Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –21st June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) International Day of Yoga (IDY) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Indian Navy announced its plan to organise the ‘Ocean Ring of Yoga’ to commemorate International Yoga Day. About International Day of Yoga (IDY):- IMAGE SOURCE: WordPress.com The International Day of Yoga (IDY) is celebrated on 21 June, every year. June 21 was selected as “Yoga Day” because it is the longest day of the year in the Northern Hemisphere (Summer Solstice). It is also considered important in Indian mythology as it marks the start of Yogic science. Objective: to inculcate a habit of meditation for the peace of mind and the self-awareness which is necessary to survive in a stress-free environment. First Yoga Day celebrations: 2015. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued a commemorative coin of 10 rupees, in 2015 to mark the International Day of Yoga. UN Postal Administration (UNPA) issued 10 stamps on Asanas in UNPA: is the postal agency of the United Nations, which issues postage stamps and postal stationery. Theme 2023: Yoga for Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam Historical Background:- The idea of the International Day of Yoga (IDY) was proposed by India during the opening of the 69th session of the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA), held in 2014. This proposal was backed by 177 nations, which led the UN to declare June 21 as the “International Day of Yoga. The UN proclaimed 21st June as IDY by passing a resolution in December 2014. The first Yoga Day celebrations at Rajpath in New Delhi created two Guinness World Records. It was the world’s largest yoga session with 35,985 people. Significance of the Day:- It spreads awareness about the practice of yoga. Its holistic approach helps maintain physical and mental well-being. Yoga The word ‘yoga’ is derived from Sanskrit and means to join or to unite. It symbolizes the union of body and consciousness. Yoga is an ancient physical, mental and spiritual practice. It originated in India. UNESCO put it on the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2016. UNESCO List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity: includes forms of expression that demonstrate the diversity of intangible heritage and raises awareness of its importance. India has 13 intangible heritage including Yoga as a part of this list. (UPSC CSE: UNESCO Heritage Sites in Maharashtra) Related Initiatives M-Yoga App:-The app is a work of collaboration between the World Health Organisation (WHO) and the Ministry of Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy (Ministry of AYUSH), Government of India. New website for International Day of Yoga (IDY):-This web portal provides all the updated and relevant information relating to the International Day of Yoga. Yoga as a sport:-The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, after reviewing the categorization of various Sports disciplines, recognized Yoga as a sports discipline and placed it in the ‘Priority’ category in 2015. Common Yoga Protocol:-It is an initiative of the Ministry of AYUSH. Vocational Education Courses in Yoga:-The Beauty & Wellness Sector Skill Council (B&WSSC) has vocational education courses in Yoga for CBSE schools. Skilling initiatives:-Thousands of candidates have been trained as yoga instructors and trainers through various skilling initiatives like the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY). PMKVY: it is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. Fit India Movement:-Yoga is also a part of the Fit India Movement. Fit India Movement: a nationwide campaign that aims at encouraging people to include physical activities and sports in their everyday lives. Ocean Ring of Yoga Ocean Ring of Yoga symbolizes unity and solidarity. Organized by: Ministry of Defence and other ministries. Implementation: Indian Navy ships deployed in the Indian Ocean Region will be visiting various ports of friendly foreign countries in support of the IDY-23 initiative. They will spread the message of ‘Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam’, which is also the theme for IDY 23. The Indian Navy has been an ambassador for Yoga across the seas for several years. This year, Indian Navy is actively supporting the IDY at a global scale as port calls are planned at Chattogram, Bangladesh; Safaga, Egypt; Jakarta, Indonesia; Mombasa, Kenya; Toamasina, Madagascar; Muscat, Oman; Colombo, Sri Lanka; Phuket, Thailand; and Dubai, UAE by IN Ships Kiltan, Chennai, Shivalik, Sunayna, Trishul, Tarkash, Vagir, Sumitra and Brahmaputra respectively. The IDY-23 activities by the Indian Naval ships at foreign ports are planned to involve the ship’s crew and personnel from the host country. MUST READ: New sites added to India’s tentative list of UNESCO world heritage sites SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) consider the following statements: (2021) 21st February is declared International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2018) Crafts                              Heritage of Puthukkuli Shawls          Tamil Nadu Sujni Embroidery            Maharashtra Uppada Jamdani saris    Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is /are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Employees Provident Fund Organisation Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recent data released by the Employees Provident Fund Organisation, revealed that it has added 17.20 lakh net members in April this year. About Employees Provident Fund Organisation:- EPFO is one of the World’s largest Social Security Organizations in terms of clientele and the volume of financial transactions undertaken. Establishment: 1952. Ministry: Ministry of Labour & Employment. HQ: New Delhi. It is a government organization that manages the provident fund (PF) and pension accounts of member employees. Provident fund (PF): it is an investment fund contributed to by employees, employers, and (sometimes) the state, out of which a lump sum is provided to each employee on retirement. Functions: It implements the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952. Historical

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –23rd June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) Syllabus Prelims – Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has published new standards for Food Serving Utensils Made from Agri By-Products. About Food Serving Utensils made from Agricultural by products: It is aimed at reducing plastic pollution and promoting sustainability. Advantages of implementing this standard:- Using biodegradable agri by-product utensils can contribute towards environmental safety, conserve natural resources, and promote a circular economy. These utensils are free from harmful additives and ensure consumer well-being. The standard also creates economic opportunities for farmers.  It supports sustainable agricultural practices, contributing to rural development.  