fire: Larger infestations may be slashed and burnt. Chemical control: Spraying glyphosate. Cut stump method: Cut the main stems, and apply herbicide gel to the stump within 15 seconds of cutting. MUST READ: Water Hyacinth SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. Some mushrooms have · psychoactive properties. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct? · Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) ‘Invasive Species Specialist ·group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations? (2023) The International Union for Conservation of Nature The United Nations Environment Programme The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development The World Wide Fund for Nature National Statistical Organisation (NSO) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The Government of India recently appointed a panel to review the methodology used by the National Statistical Organisation (NSO). Background:- The panel is appointed under the chairmanship of Pronab Sen, former Chief Statistician of India. This happened in the backdrop of articles by Shamika Ravi and Bibek Debroy arguing the usage of outdated survey methodology by national surveys. According to them, this archaic methodology has failed to capture reality in the recent past as the “Indian economy has been incredibly dynamic in the last 30 years”. The Pronab Sen Committee will attempt to address these concerns to make the sample adequately representative. About National Statistical Organisation (NSO):- Established: 2019. The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Namami Gange Programme Syllabus Prelims –Government Schemes Context: Recently, the Government said that 254 projects have been completed so far under Namami Gange Programme. About Namami Gange Programme:- IMAGE SOURCE: revexpo.com Launched: 2014. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Objectives: to accomplish the objectives of abatement of pollution, conservation and rejuvenation of the National River Ganga. (6 Mega development projects inaugurated under Namami Gange Mission) Namami Gange Programme, is an Integrated Conservation Mission, approved as a ‘Flagship Programme’ by the Union Government in June 2014. The program would be implemented by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) and its state counterpart organizations i.e., State Program Management Groups (SPMGs). Working Mechanism:- A three-tier mechanism has been proposed for project monitoring comprising of: A high-level task force: chaired by Cabinet Secretary assisted by NMCG at the national level. State-level committee: chaired by Chief Secretary assisted by SPMG at the state level. District level: committee chaired by the District Magistrate. Implementation:- Its implementation has been divided into:- Entry-Level Activities: for immediate visible impact Medium-Term Activities: to be implemented within 5 years of the time frame and Long-Term Activities: to be implemented within 10 years. Main pillars of the programme:- Sewage Treatment Infrastructure River-Front Development River-Surface Cleaning Biodiversity Afforestation Public Awareness Industrial Effluent Monitoring Ganga Gram Key achievements under the Namami Gange programme:- Creating Sewerage Treatment Capacity: 48 sewage management projects are under implementation and 99 sewage projects have been completed in the states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Delhi, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, and Rajasthan. Creating River-Front Development: 71 Ghats/Crematoria projects for construction, modernization, and renovation of 270 Ghats/Crematoria and Kunds/Ponds have been initiated. River Surface Cleaning: River Surface cleaning for collection of floating solid waste from the surface of the Ghats and River and its disposal are afoot and pushed into service at 11 locations. Bio-Diversity Conservation: Wildlife Institute of India (WII), Dehradun, Central Inland Fisheries Research Institute (CIFRI), Kolkata & Uttar Pradesh State Forest Department has been awarded projects to develop science-based aquatic species restoration plans for Ganga River by involving multiple stakeholders along with conservation & restoration of aquatic biodiversity. Afforestation: One of the major components of Ganga rejuvenation is ‘forestry interventions’ to enhance the productivity and diversity of the forests in headwater areas and all along the river and its tributaries. Public Awareness: A series of activities such as events, workshops, seminars and conferences were organized to make a strong pitch for public outreach and community participation in the programme. Industrial Effluent Monitoring: Regulation and enforcement through regular and surprise inspections of Grossly Polluting Industries (GPIs) are carried out for compliance verification against stipulated environmental norms. Ganga Gram: 578 Crores has been released to the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation (MoDWS) for the construction of toilets in 1674 Gram Panchayats of 5 Ganga Basin States. MUST READ: Cleaning of River Ganga SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: According to the United Nations ‘World Water Development Report,2022’, India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year. Statement-II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of the world’s population living in its territory. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Resource Efficiency and Circular Economy Industry Coalition (RECEIC) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The Resource Efficiency and Circular Economy Industry Coalition (RECEIC) was launched recently. Background:- RECEIC was launched at the side event during the fourth Environment and Climate Sustainability Working Group and Environment and Climate Ministers meeting in Chennai, Tamil Nadu. It was conceptualized under India’s G20 Presidency. About Resource Efficiency and Circular Economy Industry Coalition (RECEIC):- Launched in:2023. Launched at Chennai, Tamil Nadu. Launched by: Hon’ Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change Shri Bhupender Yadav. It was launched in the presence of the Commissioner on Environment from the European Union and Honorable Ministers from Canada, France, Italy, Denmark, Mauritius, and the United Arab Emirates RECEIC is an industry-driven initiative aimed at promoting resource efficiency