Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Chandrayaan-3 Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, ISRO brought back the Chandrayaan-3 propulsion module from the Moon to Earth’s orbit. About Chandrayaan-3:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA Chandrayaan-3 is the successor to the Chandrayaan-2 mission. Launch Vehicle: Mark-III (LVM3). Launched site: Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC), Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Composition: It consists of an indigenous Lander module (LM), a Propulsion module (PM), and a Rover. Lander: a spacecraft that descends towards and comes to rest on, the surface of an astronomical body. Propulsion module: a box-like structure, mounted with a large solar panel on one side and a large cylinder on top. Rover: a small vehicle that can move over rough ground, often used on the surface of other planets, sometimes controlled from the earth. The Lander and the Rover have scientific payloads to carry out experiments on the lunar surface. There will not be any orbiters like Chandrayaan 2 in it. Objectives of Chandrayaan-3 mission:- To demonstrate a Safe and Soft Landing on the Lunar Surface. To demonstrate Rover roving on the moon. To conduct in-situ scientific experiments. Lander payloads:- Chandra’s Surface Thermophysical Experiment (ChaSTE): to measure the thermal conductivity and temperature Instrument for Lunar Seismic Activity (ILSA): for measuring the seismicity around the landing site Langmuir Probe (LP): to estimate the plasma density and its variations. A passive Laser Retroreflector Array from NASA is accommodated for lunar laser ranging studies. Rover payloads:- Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer (APXS) and Laser Induced Breakdown Spectroscope (LIBS): for deriving the elemental composition near the landing site. Propulsion Module Payload:- Spectro-polarimetry of Habitable Planet Earth (SHAPE): Future discoveries of smaller planets in reflected light would allow us to probe into a variety of Exo-planets which would qualify for habitability or for the presence of life. About GSLV-Mk III:- Weighs: 641 tones. Capacity: GSLV can take 10,000-kg satellites to lower earth orbits. It is also known as the Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3). It is a three-stage vehicle. It has two solid motor strap-ons, a liquid propellant core stage, and a cryogenic stage. It is the heaviest and the shortest among India’s operational launch vehicles MUST READ: Gaganyaan SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) has recommended to the authorities that the Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary abutting the Bandipur Tiger Reserve be declared as a core critical tiger habitat. Background:- This followed a site visit by Assistant Inspector General of Forests, NTCA, Ms. Harini Venugopal. The visit followed a slew of issues raised by conservation activist Giridhar Kulkarni pertaining to Bandipur. About Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary:- Location: Mysuru district, Karnataka. Geographic Area: Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary encompasses 30.32 sq km. (Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS)) The northern part of Nugu WLS is occupied by the Nugu Reservoir. Nugu is a vulnerable area as far as human–elephant conflicts are concerned. In 1974, Nugu was declared a Wildlife Sanctuary. It was added to the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve in the year 2003-2004. The average amount of rainfall received in this area is Most of the vegetation in the forests is dry, deciduous, interspersed with patches of plantations. Flora: Anogeissus latifolia, Tectonia grandis, Terminalia tomentosa etc. Fauna: elephant, leopards, jungle cats, wild pig, spotted deer, sambar deer, barking deer, etc. MUST READ: Tungareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? (2020) Corbett Ranthambore Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Sunderbans Guillain-Barre syndrome Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent research found out that the risk of developing ‘extremely rare’ Guillain-Barre syndrome increases due to COVID-19. About Guillain-Barre syndrome:- Guillain-Barre (gee-YAH-buh-RAY) syndrome is a rare disorder in which the body’s immune system attacks your nerves. Weakness and tingling in your hands and feet are usually the first symptoms. These sensations can quickly spread, eventually paralyzing your whole body. In its most severe form Guillain-Barre syndrome is a medical emergency. Most people with the condition must be hospitalized to receive treatment. The exact cause of Guillain-Barre syndrome is unknown. But two-thirds of patients report symptoms of an infection in the six weeks preceding. These include COVID-19, respiratory or gastrointestinal infection or Zika virus. Symptoms:- A pins and needles sensation in your fingers, toes, ankles or wrists Weakness in your legs that spreads to your upper body Unsteady walking or inability to walk or climb stairs Difficulty with facial movements, including speaking, chewing or swallowing Double vision or inability to move the eyes Severe pain that may feel achy, shooting or cramp-like and may be worse at night Difficulty with bladder control or bowel function Rapid heart rate Low or high blood pressure Difficulty breathing Types:- Guillain-Barre syndrome has several forms. The main types are: Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy (AIDP): the most common form in North America and Europe. The most common sign of AIDP is muscle weakness that starts in the lower part of your body and spreads upward. Miller-Fisher syndrome (MFS): in which paralysis starts in the eyes. MFS is also associated with unsteady gait. MFS is less common in the U.S. but more common in Asia. Acute motor axonal neuropathy (AMAN) and acute motor-sensory axonal neuropathy (AMSAN):are less common in the U.S. But AMAN and AMSAN are more frequent in China, Japan and

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Gram Manchitra application Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, the Panchayati Raj Ministry Launched the  “Gram Manchitra” App. Background:- This information regarding the “Gram Manchitra” App was given by the Union Minister of State for Panchayati Raj, Shri Kapil Moreshwar Patil in a written reply in Lok Sabha. About Gram Manchitra application:- Launched: October 2019. Ministry: Ministry of Panchayati Raj Objectives: to encourage Spatial Planning by the Gram Panchayat. Salient Features:- The Geographic Information System (GIS) application “Gram Manchitra” (https://grammanchitra.gov.in) facilitates and supports Gram Panchayats to perform planning at the Gram Panchayat level using geospatial technology. A geographic information system (GIS) is an online system that analyses and displays geographically referenced information. It uses data that is attached to a unique location. Gram Manchitra provides a single/ unified Geo-Spatial platform to better visualize the various developmental works to be taken up across the different sectors and provide a decision support system for the Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP). Complementing “Gram Manchitra,” the Ministry has introduced “mActionSoft,” a mobile-based solution designed to capture photos with