In India, numerous large-scale and Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises level manufacturers are actively contributing to the production of biodegradable cutlery, they will benefit immensely from this Standard. About the Bureau of Indian Standards:- BIS is the National Standard Body of India. (UPSC CSE: BIS) It was established in 1986. It was originally enacted under Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986. A new act (to replace the BIS Act of 1986) was introduced in the Lok Sabha, which was subsequently passed by both houses of the Parliament in 2016. HQ: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. Regional Offices: Kolkata (Eastern), Chennai (Southern), Mumbai (Western), Chandigarh (Northern) and Delhi (Central). Objectives of BIS:- Harmonious development of the activities of standardization, marking and quality certification of goods. To provide thrust to standardization and quality control. Activities of BIS:- Standards formulation Product Certification Hallmarking Laboratory services Training services – National Institute of Training for Standardization Consumer Affairs and Publicity MUST READ: Quality Council of India (QCI) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Directorate of Civil Aviation (DGCA) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutes Context: Recently, the Directorate of Civil Aviation (DGCA) suspended the licence of a pilot of Air India. About Suspension of licence:- Time period: DGCA suspended the license of the Air India pilot for one year. Reason: This was done for allowing an unauthorized person into the cockpit during the Chandigarh-Leh flight. About the Directorate of Civil Aviation (DGCA):- It is the regulatory body in the field of Civil Aviation primarily dealing with safety issues. (UPSC CSE: DGCA) Historical Background: DGCA was formally recognized as a body constituted by the Central Government after the revision to Section 4A of the Aircraft Act, 1934 in 2020. Objective: to carry out safety oversight and regulatory functions in respect of matters specified in the Act or the rules made thereunder. HQ: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Civil Aviation. Headed by: Director General of Civil Aviation. Mandate: DGCA is responsible for the regulation of air transport services to/from/within India and for enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety, and airworthiness standards. Functions:- Registration of civil aircraft. Formulation of standards of airworthiness for civil aircraft registered in India. Licensing of pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers and flight engineers. It conducts examinations and checks for that purpose. Licensing of air traffic controllers. Air traffic controllers: they are responsible for ensuring the safe and efficient movement of aircraft in the airspace. Conducting an investigation into accidents/incidents and taking accident preventive measures. Coordination at the national level for flexible use of air space by civil and military air traffic agencies. Interaction with ICAO for the provision of more air routes for civil use through Indian air space. International Civil Aviation Organization(ICAO): is a specialized agency of the United Nations that coordinates the principles and techniques of international air navigation. Promoting indigenous design and manufacture of aircraft. MUST READ: Reforms In Civil Aviation Industry SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Global Gender Gap Report 2023 Syllabus Prelims – Social Issues Context: World Economic Forum (WEF) published the Global Gender Gap Report 2023 recently. About Global Gender Gap Report:- The Global Gender Gap Index is published annually since 2006. Published by: World Economic Forum (WEF). WEF:  a non-profit organization based in Geneva, Switzerland. It engages the foremost political, business, cultural and other leaders of society to shape global, regional and industry agendas. It benchmarks the current state and evolution of gender parity across four key dimensions:-  Economic Participation and Opportunity  Educational Attainment  Health and Survival Political Empowerment On each of these four sub-indices as well as on the overall index the GGG index provides scores between 0 and 1. 1: full gender parity 0: complete imparity.  It

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –26th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Smart City Mission Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Union Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs hailed the progress of the Smart City Mission. Background:- The Smart City Mission has completed eight years recently. Union Minister Hardeep Singh Puri appreciated the achievements of the Smart City Mission. About Smart City Mission:- Launched in 2015. (UPSC CSE: SMART CITY MISSION @ 100) Ministry: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Smart Cities Mission is a joint effort of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), and all state and union territories (UT) governments. It is an innovative and new initiative by the Government of India to drive economic growth and improve the quality of life of people. Objectives of Smart Cities Mission:-                                                To promote cities that provide core infrastructure and give a decent quality of life to its citizens, a clean and sustainable environment and application of Smart Solutions. To drive economic growth and improve quality of life through comprehensive work on social, economic, physical and institutional pillars of the city. The focus is on sustainable and inclusive development through the creation of replicable models, which act as inspirations to other aspiring cities. The six fundamental principles on which the concept of Smart Cities is based are:- IMAGE SOURCE: smartcities.gov.in Financing:- The Smart City Mission is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS). The Central Government gives financial support to the Mission to the extent of Rs. 48,000 crores over five years i.e. on an average of 100 crore per city per year. An equal amount, on a matching basis, will have to be contributed by the State/ULB. Implementation:- The implementation of the Mission at the City level will be done by a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV). SPV: A special purpose vehicle, also called a special purpose entity (SPE), is a subsidiary created by a parent company to isolate financial risk. The SPV is promoted by the state/Union Territory and the urban local body, with a 50% equity shareholding each. The SPV formed as a limited company is governed by the Companies Act, 2013. Duration:- The Mission was to cover 100 cities and its duration will be five years (FY2015-16 to FY2019-20). It was aimed to be completed by 2019-20 but has since been extended. Smart city is envisaged to have four pillars:- Social Infrastructure. Physical Infrastructure. Institutional Infrastructure (including Governance). Economic Infrastructure. MUST READ: Smart Cities and Academia Towards Action & Research (SAAR) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India ? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mahadayi River Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, tenders floated for the Kalasa Banduri project on the Mahadayi River have not shown success. Background:- Tenders for implementation of the controversial Kalasa Banduri scheme were floated by the previous BJP government minutes before the Karnataka Assembly elections were announced. They were put out without obtaining forest and environment clearance. The tenders are open for bidding till 21st August 2023 but are unlikely to find takers. About Mahadayi River:- IMAGE SOURCE: MapsofIndia The Mahadayi River is also known as the Mandovi River. Origin: It originates in the Western Ghats from the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in the Belgaum district of Karnataka. End point: It flows for about 81 km before emptying into the Arabian Sea. The river is formed by the confluence of two rivers: the Daddi and the Markandeya. Left Bank Tributaries: Daddi River, Malaprabha River, and Markandeya River. Right Bank Tributaries: Tambaraparani River, Bainganga River, Wardha River. Dams on the Mahadayi River:- The Hidkal Dam: Located in the Belagavi district of Karnataka. The Hidkal Dam: Located in the Belagavi district of Karnataka. The Selaulim Dam: Located in South Goa. The Virdi Dam: Located in the Belagavi district of Karnataka The Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is situated on the island of Chorao, which is located in the Mandovi River. Significance: The Mahadayi River is of great importance to the states of Goa and Karnataka, serving as a source of water for drinking, irrigation, and tourism. Kalasa-Banduri Nala Project It is a project of the Government of Karnataka. Planned: in Objective: to divert water from Mahadayi to satisfy the drinking water needs of the Belagavi, Dharwad, Bagalkot and Gadag districts of Karnataka. It involves building dam across Kalasa and Banduri, two tributaries of the Mahadayi River to divert water to the Malaprabha River. Kalasa-Banduri Nala Project Dispute Background 1989: The project was planned by the Government of Karnataka. 2002: two-and-a-half decades since the proposal, the Karnataka government decided to implement the project, after the Centre cleared it. Goa’s stand: it approached the Centre, urging it to assess the available resources in the river and allocate water to the three basin states: Goa, Maharashtra and Karnataka. Due to the protests in Goa, the project was put on hold by the then central government. 2006: The dispute gained steam in 2006 when the coalition government in Karnataka decided to start work on the project. Goa then approached the Supreme Court, seeking the creation of a Tribunal to settle the water-sharing dispute. The Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal was set up in Goa, Karnataka and Maharashtra are parties to the tribunal. 2018: The Tribunal 13.42 thousand million cubic feet (TMC) of water from the Mahadayi river basin to Karnataka, 1.33 TMC to Maharashtra and 24 TMC to 2019: After the Tribunal

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –26th June 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –24th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Artemis Accord Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: India and the United States of America signed the Artemis Accord recently. About the Indo-US talks:- The Artemis Accord along with some other significant decisions was signed during Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s recent USA visit. It is expected to take India and US cooperation in Space Research and bilateral relations to a new high. ISRO is also likely to team up with NASA for a manned mission on the moon by 2025. About Artemis Accord:- IMAGE SOURCE: nasawatch.com Artemis Accord is a non-binding set of principles designed to guide civil space exploration and use in the 21st century. It is a non-binding agreement with no financial commitments. Objectives:- Enhancing the governance of civil exploration. Use of outer space with the intention of advancing the Artemis program. It ensures that space exploration is conducted in a safe, sustainable and transparent manner and in full compliance with international law. Establishment: 2020. Established by: NASA, in coordination with the U.S. Department of State, established the Artemis Accords with eight founder nations. Founding members of the Artemis Accords:  Australia, Canada, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, United Arab Emirates, United Kingdom, and the US. Artemis Accords signatories as of May 2023: Australia, Bahrain, Brazil, Canada, Colombia, Czech Republic, France, Israel, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, Mexico, New Zealand, Nigeria, Poland, the Republic of Korea, Romania, Rwanda, Saudi Arabia, Singapore, Spain, Ukraine, the United Arab Emirates, the United Kingdom, and the United States. Aims of Artemis Accord:- Peaceful Purposes: Consistent with the Outer Space Treaty, the Artemis Accords affirm that cooperative activities should be exclusively for peaceful purposes and in accordance with international law.  (UPSC CSE: Indian Space Association) Outer Space Treaty: it provides the basic framework of international space law. Transparency: signatories are committed to the broad dissemination of information regarding their respective national space policies and space exploration plans in accordance with their national rules and regulations. Interoperability: Interoperability enhances the potential for space exploration that is safe and robust among cooperating nations. Emergency Assistance: Accords signatories commit to taking all reasonable efforts to render necessary assistance to personnel in outer space who are in distress. Registration of Space Objects: The Artemis Accords reinforce the importance of meeting the obligations under the Registration Convention. Release of Scientific Data: Sharing scientific data with the global community in a timely and transparent manner. Protecting Heritage: Accords signatories intend to preserve historically significant human or robotics landing sites, artefacts, spacecraft etc. Space Resources: The utilization of space resources should be done in a manner that complies with the Outer Space Treaty, can benefit humankind and is critical to sustainable operations. Deconfliction of Activities: Artemis Accords signatories need to provide notification of their activities and coordinate. The area covered by the notification and coordination is referred to as a “safety zone.” Orbital Debris and Spacecraft Disposal: Planning to mitigate orbital debris, as well as disposing safely of spacecraft, is critical to maintaining a safe environment in space. MUST READ: Space SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on it. Q.2) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Food Corporation of India (FCI) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Central Government directed the Food Corporation of India (FCI) to conduct e-auctions of wheat and rice. Background:- The government took the decision to check inflationary trends in retail prices. In order to control the hoarding of wheat, the government has decided that the declaration in the Wheat Stock Monitoring System portal is mandatory for participation in the auctions.  In addition to this, a valid Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) License has also been made mandatory for participation. FSSAI: statutory body established under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India. Established in 2008. HQ: New Delhi It is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety. The maximum quantity that a buyer can bid is limited to 100 Metric tonnes in this e-auction. To accommodate the small wheat processors and traders, the minimum quantity has been kept to 10 Metric tonnes. About Food Corporation of India (FCI):- The Food Corporation of India is a statutory body under the Food Corporation’s Act 1964. Established: 1965. Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. HQ: New Delhi Objectives of FCI:- Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interests of the farmers. Distribution of food grains throughout the country for the public distribution system. Maintaining a satisfactory level of operational and buffer stocks of foodgrains to ensure National Food Security. Effective Price Support Operations for safeguarding the interest of farmers. Functions of FCI:- Price stabilization through market intervention operations. Procurement and distribution of pulses, edible oils and sugar. (UPSC CSE: Procurement Reforms ) Management of Foodgrains godowns and cold storage. Implementation of a Food Security Scheme in