and circular economy practices globally. Circular economy: it is a model of production and consumption, which involves sharing, leasing, reusing, repairing, refurbishing and recycling existing materials and products for as long as possible. Circular economy) The coalition is envisioned to be a self-sustaining entity that will continue to operate beyond India’s G20 Presidency, making a lasting impact on environmental sustainability. Founding members: 39 companies headquartered in 11 different countries have joined the coalition as its founding members. As a collaborative platform, RECEIC aims to facilitate knowledge-sharing, best practice sharing, and sustainable practices among the participating industries. Principles:- The coalition has three guiding principles – Partnerships for impact Technology Cooperation Finance for scale MUST READ: G20 Presidency of India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between (15 crore and 25 crore). All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) denied the rumours of irregularities in the Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner (APFC) Examination. Background:- The Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner (APFC) Examination was conducted in July. Following the exam, some images of question paper portions were allegedly uploaded on social media, which led to speculations about potential irregularities. About Union Public Service Commission (UPSC):- The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India. It is an independent constitutional body. The provisions regarding the composition of UPSC, the appointment and removal of its members and the powers and functions of UPSC are provided in Part XIV of the Indian Constitution under Article 315 to Article 323. Parallel to the UPSC at the Centre, there is a State Public Service Commission (SPSC) in the state. The provisions regarding the composition of SPSC, the appointment and removal of its members and the powers and functions of SPSC are provided in Part XIV of the Indian Constitution under Article 315 to Article 323. Constitutional Provisions:- Article 315: Constitution of Public Service Commissions (PSC) for the Union and for the States of India. Article 316: Appointment and term of office of members of UPSC as well as SPSC. Article 317: Removal and suspension of a member of both the UPSC or SPSC. Article 318: Power to make regulations for the conditions of service of members and staff of the Commission. Composition of Union Public Service Commission:- Appointment of Members: The Chairman and other members of the UPSC are appointed by the President of India. Term of Office: Any member of the UPSC shall hold office for a term of six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Reappointment: Any person who has once held the office as a member of a Public Service Commission is ineligible for reappointment to that office. Resignation: A member of the Union Public Service Commission may resign from his/her office by submitting a written resignation to the President of India. Removal/Suspension of Members: The Chairman or any other member of UPSC shall only be removed from his/her office by order of the President of India. The President can suspend the Chairman or any other member from his/her office in respect of whom a reference has been made to the Supreme Court. Conditions for Removal: The Chairman or any other member of UPSC may be removed if he/she: is adjudged engages during his/her term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his/her office. is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body. Regulating the Conditions of Service: In the case of the UPSC, the President of India shall:- Determine the number of members of the Commission and their conditions of service. Make provisions with respect to the number of members of the staff of the Commission and their conditions of service. Expenses of UPSC: The expenses of the UPSC including salaries, allowances and pensions of the members or staff of the Commission are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India. Submission of Reports: The UPSC shall present an annual report to the President of India containing the work done by the Commission.  MUST READ: Finance Commission SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2). Consider the following statements: (2023) The Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. Accotrding to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in the National Capital Region (NCR) has announced a revision in the existing Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP). About Graded Response Action Plan:- IMAGE SOURCE: Hindustan Times Formulated in 2016. It was officially notified in 2017 for Delhi and the National Capital Region (NCR). The plan was formulated after several meetings were held by Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) with state government representatives and experts. These are institutionalized measures to be taken when air quality deteriorates, hence work only as an emergency measure. GRAP includes the measures, which will be taken by different government agencies to prevent the worsening of the Air Quality of Delhi-NCR and prevent PM10 and PM2.5 levels to go beyond the ‘moderate’ national Air Quality Index (AQI) category. (Air pollution) If air quality reaches the severe+ stage, GRAP talks about shutting down schools and implementing the odd-even road-space rationing scheme. The plan requires action and coordination among 13 different agencies in Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana and Rajasthan (NCR areas). Measures announced- Moderate to poor- (when PM2.5 is in the range of 61-120 or when PM10 is in the range of 101-350.):- Heavy fines for garbage burning. Close/enforce pollution control regulations in brick kilns and industries. Mechanised sweeping on roads with heavy traffic and water sprinkling. Strictly enforce a ban on firecrackers. Very Poor- (PM2.5 is in the range of 121-250 or PM10 is in the range of 351-430):- Stop the use of diesel generator sets. Enhance parking fee by 3-4 times. Increase bus and Metro services. Apartment owners to discourage burning fires in winter by providing electric heaters during winter. Advisories to people with respiratory and cardiac conditions to restrict outdoor movement. Severe- (PM 2.5 over 250 or PM10 over 430):- Close brick kilns, hot mix plants, and stone