Geo-Tags, incorporating GPS coordinates. ( Bharat Net Project) This feature facilitates the geo-tagging of assets at three crucial stages: before the commencement of work, during the work, and upon completion. The resulting repository of information encompasses various sectors such as natural resource management, water harvesting, sanitation, agriculture, check dams, and irrigation channels. The assets geo-tagged using the “mActionSoft” application seamlessly integrate with “Gram Manchitra,” offering an enhanced visualization of developmental works in Gram Panchayats. This integration ensures transparency and accessibility of information related to assets created under finance commission funds. This application is also linked with the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) report and Mission Antyodaya. All this information is available in a single window, which will assist the Gram Panchayat user in better visualization of works during planning. Real-time monitoring of activities or development work implementation status and progress of execution of various schemes can be easily tracked. Benefits:- Gram Manchitra provides several planning tools that use GIS technology to help Gram Panchayat officials develop realistic and achievable development plans. These tools provide a decision support system in the preparation of development plans viz. tools for identifying potential sites for development projects, asset tracking, estimating the costs of projects, and assessing the impact of projects. It will help Gram Panchayat officials develop realistic and achievable development plans. MUST READ: E-PANCHAYAT FACILITY SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks in India, consider the following statements: (2020) They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. They can issue equity shares and preference shares. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, of 1949 through an Amendment in 1996 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Electoral bonds Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Political funding through anonymous electoral bonds shot up by over 400% during the recent Assembly elections in Telangana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Mizoram, as compared to the last polls in these states in 2018. Background:- The latest sales (29th tranche) under the electoral bond scheme saw the highest sales in Telangana’s capital of Hyderabad (Rs 359 crore), followed by Mumbai (Rs 259.30 crore), and Delhi (Rs 182.75 crore). About Electoral bonds:- IMAGE SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS An Electoral Bond is like a promissory note that may be purchased by a person who is a citizen of India or incorporated or established in India. A person being an individual can buy Electoral Bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals. The bonds are like banknotes that are payable to the bearer on demand and are interest-free. Historical Background:- The electoral bonds system was introduced in 2017 by way of a Finance bill. It was implemented in 2018. Salient Features:- Electoral Bonds serve as a means for individuals and entities to make donations to registered political parties while maintaining donor anonymity. State Bank of India (SBI) issues the bonds in denominations of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh, and Rs 1 crore. It is payable to the bearer on demand and interest-free. It is purchased by Indian citizens or entities established in India. It can be bought individually or jointly with other individuals. It is valid for 15 calendar days from the date of issue. The State Bank of India (SBI) is the authorized issuer. Electoral Bonds are issued through designated SBI branches. Electoral Bonds can be purchased digitally or through cheques. Encashment only through an authorized bank account of the political party. Political Parties must disclose their bank account with the Election Commission of India (ECI). Eligibility:- Only the Political Parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 and which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last General Election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State, shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds. Advantages of Electoral Bonds:- Ensures Accountability: Donations through Electoral Bonds will only be credited to the party bank account disclosed with the ECI. Discourage Cash: The Purchase will be possible only through a limited number of notified banks and that too through cheque and digital payments. More Transparency: It helps the political parties to operate in a more transparent manner with the election commission, regulatory authorities and the general public at large. Maintains Anonymity: The individuals, groups of individuals, NGOs, religious and other

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   National Mission for Clean Ganga Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, Under the National Mission for Clean Ganga a total of 450 projects have been taken up at an estimated cost of Rs. 38,022.37 Crore, out of which 270 projects have been completed and made operational. Background:- So far, a total of 450 projects have been taken up at an estimated cost of Rs. 38,022.37 Crore, out of which 270 projects have been completed and made operational. About National Mission for Clean Ganga:- Launched: 12th August 2011. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Objective: to ensure effective control of pollution and rejuvenation of the river Ganga by adopting a river basin approach to promote inter-sectoral coordination for comprehensive planning and management. ( Cleaning of River Ganga) NMCG was listed as a society under the Societies Registration Act, of 1860. It is responsible for implementing the government’s ambitious Namami Gange programme. It acted as the implementation arm of the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) which was constituted under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act (EPA),1986. NGRBA was dissolved in 2016 and replaced by the National Council for Rejuvenation, Protection, and Management of River Ganga NMCG is an initiative taken by the Government of India to address the pollution of the river Ganga by providing financial and technical assistance. Further, to maintain minimum ecological flows in the river Ganga to ensure water quality and environmentally sustainable development. The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) has undertaken comprehensive public awareness campaigns to foster a sense of responsibility and engagement among the public in efforts to clean and conserve the Ganga River. Through educational materials, community outreach, school programs, mass media campaigns, and online engagement. Challenges:- Land Acquisition: In many instances, the Detailed Project Reports (which prescribe all the steps necessary to execute a project, and the roles of agencies) needed revision. Lack of Local Initiatives: State Governments are under the impression that building treatment plants was entirely the Centre’s responsibility. Improper Funding: Though NMCG is a ₹20,000 crore mission, the government has so far given in-principle approval for projects worth ₹37,396 crore, of which only ₹14,745 crore has been released to States for