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –27th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Indian Meteorological Department Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Indian Meteorological Department issued an orange alert for rain in various parts of the country. Background:- The Indian Meteorological Department issued an orange alert for rain in Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Western Uttar Pradesh, Eastern Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, Vidarbha and Konkan. The water level of the rivers and drains has increased. The administration appealed to the people not to go near the banks of the rivers and drains. About Indian Meteorological Department:- Established: 1875. Ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences. IMD Headquarters: New Delhi. It is the National Meteorological Service of the country. It is the principal government agency in all matters relating to meteorology and allied subjects. Objectives:- To take meteorological observations and provide current and forecast meteorological information for optimum operation of weather-sensitive activities like agriculture, irrigation, shipping, etc. To warn against severe weather phenomena tropical cyclones, duststorms, heavy rains and snow, cold and heat waves,, which cause the destruction of life and property. To conduct and promote research in meteorology and allied disciplines. To provide meteorological statistics required for agriculture, water resource management, industries, oil exploration and other nation-building activities. The IMD uses four colour codes:- Green (All is well): No advisory is issued. (UPSC CSE: Colour Coded Weather Warning) Yellow (Be Aware): Yellow indicates severely bad weather spanning several days. Orange/Amber (Be prepared): The orange alert is issued as a warning of extremely bad weather with the potential of disruption in commute with road and rail closures, and interruption of power supply. Red (Take Action): When extremely bad weather conditions are certainly going to disrupt travel and power and have significant risk to life, the red alert is issued. MUST READ: The India Meteorological Department (IMD) may introduce new monsoon models SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following : (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award-TANNA Syllabus Prelims – Important Awards Context: The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports invited nominations for Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award-TANNA 2022. About Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award-TANNA :- Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Awards are given every year. First awarded: 1994. Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. The award is named after Tenzing Norgay. (UPSC CSE: Rural Sports in India) Tenzing Norgay: one of the first two individuals to reach the summit of Mount Everest along with Edmund Hillary in 1953. Objectives To recognize the achievements of the person in the field of adventure. To encourage young people to develop the spirit of endurance, risk-taking, cooperative teamwork, and quick, ready, and effective reflexes in challenging situations. To provide incentives to young people for getting exposed to adventure activities. Eligibility A person should have excellent performance and outstanding qualities of leadership, a sense of adventure discipline and continuous achievement in one particular field of adventure Land, Air or Water (Sea). The award may be given posthumously if such an occasion arises. Exclusions No award will be conferred for a second time to the same person under the same category. The government of India may cancel or annul the award to any person under circumstances, which, in the opinion of the Government, might render such person unworthy of the award. Decoration The award consists of a Bronze statuette, a certificate, a blazer with a silken tie/a saree and an award money of Rs. 15 Lakhs. The Awards are presented to the winners along with Arjuna Awards by the Government of India. Arjuna Awards: they are given for Outstanding Performance in Sports and Games. It is the second-highest sporting honour in India, the highest being the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award. No. of Awardees Awards can be given in four categories namely: Land Adventure, Water (Sea) Adventure, Air Adventure and Life Time Achievement. Ordinarily not more than one Award will be made in each category. The Ministry may increase the number of awards in a particular year with the approval of the Hon’ble Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports. MUST READ: Golden Globe Awards. SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards : (2023) Major Dhyan Chand:                   For the most Khel Ratna Award spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over the period of the last four years. Arjuna Award:                              For the lifetime achievement of a sportsperson. Dronacharya Award:                   To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams. Rashtriya Khel:                          To recognize the Protsahan Puraskar contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Order of the Nile Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently, Egypt’s ‘Order of the Nile’ was conferred to Prime Minister Modi. Background:- Prime Minister Narendra Modi received the ‘Order of the

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –28th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Congo rainforest Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent reports suggest, that the Congo rainforest continues to vanish with half a million hectares lost in 2022. Key findings of the study:- The Congo rainforest lost half a million hectares (mha) of forest last year. The Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) lost over 500,000 hectares in 2022. It noted that 4.1 mha of primary tropical forest were lost worldwide last year Of this, Brazil accounted for 43 per cent of the total tropical primary forest loss, followed by DRC (12.1 per cent) and Bolivia. This destruction in natural forests generated 2.7 billion tonnes of CO2. The total area of humid primary forest in DRC decreased by 6.1 per cent during this period. Primary forests: forests of native tree species, where there are no clearly visible indications of human activities. Most of the primary forest loss consists of small clearings near cyclical agricultural areas, according to the report. Cyclical agricultural areas: land that is cleared (using slash-and-burn techniques) for the short-term cultivation of crops and left fallow for forests and soil nutrients to regenerate. Economic factors may be driving deforestation. Most Congolese rely on forests to meet their food and energy needs and thus reducing primary forest loss in the region remains a challenge. The drivers of forest loss across DRC are slash-and-burn agriculture, uncontrolled bushfires, charcoal production for local and regional markets, cattle ranching, and illegal (artisanal) logging Charcoal is the dominant form of energy in the region, which is generated by cutting and burning timber. About Congo rainforest:- IMAGE SOURCE: adlance22.blogspot.com The Congo is the world’s second-largest rainforest. (UPSC MAINS: India’s stakes in Africa) World’s largest rainforest is the Bordering countries: The Congo Rainforest encompasses six African countries:– Cameroon, Central African Republic, the Republic of Congo, the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC), Equatorial Guinea, and Gabon. Climate: it has a tropical climate year-round, with heavy precipitation and high humidity and temperatures. Plants: It houses approximately 10,000 tropical plants, 30% unique to the region. Wildlife: There are also 400 species of mammals, over 600 tree species, 10,000 animal species, 1,000 bird species, and 700 fish species. This includes endangered wildlife such as forest elephants, chimpanzees, and bonobos. Economic Significance: the Congo Basin provides food, medicine, water, materials and shelter for over 75 million people. Human inhabitants: More than 150 ethnic groups have lived in the Congo rainforest area for over 50,000 years. Among these ethnic groups, the Ba’Aka, BaKa, BaMbuti, Efe and other related groups are often referred to as Pygmy: a member of any human group whose adult males grow to less than 59 inches (150 cm) in average height. They rely on hunting and gathering for survival in the rainforest. MUST READ: India-Africa: Challenges & Way Ahead SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following trees: (2023) Jackfruit (Artoca7pus heterophyllus) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin? (2023) Cameroon Nigeria South Sudan Uganda Provident Fund (PF) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) has extended the deadline for members and pensioners to apply for higher Provident Fund (PF). About Provident Fund (PF):- Provident fund (PF) is a fixed amount of money that is contributed by employees from their salary until retirement. It is used to provide a lump sum or monthly payments to salaried employees when they retire. Regulator: the government regulates provident funds and in India through the Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (EPFO). Benefits of PF:- The provident fund provides good investment opportunities to individuals upon retirement. The one-time inflow of money can aid them in changing homes, opening new businesses, educating dependents, medical emergencies or just investing in mutual funds. Type of Provident funds There are various types of provident funds: some are exclusive to government employees while others are meant for private employees. Employees Provident Fund (EPF) It is the most popular type of PF in India. Applicability: All businesses or corporations with more than 20 employees must offer retirement benefits to the employees and contribute to the PF. It also covers certain other establishments which may be notified by the Central Government even if they employ less than 20 persons each. Implementation:– The employee has to pay a certain contribution towards the provident fund (PF) and the employer on a monthly basis pays the same amount. At the end of retirement or during the service (under some circumstances), the employee gets the lump sum amount including the interest on the PF contributed. Benefits: It offers higher interest rates. The amount that the employee pays is matched by the employer. A major part of the sum is handed out at the time of retirement. The rest is paid in instalments as a Partial withdrawals for education, marriage, illness and house construction is allowed. Maturity: the EPF matures only on retirement. Taxation: The amount received is tax-free as long as the employee has been working with the company for more than 5 years. Public Provident Fund (PPF) The Public Provident Fund is a saving scheme. It is available to everyone in India. It can be opened by both permanently employed or self-employed individuals. Eligibility: PPF can be opened by any resident of India. Amount deposited: The minimum amount to be deposited is ₹500, and the maximum is ₹1.5 lacs in a financial year. The amount is paid after 15 years at pre-decided rates.These rates are fixed by the central government every quarter. Taxation: PPF amounts received on maturity are tax-free. PPF Vs EPF: PPF is mainly a savings scheme, while EPF also offers pensionary benefits. General Provident Fund (GPF) General Provident Fund is also known as the Statutory Provident Fund. Eligibility: It is only available for government servants. These include permanent employees, re-employed pensioners, or temporary employees with at least one year of service. Amount contributed: 6

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –29th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) National Cooperative Union of India (NCUI) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the 17th Indian Cooperative Congress (ICC) organized by the National Cooperative Union of India (NCUI) recently. Background:- National Cooperative Union of India (NCUI) is organizing the two days Indian Cooperative Congress. The theme of Amrit Kaal: Prosperity through Cooperation for a Vibrant India. The Union Home and Cooperation Minister Amit Shah will chair it. Objective of the Indian Cooperative Congress:- To discuss various trends in the cooperative movement. To showcase the best practices being adopted by the successful cooperatives. To deliberate on challenges being faced by the cooperative world. About the National Cooperative Union of India (NCUI):- Established: 1929. HQ: New Delhi. It is the apex body in India which represents all sectors of the Indian Co-operative Movement. (UPSC CSE: India’s Cooperative Sector) Objectives of NCUI:- To promote and develop the co-operative movement in India. To educate, guide and assist the people in their efforts. To build up and expand the co-operative sector. NCUI membership:- It is open to national and state-level co-operative organisations as well as multi-state co-operative societies. As of 2016, NCUI had 260 members, including, 17 National, 163 State and 80 Multi-State Cooperatives. Function: it provides service as an exponent of co-operative opinion in accordance with cooperative principles.  