infrastructure work, as of June 2023. Municipal Solid Waste Management: The mission faced criticism for not adequately addressing the problem of municipal solid waste flowing into the Ganga. Inadequate Sewerage Coverage: Much of India’s urban population resides outside sewerage networks, resulting in a substantial portion of waste not reaching STPs. Improper Waste Disposal: The study by the Quality Council of India revealed that rubbish heaps are found near ghats in numerous towns along the river, indicating improper waste disposal practices. This poses a threat to the cleanliness of the Ganga. MUST READ: River Cities Alliance SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)  Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? (2022) Cauvery Manjira Pennar Tungabhadra Q.2) R2 Code of Practices” constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2022) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources Ethics Committee Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the ethics committee of the Lok Sabha is believed to have recommended the expulsion of Trinamool Congress Member of Parliament (MP) Mahua Moitra from the Lok Sabha for her “unethical conduct” and “breach of privileges”. Background:- Ethics Committee, tasked with overseeing the moral conduct of parliamentarians. About the ethics committee:- The ethics committee was constituted in 2000. Objective: to oversee the moral and ethical conduct of members and examine cases of ‘unethical conduct’ referred to it. The Committee examines complaints filed against members of the House by other members; outsiders through a member; or referred by the Speaker. The Committee makes a prima facie inquiry before deciding to examine a complaint. It presents its report to the Speaker, who places it before the House for consideration. The term ‘unethical’ is not defined. It is left to the Committee to decide whether any act is unethical or not. Privileges Committees:- While the Ethics Committee handles cases of unethical conduct, the Privileges Committee, or Special Inquiry Committee, deals with more severe accusations against a member. These committees have historical precedence, with a special committee in 1951 finding a member guilty of promoting a business interest through questions in return for financial benefits. About Committees of Parliament:- Parliamentary committees are broadly categorized as Standing Committees and Ad Hoc Committees. Standing Committees are permanent and operate continuously, while Ad Hoc Committees are temporary and disband upon task completion. It includes Financial Committees, Departmental Standing Committees, Committees to Enquire, Committees to Scrutinise and Control, Committees Relating to the Day-to-Day Business of the House, and House-Keeping Committees. Ad Hoc Committees are subdivided into Inquiry Committees and Advisory Committees. The Parliamentary committees draw their authority from the constitution. Article 105: Powers, privileges, etc., of the houses of Parliament and of the members and committees thereof. Article 118: Each House of Parliament may make rules for regulations, subject to the provisions of this constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business. Functions of the Parliamentary Committees:- Reviewing and scrutinising the work of the government. Power to summon ministers and officials. Parliamentary committees play a key role in the legislative process by examining and reviewing bills before they are passed into law. They can make recommendations for changes to the bill and ensure that it is consistent with the Constitution and the laws of the land. Signification of Parliamentary Committees- Parliamentary committees are crucial for legislative decision-making, offering expertise to MPs who may lack in-depth knowledge on specific issues. These committees, acting as mini-parliaments, comprise MPs from various parties, elected proportionally. They serve as instruments for meticulous scrutiny, closely examining bills and seeking input from external stakeholders, including the public. MUST READ: Joint Parliamentary Committee SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Infinity Forum 2.0 Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi will address the 2nd Edition of the flagship Financial Technology event – Infinity Forum 2.0. Background:- Distinguished speakers from the Central and State Governments include Chief Minister of Gujarat Bhupendra Patel, Union Minister of Commerce and Industry Piyush Goyal, and Minister for Railways, Communications and IT Ashwini Vaishnaw will witness the event. About Infinity Forum 2.0:- Hosted by: International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) and Gujarat International Finance Tec-City, GIFT City. Theme ‘GIFT-IFSC: Nerve Centre for New Age Global Financial Services. It is Organized as a pre-cursor event to the Vibrant Gujarat Global Summit 2024. The 2nd edition of the Infinity Forum 2.0, will be held in hybrid mode, with an invite-only in-person event scheduled in GIFT City and for virtual participation from participants across the globe. The Infinity Forum is a global thought leadership platform on financial services, where progressive ideas, pressing problems, and innovative technologies from across the world get Discovered, Discussed and Developed into solutions and opportunities. The 1st edition of the Forum was organized in December 2021. It will also witness participation and insightful discussions by several luminaries from the financial sector in India and across the globe. The event will be preceded by an Investors Meet for FinTech entities which are authorized by IFSCA or recommended by institutions having MoU with IFSCA or accelerators which are authorized by IFSCA. The theme of the 2nd edition of Infinity Forum is ‘GIFT-IFSC: Nerve Centre for New Age Global Financial Services’, which will be dovetailed through the following three tracks: Plenary Track: Making of a New Age International Financial Centre Green Track: Making a case for a “Green Stack” Silver Track: Longevity Finance Hub at GIFT IFSC Each track will comprise an Infinity Talk by a senior industry leader and a discussion by a panel of industry experts and practitioners from the financial sector in India and across the globe, providing practical insights and implementable solutions. The Forum will witness the participation of 300+ CXOs with strong online participation from India and a global audience across 20+ countries including the USA, UK, Singapore, South Africa, UAE, Australia and Germany. The event will also be attended by Vice-Chancellors from foreign universities and representatives of foreign embassies. MUST READ: National Stock Exchange (NSE) and Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following:  (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) In India, the Central Bank’s function as the “lender of last resort” usually refers to which of the following? (2021) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 3 only Egypt’s mummified baboons Syllabus Prelims –HISTORY Context: The mystery origin of Egypt’s mummified baboons has been finally cracked recently. Background:- The scientists have recently retrieved ancient mitochondrial DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) from a mummified baboon found at the Gabbanat el-Qurud site in Egypt, which will help discover its origin. About Egypt’s mummified baboons:- The Egyptian god Thoth was represented by a baboon — which is odd because baboons aren’t native to Egypt. In 1905, Egyptologists Louis Lortet and Claude Gaillard discovered mummified baboons in Gabbanat el-Qurud. Gabbanat el-Qurud is also known as the ‘Valley of the Monkeys’. The baboons belonged to the ancient city of Adulis in present-day coastal Eritrea, a trade centre between the 1st and 7th centuries AD. The lost city of Punt can be one of the potential locations of its origin. The city of Punt was mentioned in accounts of Greco-Roman historians and was associated with the trade of leopard skin, gold, and live exotic animals. Significance of discovery:- The study aligns with historical accounts, drawing attention to the significance of the Red Sea in trade relationships between India, Egypt, and Europe.  