MUST READ: Cooperative Sector Reforms SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Research Foundation Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, the government has decided to bring the National Research Foundation (NRF) Bill, 2023 to strengthen the research ecosystem in the country. Background:- The Bill approved by the Union Cabinet will pave the way to establish National Research Foundation (NRF). The Bill will repeal the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) established by an act of Parliament in 2008 and subsume it into NRF. It will seed, grow and promote research and development and foster a culture of research and innovation throughout India’s universities, colleges, and research institutions. About National Research Foundation:- It is an apex body to promote, fund and mentor scientific research in higher education institutions. Initial budget of Rs 50,000 crore for over a five-year period between 2023 and 2028. The NRF would also provide fellowships for post-doctoral research, the funding for which is not available right now. Objective:- Cultivating the culture of research in universities and colleges. Facilitating research in universities across the country. (UPSC MAINS: Factors that have constrained research and innovation capabilities in India.) Historical Background:- The proposal for an NRF was first floated in the public domain by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2019, during his address to the Indian Science Congress. The NRF found a second mention on January 20 of that year during a joint session of Parliament. Later, it was mentioned in the Finance Minister’s speech during the Budget Session in July 2019. The creation of NRF was also one of the key recommendations of the National Education Policy 2020. 2023: the Union Cabinet approved the National Research Foundation(NRF),2023 bill to establish NRF. Administration of NRF:- The NRF would be administratively housed in the Department of Science and Technology (DST). It would have a 16-member governing board. Of these two members from DST, five from industry, one from humanities and six experts would be selected depending on the nature of the project being evaluated. Structure of NRF:- Prime Minister will be the ex-officio president of the board and the Minister of Science and Technology and the Minister of Education will be the ex-officio vice presidents. The NRF’s functioning will be governed by an executive council chaired by the Principal Scientific Advisor to the government of India. Funding for NRF:- Of the Rs 50,000 crore estimated funding over the next five years, Rs 36,000 crore would come from the industry. Scientific research projects under the NRF would be funded by the DST and industry on a 50:50 basis. The Department of Science and Technology’s main funding body, the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) will be absorbed in the NRF. SERB: it was set up in 2008. It is responsible for funding science and technology start-ups, setting up incubators and funding science-related projects in central and state universities.  Function of NRF:- The NRF will forge collaborations among the industry, academia, government departments and research institutions. It will create an interface mechanism for the participation and contribution of industries and state governments in addition to the scientific and line ministries. MUST READ: Number of women scientists goes up SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –30th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) Syllabus Prelims – Important Institutions Context: Recently, the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) in association with S. K. Somaiya College in Mumbai celebrated the 17th Statistics Day. Background:- This year, the theme selected for Statistics Day, 2023 is ‘Alignment of State Indicator Framework with National Indicator Framework for Monitoring Sustainable Development Goals’. National Statistics Day: it is celebrated on 29th June every year on the birth anniversary of Prof. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis: He is considered the father of modern statistics in India. He founded the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) and shaped the Planning Commission. About National Sample Survey Office (NSSO):- Established: 1950. The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) is now merged with the Central Statistical Office to form the National Statistical Office (NSO) in 2019. Central Statistical Office: it was responsible for the coordination of statistical activities in the country. Objective: to conduct large-scale sample surveys throughout India. Head: by a Director General. Ministry: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation It was the largest organization in India responsible for conducting periodic socio-economic surveys. (UPSC CSE: All India Debt & Investment Survey NSS 77th round) Functions of NSSO:- It is responsible for the conduct of large-scale sample surveys in diverse fields on an all-India basis. Primarily data are collected through nationwide household surveys on various socio-economic subjects, Annual Survey of Industries (ASI), etc. It collects data on rural and urban prices. It plays a significant role in the improvement of crop statistics through supervision of the area enumeration and crop estimation surveys of the State agencies. It also maintains a frame of urban area units for use in sample surveys in urban areas. The NSSO has four Divisions: Survey Design and Research Division (SDRD): is responsible for the technical planning of surveys, formulation of concepts and presentation of survey results etc. HQ: Kolkata. Field Operations Division (FOD): it is responsible for the collection of primary data for the surveys undertaken by NSS. HQ: Delhi/Faridabad. Data Processing Division (DPD): it is responsible for sample selection, software development, processing, validation and tabulation of the data collected through surveys. HQ: Kolkata. Survey Coordination Division (SCD): it coordinates all the activities of different Divisions of NSS. HQ: New Delhi. MUST READ: National Statistical Commission (NSC) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes. Statement-II : Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?  Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.  Both Statement-I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is· incorrect  Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Central Board for Film Certification (CBFC) Syllabus Prelims – Important Institutions Context: Central Board for Film Certification (CBFC) clarified that the film Bahattar Hoorain, was granted ‘A’ certification in 2019. About Central Board for Film Certification (CBFC):- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideShare Establishment: 1951 It is a statutory body under the Cinematograph Act 1952. (UPSC CSE: Amendments to Cinematograph Act) Ministry: Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. HQ: Mumbai, Maharashtra. Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they are certified by the CBFC. Objectives of CBFC:- To ensure good and healthy entertainment in accordance with the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952 and the Cinematograph (Certification) Rules 1983. To grant a certificate to regulate the public exhibition of films in India. To promote recreation, education, and good and healthy entertainment to the public according to the provisions of the Cinematograph Act, 1952, and Cinematograph (Certification) Rules, 1983. Structure of CBFC:- CBFC board: is headed by a central government-appointed chairperson and 12-45 non-official members. The members are eminent persons from social science, education, law, arts or films background appointed. Functions:- It examines films for content that may be harmful or unsuitable for some particular audiences, particularly children and young people. It ensures that films adhere to ethical standards, respecting cultural values and societal norms. After evaluating the content and classifying the film, the CBFC grants a certificate that permits the film’s public exhibition. Appeals:- Filmmakers can appeal against the CBFC’s decisions in the Film Certification Appellate Tribunal (FCAT). FCAT: it is an independent body to review and resolves appeals. Films are certified under four categories:- “U”: unrestricted public exhibition. “A”: restricted to adult audiences. “U/A”: unrestricted public exhibition subject to parental guidance for children below the age of twelve. “S”: restricted to specialized audiences such as doctors or scientists. The board may also refuse to certify. MUST READ: Reforms SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –3rd July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Uniform Civil Code Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: As per recent reports, the Parliamentary Committee is set to discuss the Uniform Civil Code in the upcoming meeting. Background:- The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, Law and Justice will hold a meeting on the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) tomorrow. BJP Rajya Sabha MP Sushil Modi will head the Committee. The UCC proposes to formulate and implement personal laws of citizens, which apply to all citizens equally regardless of their religion. About Uniform Civil Code:- IMAGE SOURCE: The Times of India UCC is a generic set of governing laws for every citizen without taking into consideration religion. The Constitution in Article 44 requires the State to strive to secure for its citizens a Uniform Civil Code(UCC) throughout India. (UPSC CSE: Uniform Civil Code) Article 44:According to this article, “The State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India”. Historical Background:- The Supreme Court for the first time directed the Parliament to frame a UCC in the case of Mohammad Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum in the year 1985. In this case, Shah Bano claimed maintenance from her husband under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure after she was given triple talaq by him. However, the government overturned the Shah Bano case decision by way of the Muslim Women (Right to Protection on Divorce) Act, 1986 which curtailed the right of a Muslim woman to maintenance under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure. Need of UCC:- Gender Justice:– It is commonly observed that personal laws of almost all religions are discriminatory towards women. Men are usually granted upper preferential status in matters of succession and inheritance. Muslim men are allowed to marry multiple wives, but women are forbidden from having multiple husbands. Even after the 2005 amendment to the Hindu Succession Act, women are still considered part of their husband’s families after marriage. So, in case a Hindu widow dies without any heirs or will, her property will automatically go to her husband’s family. Men (fathers) are also treated as ‘natural guardians’ and are given preference under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act. A uniform civil code will establish gender justice by bringing both men and women to par. Promote national unity: A unified personal law irrespective of gender, caste, creed, etc. will boost national unity and solidarity. Simplification of laws: It will eliminate the overlapping of laws. Different personal laws (Codified and Uncodified) practised in India:- Hindu Personal Law Hindu personal law is codified in four bills: the Hindu Marriage Act, Hindu Succession Act, Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, and Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act. The term ‘Hindu’ also includes Sikhs, Jains and Buddhists for the purpose of these laws. It was codified by the Parliament in 1956. Muslim personal laws A 1939 Act enacted by the British said that their personal Law (ie, the Shariat) would govern Muslims. The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Act, 1937 is a short statute with five provisions. It covers provisions of marriage, divorce, children’s custody or inheritance Intestate succession, dissolution of marriage etc. Secular’ laws:- These laws disregard religion altogether. These include: Special Marriage Act: for Inter-religion marriages and Guardians and Wards Act: establishes the rights and duties of guardians. Other laws:- In the Northeast, there are more than 200 tribes with their own varied customary laws. Apart from it, different personal laws also govern Christians and Jews. Thus, a UCC will simplify these laws into one standard. Parliamentary Standing Committees These are the permanent and regular committees. They are constituted from time to time according to the provisions of an Act of Parliament or Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business. Both houses of Parliament, Rajya Sabha, and Lok Sabha have similar Committee structures with a few exceptions. Parliamentary committees draw their authority from:- Article 105: on privileges of Parliament members. Article 118: on Parliament’s authority to make rules for regulating its procedure and conduct of business. MUST READ: Parliamentary Committees SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean? (2023) The principle of natural justice The procedure established by law Fair application of law Equality before law Q.2) In India, which one of the following (2023) Constitutional Amendments were widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights. 1st Amendment 42nd Amendment 44th Amendment 86th Amendment National Investigation Agency (NIA) Syllabus Prelims – Important Institutions Context: Recently, the National Investigation Agency (NIA) conducted raids at multiple locations in Bihar, Gujarat, and Uttar Pradesh. Background:- The NIA conducted raids at multiple locations in Bihar, Gujarat, and Uttar Pradesh in connection with a radicalized module run by Pakistan-based suspects – Ghazwa-e-Hind. During the raids, it seized incriminating material, including digital devices and documents. About National Investigation Agency (NIA):- NIA is functioning as the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency in India. Establishment: 2008. National Investigation Agency Act, enacted on 31-12-08, established it. (UPSC MAINS: NIA) Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs. HQ: New Delhi. It is a central agency to investigate and prosecute offences:- Affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India, security of the State, and friendly relations with foreign States. Against atomic and nuclear facilities. Smuggling in High-Quality Counterfeit Indian Currency. Objectives:- It implements international treaties, agreements, conventions and resolutions of the United Nations, its agencies and other international organisations. Historical Background:- The agency at the Central level was created for the investigation of offences related to terrorism and certain other Acts post-2008 Mumbai terror attacks. Functions of NIA:- In-depth professional investigation of scheduled offences using the latest scientific methods. Ensuring effective and speedy trials. Developing into a thoroughly professional, result-oriented organization. Developing a professional workforce through regular training and exposure to the best practices and procedures. Maintaining professional and cordial relations with the governments of States and Union Territories and other law enforcement agencies in compliance with the legal provisions of the NIA Act.