About Baboons:- Baboons are some of the world’s largest monkeys. All baboons have a strong torso, a snoutlike face, the same dentition with long, sharp canine teeth, and powerful jaws. Distribution: Africa & Arabia. Habitat: prefer savanna and other semi-arid habitats, though a few live in tropical forests. Baboon social behaviour is matrilineal, in which a network of social relationships is sustained over three generations by the female members of the species. MUST READ: India-Egypt relations SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements: (2021) Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of the egg. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from the mother and not from the father. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School? (2021) Annie Besant Debandranath Tagore Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar Sarojini Naidu Thanjavur Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi has rrecently, replied to a social media post by Hollywood actor Michael Douglas on his visit to Thanjavur. Background:- Via a post on X, the Prime Minister said: “Thanjavur is beautiful indeed! And, there is a lot more to see in India which will leave tourists from across the world spellbound.” About Thanjavur:- Thanjavur (Tanjavur or Tanjore) is a temple site in the Tamil Nadu region of southern India. Thanjavur was the capital of the great Chola (Cola) king Rajaraja I. It was he who commissioned the site’s magnificent temple, the Brihadishvara, in the early 11th century CE. Many other temples and shrines were added over the centuries making

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Zonal Councils Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, Union Home Minister Amit Shah chaired the 26th Eastern Zonal Council Meeting in Patna. Background:- Addressing the representatives of Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal and Odisha Mr. Shah appealed to all members to work with the spirit of cooperative federalism for all-round development. About Zonal Council:- Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies. They are established by an Act of Parliament, that is, the States Reorganization Act of 1956. Historical Background:- The idea of the creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first Prime Minister of India, Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1956. Five Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-III of the States Re-organisation Act, 1956 – north, south, east, west and central. The North Eastern Statese. (i) Assam (ii) Arunachal Pradesh (iii) Manipur (iv) Tripura (v) Mizoram (vi) Meghalaya and (vii) Nagaland are not included in the Zonal Councils Their special problems are looked after by the North Eastern Council, set up under the North Eastern Council Act, of 1972. The State of Sikkim has also been included in the North Eastern Council vide the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002. Objectives:- Zonal Councils aim to promote collaboration and coordination among states, UTs, and the Union. They discuss and give recommendations on several topics. They are only consultative and deliberative bodies. The States Reorganization Act of 1956 established these statutory entities. The country was divided into 5 zones by the Act:- Northern Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, the National Capital Territory of Delhi, Union Territory of Chandigarh and Ladakh. Headquarter: New Delhi Central Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. Headquarter: Allahabad Eastern Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West Bengal. Headquarter: Kolkata Western Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Goa, Gujarat, and Maharashtra and the Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli. Headquarter: Mumbai Southern Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry. Headquarter: Chennai Structure:- Chairman – The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils. Vice Chairman – The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time. Members- Chief Minister and two other Ministers as nominated by the Governor from each of the States and two members from Union Territories included in the zone. Functions:- Each Zonal Council is an advisory body and may discuss any matter in which States have a common interest and advise the Government. In particular, a Zonal Council may discuss, and make recommendations with regard to: any matter of common interest in the field of economic and social planning; any matter concerning border disputes, linguistic minorities or inter-State transport; any matter connected with or arising out of, the re-organization of the States under the State’s Reorganization Act. MUST READ: Integration of North-Eastern India and its Significance SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In which one of the following states is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located? (2018) Arunachal Pradesh Manipur Meghalaya Nagaland Q.2) Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? (2013) National Development Council Planning Commission Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Conference on Disarmament (CD) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY/INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, Foreign Secretary Vinay Kwatra and, the UN Under-Secretary-General discussed India’s presidency of the Conference on Disarmament. Background:- Their talks centred around global advancements in arms control and disarmament, with a focus on key initiatives discussed at the recent 78th UNGA First Committee. About Conference on Disarmament (CD):- Established: 1979. HQ: Palais des Nations in Geneva. It is a multilateral disarmament forum established by the international community. Objective: to negotiate arms control and disarmament agreements. The Conference meets annually in three separate sessions in Geneva. Members: The Conference is comprised of 65 member States, including the five NPT nuclear-weapon States and 60 other States of key military significance. The CD has three sessions each year. The CD conducts its work by consensus. The Director-General of the United Nations Office at Geneva, is the Secretary-General of the Conference on Disarmament. The CD and its predecessors have negotiated major multilateral arms limitation and disarmament agreements such