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –1st July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council (LAHDC) Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, Union Minister for Heavy Industries Dr Mahendra Nath Pandey had a meeting with Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council (LAHDC) and Commerce and Industry Chamber at Leh and reviewed the industry sector.  Background:- The focus of the meeting was on strengthening indigenous manufacturing in Leh Ladakh. LAHDC requested the minister for the provision of Freight or Transport -Subsidies for the procurement of raw materials like Cement, Steel, Wood Iron and glass. They also sought a grant of permission for the enhancement of Truck Carriage capacity from 9 tonnes to 15 tonnes at Zojila Pass on the Srinagar to Leh National Highway. They further requested some relaxation in the reservation of locally manufactured products by local Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME) unit holders for procurement to be procured by the Government Department and organization. About Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council (LAHDC):- It is an autonomous district council that administers the Leh district of Ladakh. Establishment: The council was created under the Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council Act of 1995. Composition: LAHDC-Leh has 30 seats and the government nominates four councilors. Working:- The autonomous hill council work with village panchayats to take decisions on economic development, healthcare, education, land use, taxation, and local governance. These decisions are further reviewed at the block headquarters in the presence of the chief executive councillor and executive councillors. Leh, which is a Buddhist-dominated district of Ladakh, has demanded the implementation of the sixth schedule for the Union territory to guard against demographic change and dilution of the unique cultural and tribal identity. About Ladakh Ladakh is one of the most sparsely populated regions in Jammu and Kashmir. It is the highest plateau in the State of Jammu & Kashmir. Population: The biggest ethnic group is Buddhist having 77.30% of the population followed by Muslims with 13.78% and Hindus with 8.16%. MUST READ: Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council (LAHDC), Leh SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: As per recent reports, India will host the 23rd summit of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Summit in a virtual format.  Background:- Prime Minister Narendra Modi will chair the 23rd Summit of the SCO Council of Heads of State on 4th July. India assumed the rotating Chairmanship of SCO at the Samarkand Summit on 16 September last year. India has set up new pillars of cooperation under its Chairmanship by emphasizing startups and innovation, traditional medicine, digital inclusion, youth empowerment, and shared Buddhist heritage. It has worked towards fostering greater people-to-people ties that celebrate the historical and civilizational bonds between nations. About Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO):- SCO is a permanent Eurasian political, economic and military organization. Objective: to maintain peace, security and stability in the region. Establishment: 2001. The SCO Charter was signed in 2002 and entered into force in 2003. It is a statutory document which outlines the organization’s goals and principles, as well as its structure and core activities. SCO’s official languages: Russian and Chinese. Founding members: Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Russia and Tajikistan were members of the Shanghai 5. Following the accession of Uzbekistan to the organization in 2001, the Shanghai 5 was renamed the SCO. India and Pakistan became members in 2017. Current Members: India, China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. Structure of the SCO: Heads of State Council – The top SCO body that decides on internal SCO operations, interactions with other states and international organizations, and international concerns. Heads of Government Council – approves the budget, evaluates, and decides on topics pertaining to SCO’s economic domains of engagement. Council of Foreign Ministers – Considers problems concerning day-to-day operations. Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) – An organization formed to combat terrorism, separatism, and extremism. MUST READ: Solidarity-2023 SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank Missile Technology Control Regime Shanghai Cooperation Organization India is a member of which of the above? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: International agreement/ set-up Subject (2020) Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Sickle Cell Anemia Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the National Sickle Cell Anemia Eradication Mission 2047, recently.  Background:- The union budget of FY 2023-24, announced to launch of a mission to eliminate sickle cell anemia by 2047. Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate the National Sickle Cell Anemia Eradication Mission 2047 in Lalpur village of Madhya Pradesh on 1st July 2023. The mission entails a focus on awareness creation, universal screening of approximately seven crore people in the 0-40 years age group in affected tribal areas and counselling

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