as:- the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT), the Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production and Stockpiling of Bacteriological (Biological) and Toxin Weapons and on Their Destruction (BWC), the Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, Stockpiling and Use of Chemical Weapons and on Their Destruction (CWC) Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT). Historical Background:- The Conference on Disarmament (CD), was recognized by the Tenth Special Session on Disarmament of the United Nations General Assembly (SSOD-I) (1978) as a single multilateral disarmament negotiating forum of the international community. It succeeded other Geneva-based negotiating fora, which include the Ten-Nation Committee on Disarmament (1960), the Eighteen-Nation Committee on Disarmament (1962-68), and the Conference of the Committee on Disarmament (1969-78). It was renamed the Conference on Disarmament in 1984. Functions:- Cessation of the nuclear arms race and nuclear disarmament. Prevention of nuclear war, including all related matters. Prevention of an arms race in outer space. Effective international arrangements to assure non-nuclear-weapon States against the use or threat of use of nuclear weapons. New types of weapons of mass destruction and new systems of such weapons; radiological weapons. Comprehensive programme of disarmament. Transparency in armaments. (India’s Nuclear Doctrine) MUST READ: Fragile State of Nuclear Disarmament SOURCE: AWAZ PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Consider the following countries: (2015) China France India Israel Pakistan Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   PM Vishwakarma Scheme Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: As per recent data, the PM Vishwakarma Scheme, launched by the Centre has received over 21 lakh applications in two and a half months. Background:- The highest number of applications came from Karnataka (6.28 lakh), followed by West Bengal (4.04 lakh), Assam (1.83 lakh), Uttar Pradesh (1.53 lakh) and Andhra Pradesh (1.21 lakh). About PM Vishwakarma Scheme:- Launched: September 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). It is a Central Sector Scheme. Objectives of PM Vishwakarma scheme:- To strengthen and nurture the Guru-Shishya parampara or family-based practice of traditional skills by artisans and craftspeople working with their hands and tools. To improve the quality, as well as the reach of products and services of artisans and craftspeople. To ensure that the Vishwakarmas are integrated with the domestic and global value chains. Salient Features of PM Vishwakarma scheme:- The artisans and craftspeople will be provided recognition through a PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card. Credit Support: Credit of up to Rs.1 lakh (First Tranche) and Rs.2 lakh (Second Tranche) will be given with a concessional interest rate of 5%. Skill learning: The Scheme will further provide Skill Upgradation, Toolkit Incentives, Incentives for Digital Transactions, and Marketing Support. Training: Skill development programs encompass both basic and advanced training. Stipend: Participants are entitled to a stipend of Rs 500 per day during their training period. Modern Tools and Equipment: Beneficiaries are eligible for financial support of up to ₹15,000 to procure modern tools, enhancing their efficiency and productivity. Sectors: Eighteen traditional trades will be covered in the first instance under PM Vishwakarma. These trades include (i) Carpenter (Suthar); (ii) Boat Maker; (iii) Armourer; (iv) Blacksmith (Lohar); (v) Hammer and Tool Kit Maker; (vi) Locksmith; (vii) Goldsmith (Sonar); (viii) Potter (Kumhaar); (ix) Sculptor (Moortikar, stone carver), Stone breaker; (x) Cobbler(Charmkar)/ Shoesmith/Footwear artisan; (xi) Mason (Rajmistri); (xii) Basket/Mat/Broom Maker/Coir Weaver; (xiii) Doll & Toy Maker (Traditional); (xiv) Barber (Naai); (xv) Garland maker (Malakaar); (xvi) Washerman (Dhobi); (xvii) Tailor (Darzi); and (xviii) Fishing Net Maker. Eligibility Criteria: – Indian Citizenship: Applicants must be Indian. Artisan or Craftsman: The applicant should be a traditional artisan or craftsman. Age Limit: No Age Limit for applying to the scheme. (Production Linked Incentive Scheme and its Implications) Benefits of PM Vishwakarma scheme:- The scheme will provide support to artisans and craftspeople in rural and urban areas across India. It caters to both urban and rural areas, facilitating employment. ( MSME Sustainable (ZED) Certification Scheme) Funding for training programs to enhance traditional skills. MUST READ: Small savings schemes SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Kavach system Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: As per a recent government release, the Kavach system, has so far been deployed on 1465 route km and 139 locomotives on South Central Railway sections. Background:- The sections include Lingamapalli – Vikarabad – Wadi and Vikarabad – Bidar section (265 Rkm), Manmad-Mudkhed-Dhone-Guntkal section (959Rkm) and Bidar-Parbhsection (241Rkm). About Kavach system:- IMAGE SOURCE: newssimplified.in KAVACH is an Automatic Train Protection (ATP) electronic system designed to help the Indian Railways achieve Zero Accidents. Objective: to achieve safety in train operations across Indian Railways. Development:- It has been indigenously developed. It was developed by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with the Indian industry. Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO): it is a research and development organisation under the Ministry of Railways. Working:- It has a set of electronic devices and Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) devices installed in locomotives, in the signalling system as well as the tracks. (RFID) These connect to each other using ultra-high radio frequencies to control the brakes of trains. It also alerts drivers, all based on the logic programmed into them. (KAVACH) It is a Safety Integrity Level 4 (SIL-4) certified technology. Safety Integrity Level (SIL): it comes from two voluntary standards used by plant owners/operators to quantify safety performance requirements for hazardous operations. There are four SIL Levels (1-4). A higher SIL Level means a greater process hazard and a higher level of protection. KAVACH will be the world’s cheapest automatic train collision protection system. First successful trial: between Gullaguda–Chitgidda Railway stations of South Central Railway in 2022. Salient features:- Automatic activation of the train braking system if the driver fails to control the train speed. Preventing collision between two Locomotives equipped with a functional KAVACH system. Sending continuous updates of Movement. (Mobile Train Radio Communication (MTRC) ) Auto Whistling while approaching Level Crossing Gates Sending SoS Messages during emergency situations. Centralised live monitoring of train movements through the Network Monitor System.  MUST READ: Vande Bharat 2.0 SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following communication technologies: (2022) Closed-circuit Television Radio Frequency Identification Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies? 1 and 2 only. 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Atal Pension Yojana (APY) Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, Atal Pension Yojana (APY) enrolments crossed the 6 crore mark. Background:-           The total enrolment under the Atal Pension Yojana (APY) has crossed 6 crore, with over 79 lakh enrolments in the current Financial Year. About Atal Pension Yojana (APY):- Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is an old-age income security scheme for all savings account holders between the age group 18-40 years. The scheme also addresses the longevity risks among the workers in the unorganized sector and encourages the workers to voluntarily save for their retirement. Under APY, the individual subscribers shall have the option to make the contribution on a monthly basis. Banks will be collecting  additional amounts for delayed payments, such amount will vary from a minimum of Rs. 1 per month to Rs 10/- per month as shown below: 1 per month for contributions up to Rs. 100 per month. 2 per month for contributions up to Rs. 101 to 500/- per month. 5 per month for contributions between Rs 501/- to 1000/- per month. 10 per month for contributions beyond Rs 1001/- per month. Discontinuation of payments of contribution amount shall lead to the following:- After 6 months account will be frozen. After 12 months account will be deactivated. After 24 months account will be closed. Upon exit on attaining 60 years The subscriber shall receive the following three benefits on attaining the age of 60: Guaranteed minimum pension amount: Each subscriber under APY shall receive a guaranteed minimum pension of Rs. 1000 per month or Rs. 2000 per month or Rs. 3000 per month or Rs. 4000 per month or Rs. 5000 per month, after the age of 60 years until death. Guaranteed minimum pension amount to the spouse: After the subscriber’s demise, the spouse of the subscriber shall be entitled to receive the same pension amount as that of the subscriber, until the death of the spouse. Return of the pension wealth to the nominee of the subscriber: After the demise of both the subscriber and the spouse, the nominee of the subscriber shall be entitled to receive the pension wealth, as accumulated till age 60 years of the subscriber. The contributions to the Atal Pension Yojana (APY) are eligible for tax benefits similar to the National Pension System (NPS) under section 80CCD(1). Voluntary exit (Exit before 60 Years of age): – The subscriber shall only be refunded the contributions made by him to APY along with the net actual accrued income earned on his contributions (after deducting the account maintenance charges). Exception: In the case of subscribers who joined the scheme before 31st March 2016 and received Government Co-Contribution shall not receive the Government co-contribution and the accrued income earned on the same, if opted for Voluntary exit before 60 years. Age of joining and contribution period The minimum age for joining APY is 18 years and the maximum age is 40 years. The age of exit and start of pension would be 60 years. Exclusions:- Tax Payers will not be eligible to join APY from 1 Oct 2022. Members of the statutory social security scheme are not eligible under this scheme. Members enrolled in statutory social security schemes like:- Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provision Act, 1952. The Coal Mines Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provision Act, 1948. Assam Tea Plantation Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provision, 1955. Seamens’ Provident Fund Act, 1966. Jammu Kashmir Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provision Act, 1961. Any other statutory social security scheme.  MUST READ: National Pension System SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2017) Resident Indian citizens only Persons of age from 21 to 55 only All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April 2004. Indian Tent Turtle Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, DRI rescued 436 baby Indian Tent Turtles in Lucknow. Background:- Acting on the basis of specific intelligence developed by Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI), Zonal Unit, Lucknow, seized 436 baby Indian Tent turtles from a person illegally transporting them interstate. About Indian Tent Turtles:- Family: Geoemydidae Genus :    Pangshura Species :   tentoria The size of the carapace ranges from 20 cm to 26.5 cm depending upon the subspecies. The colour of the turtles also varies according to each subspecies. Subspecies tentoria has an olive or brownish head with a red postocular spot, the carapace is brown in colour with amber or hazel stripe in the first three vertebras and the plastron is yellow with black blotches. A semi-aquatic species, mainly found in rivers and associated systems. Reproduction is oviparous. Distribution:- The species is native to India, Nepal and Bangladesh, with three subspecies recorded from the region viz., P. t. tentoria, P. t. circumdata and P. t. flaviventer. P. t. tentoria occurs in peninsular India and is recorded from Orissa, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Assam and Madhya Pradesh. P. t. circumdata occurs in the western tributaries of the Ganga and the rivers of Gujarat. Threats:- Damming of river (Turtle Conservation) Habitat degradation Conservation Status:- IUCN: Least concern IWPA: Schedule I CITES: Appendix II MUST READ: National Marine Turtle Action Plan SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which of the following organisms perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q2. Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY/ IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context:

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Climate Change Performance Index 2023 Syllabus Prelims-IMPORTANT INDICES Context: Recently, India ranked 7th on the climate change performance index 2023. Background:- India ranked up one spot from the previous one and also remained among the highest performers. About Climate Change Performance Index:- Published since: 2005. Time period: annual. Published by German Watch, New Climate Institute and Climate Action Network International based in Germany. Objective: to enhance transparency in international climate politics and enables comparison of climate protection efforts and progress made by individual countries. Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is an independent monitoring tool for tracking the climate protection performance of 59 countries and the EU. These 59 countries together account for 92% of global greenhouse gas emissions. The climate protection performance is assessed in four categories: GHG Emissions (40% of overall score), Renewable Energy (20% of overall score), Energy Use (20% of overall score) and Climate Policy (20% of overall score). Key highlights:- Denmark retained the top spot with a score of 75.59 per cent. Estonia and the Philippines occupied the second and third ranks respectively, with 72.07 and 70.70. Saudi Arabia was at the bottom 67th in the performance list, The host country United Arab Emirates occupied the 65th position. India’s performance:- While India is the world’s most populous country, it has relatively low per capita emissions, the index said. The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) country experts reported that India is trying to meet its Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), with clear long-term policies in place that focus on promoting renewable energy and providing financial support for domestic manufacturing of renewable energy components. India’s growing energy needs are still being met by its heavy reliance on coal, along with oil and gas, the report pointed out. “This dependence is a major source of greenhouse gas emissions and causes severe air pollution, especially in the cities.( Green future for Indian cities) India has relatively high taxes on petrol and diesel, which are intended to act as carbon taxes. The impact of these taxes on consumption remains disputed. Suggestions:- The policies are largely mitigative, yet they should also focus on transformative adaptation and disaster risk management. The policymakers should also adopt ecosystem-based solutions and consider equity. MUST READ: Mitigating Climate Change SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements: (2021) The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is part of a project led by Climate Change, Agriculture, and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research program. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centres. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) has invested Rs 27,105 crore in exchange-traded funds (ETFs) during the current fiscal till October, Parliament was informed recently. Background:- EPFO had invested Rs 53,081 crore in the ETFs during the fiscal 2022-23, higher than Rs 43,568 crore in 2021-22, Minister of State for Labour and Employment Rameshwar Teli said in a written reply to the Lok Sabha. About Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs):- An exchange-traded fund (ETF) is a collection of investments such as equities or bonds. ETFs will let one invest in a large number of securities at once. They often have cheaper fees than other types of funds. ETFs are also more easily traded. However, ETFs, like any other financial product, are not a one-size-fits-all solution. Advantages of Investing in ETFs:- Easy to trade: they can be bought and sold at any time of day. ETFs are more tax efficient than actively managed mutual funds because they generate less capital gain distributions. They allow investors to avoid the risk of poor security selection by the fund manager while offering a diversified investment portfolio. The stocks in the indices are carefully selected by index providers and are rebalanced periodically. They offer anytime liquidity through the exchanges. Risks of ETFs:- Trading cost: If you invest modest sums frequently, dealing directly with a fund company in a no-load fund may be less expensive. Market risk: ETFs are subject to the same market fluctuations and volatility. Liquidity risk: ETFs may experience low trading volume or wide bid-ask spreads, which can affect their liquidity and price. Regulatory risk: ETFs are subject to changing laws and regulations that may affect their structure, operation, or taxation. About Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO):- The EPFO is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India. It is one of the World’s largest Social Security Organisations in terms of clientele and the volume of financial transactions undertaken. It into existence with the promulgation of the Employees’ Provident Funds Ordinance on the 15th of November 1951. It was replaced by the Employees’ Provident Funds Act, of 1952. The Employees’ Provident Funds Bill was introduced in the Parliament in the year 1952 as a Bill to provide for the institution of provident funds for employees in factories and other establishments. (EPFO’s New Facility on UMANG App started) The Act is now referred to as the Employees’ Provident Funds & Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 which extends

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Vijay Diwas Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT DAYS/DEFENSE Context: Vijay Diwas was commemorated recently. Background:- PM Narendra Modi paid tribute to all the brave hearts who dutifully served India in 1971 on Vijay Diwas. About Vijay Diwas:- Vijay Diwas or Victory Day is commemorated on December 16. It marks the end of the 1971 Indo-Pak War and the liberation of Bangladesh. India declared victory on this day 51 years ago after Pakistan signed the Instrument of Surrender. Ceremonies, parades, wreath-laying, and various events are organized across India, particularly in Delhi and Kolkata, to commemorate this significant day. Historical Background of the war:- After the partition of India following the end of British rule in 1947, two independent countries were formed – India and Pakistan. The latter consisted of East Pakistan (now Bangladesh) and West Pakistan (present-day Pakistan). The two Pakistans had their share of problems since the beginning because of a number of reasons – the most glaring one being the geographical disconnect between them. East Pakistan was often overlooked in terms of administration as the top posts were held by those in the West. In the mid-1960s, leaders such as Sheikh Mujibur Rahman, who is also known as the founder of Bangladesh actively began protesting against these policies and helped form the Awami League. Soon, their demand became one for freedom and greater autonomy. The League ended up winning a stunning 160 of the 162 seats in East Pakistan in the 1970 elections and won no seats in the West. However, instead of recognizing the mandate, on March 25, 1971, the Pakistani military began a brutal crackdown that saw the mass slaughter of Bengalis. India had declared support for the League previously but without direct intervention. But when the Pakistan Air Force launched pre-emptive strikes towards Western India (including Amritsar, Pathankot, Srinagar, Avantipura, Ambala, Sirsa and Agra) on December 3, 1971, India formally declared war on December 4. On December 6, India formally recognised Bangladesh as an independent nation. Two days later, the Indian Navy launched an attack on Karachi. From December 12 to 16, Indian forces pushed through to Dhaka and entered the city, ending the war with a total victory. Significance:- This war not only reshaped regional geopolitics but also underscored the importance of upholding human rights during conflicts. Vijay Diwas is a day to honor the courage, sacrifice, and bravery of the soldiers who fought and to pay tribute to the martyrs. (The new defence systems handed over to Army) MUST READ: India-Bangladesh Relations SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect to the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002: (2023) Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm. Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3: 2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of Constitution Day: (2023) Statement-I: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the chairmanship of Dr B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft ·Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Kashi Tamil Sangamam Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi will inaugurate the second phase of Kashi Tamil Sangamam on 17th December 2023. Background:- The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi today called Kashi Tamil Sangamam forum a testament to the unity and diversity of India, strengthening the spirit of ‘Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat’. About Kashi Tamil Sangamam:- Date: 17th to the 30th of December 2023 VENUE: Varanasi. Inauguration: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi will inaugurate Kashi Tamil Sangamam 2023 at Namo Ghat on 17 December 2023. The second phase of Kashi Tamil Sangamam will commence from 17th to 30th December, 2023 at the holy city of Kashi (Varanasi). It will celebrate the many aspects of the historical and civilizational connection between India’s North and South. Nearly 1400 (7 Groups of 200 persons each) people are expected to be travelling from different parts of Tamil Nadu, representing varied walks of life. The 7 groups of Students (Ganga), Teachers (Yamuna), Professionals (Godavari), Spiritual (Saraswati), Farmers and Artisans (Narmada), Writers (Sindhu) and Traders and Businessmen (Kaveri) have been named after seven sacred rivers of India will travel from Chennai, Coimbatore and Kanyakumari to Kashi. The Ministry of Education, Government of India, will be the nodal agency for this event with participation from the Ministries of Culture, Tourism, Railways, Textiles, Food Processing (ODOP), MSME, Information & Broadcasting, Skill Development & Entrepreneurship, IRCTC and related departments of Government of Uttar Pradesh. IIT Madras will be acting as the implementing agency in Tamil Nadu and Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in Uttar Pradesh. History of ties between Kashi and Tamil Nadu:- Many households in Tamilnadu adopted the names of Kailasanatha and Kashinatha for naming their children, like those who are living in Kashi and Uttar Pradesh. King Adhiveera Rama Pandiyan of the Pandya Dynasty dedicated a Shiva Temple at Tenkasi of Tamilnadu after his pilgrimage to Kashi , whose ancestors established Sivakasi. Saint Kumaragurupara from Sri Vaikundam, Tuthukudi District of Tamil Nadu has excelled in bargaining with the Sultanate of Kashi with audacity and drove a

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   INDIAN FOREST AND WOOD CERTIFICATION SCHEME Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the Indian Forest & Wood Certification Scheme was launched. Background:- It was launched by Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. This national forest certification scheme offers voluntary third-party certification designed to promote sustainable forest management and agroforestry in the country. About INDIAN FOREST AND WOOD CERTIFICATION SCHEME:- Launched: 2023. Objective: to promote Sustainable Management of forests and agroforestry(Forest Conservation (FC) Act, 1980) Ministry: Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. The scheme includes forest management certification, tree outside forest management certification, and chain of custody certification. The Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme can provide market incentives to various entities that adhere to responsible forest management and agroforestry practices in their operations. This includes state forest departments, individual farmers, or Farmer Producer Organizations engaged in agroforestry and farm forestry, as well as other wood-based industries in the value chain. The Forest Management certification is based on the Indian Forest Management Standard, consisting of 8 criteria, 69 indicators and 254 verifiers, which is an integral part of the National Working Plan Code 2023, launched earlier this year. A separate Trees Outside Forests Standard, is now introduced as a part of the newly launched Indian Forest & Wood Certification Scheme. Supervision: The Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme, will be overseen by the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Council, which will act as a multistakeholder advisory body. The Council is represented by members from eminent institutions such as Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, Forest Survey of India, Quality Council of India, Indian Institute of Forest Management including representatives from the Ministries of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare and Ministry of Commerce and Industry, State Forest Departments, Forest Development Corporations, and representatives from wood-based industries. Implementation: The Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal will act as the scheme operating agency and will be responsible for overall management of the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme. Accreditation: The National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies under the Quality Council of India will accredit the certification bodies which will carry out independent audits and assess adherence of various entities on the standards prescribed under the scheme. MUST READ: Natural Farming SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Surrender value Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, insurance stocks declined up to 5 per cent in trade after the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) proposed a higher surrender value and lower charges for life insurance companies in a consultation paper. Background:- An exposure draft released by the insurance regulator pitched for a significant increase in the surrender value specifically for non-participating insurance products. Some modifications have also been suggested in the calculation of surrender charges. About Surrender value:- In insurance policies, ‘surrender’ indicates the voluntary conclusion of a life insurance policy opted by the policyholder prior to its maturity or before the occurrence of the insured event. It applies only to those term insurance policies with a surrender benefit. The surrender value is usually a percentage of the total premiums paid minus any applicable charges or fees. The IRDAI rules say that anyone with a term plan can give up their insurance policy. (Digital India – Financial Inclusion) However, only after the policy has been in effect for three years will the policyholder get the payout of the surrender value. As per the existing norms, a policy can be surrendered at any time during the policy term, provided two full years’ premiums have been paid. However, in the first year, the regulator now proposes to offer Adjusted Surrender Value to the policyholder. About the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDAI):- Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Finance Head Office: It is an autonomous and statutory body established under the IRDA Act 1999. It is the apex body that supervises and regulates the insurance sector in India. Objective: To protect the interests of policyholders, to regulate, promote and ensure orderly growth of the insurance industry in India. Composition: IRDAI is a 10-member body. It has a Chairman, five full-time members, and four part-time members. They are appointed by the Government of India. Functions:- To have a fair regulation of the insurance industry while ensuring financial soundness of the applicable laws and regulations. Registering and regulating insurance companies. Protecting policyholders’ interests. Licensing and establishing norms for insurance intermediaries. Regulating and overseeing premium rates and terms of non-life insurance covers. MUST READ: The Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) SOURCE: HINDU BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector