Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Right to Assembly Syllabus Prelims: Indian Constitution  Context: The Andhra Pradesh High Court has set aside a Government Order (GO) issued by the Andhra Pradesh government that sought to regulate public meetings, processions, and assemblies on roads, highways, and streets. About Right to Assembly -Article 19(1) (b) The right to assemble peaceably and without arms is provided under Article 19(1) (b) of the Indian Constitution. Every citizen has the right to assemble peaceably and without arms. It includes the right to hold public meetings, demonstrations and take out processions. This freedom can be exercised only on public land and the assembly must be peaceful and unarmed. This provision does not protect violent, disorderly, riotous assemblies, or one that causes breach of public peace or one that involves arms. The purpose of organising a gathering or meeting is to spread ideas and educate the public. As a result, the right to peaceful assembly follows naturally from the right to free speech and expression. Restrictions: Article 19(3) impose restrictions on the exercise of the right to freedom of assembly. According to Article 19(3), the state can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of right of assembly on two grounds, namely, Sovereignty and integrity of India and Public order including the maintenance of traffic in the area concerned. Apart from this, section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code empowers a magistrate to impose restrictions on assembly, meeting, or procession if there is a possibility of obstruction, annoyance, or danger to human life, health, and safety, or a disturbance of public tranquillity or riot or an affray. MUST READ: Fundamental Rights (https://iasbaba.com/2020/05/mind-maps-fundamental-rights-part-1-general-studies-2/) SOURCE: Indian Express https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/andhra-hc-government-order-struck-down-processions-8616123/ PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement? (2018) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution Corporate Debt Market Development Fund Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: SEBI has introduced the Corporate Debt Market Development Fund, a backstop facility for specified debt funds during market dislocations. About Corporate Debt Market Development Fund Corporate Debt Market Development Fund is a form of an Alternative Investment Fund (AIF). It will be backstop facility for the purchase of investment grade corporate debt securities in times of stress or in case of market dislocation. The purpose of this fund is to bring about confidence in corporate bond market and boost secondary market liquidity. The fund will have a corpus of ₹3,000 crore, of which ₹2,700 crore will come from mutual fund debt schemes. The corporate bond backstop fund will have 10x leverage and a sovereign guarantee. The contribution will also be made by the specified debt-oriented mutual fund schemes and asset management companies of mutual funds towards building the initial corpus of the CDMDF. Access to the fund will be limited to specified mutual fund schemes in proportion to the contribution made to the fund at a mutual fund level. The SEBI board has approved the framework for triggering CDMDF’s asset purchases during market dislocation. CDMDF, based on a guarantee to be provided by the National Credit Guarantee Trust Company (NCGTC) may raise funds, for the purchase of corporate debt securities during market dislocation. The move will instill confidence among corporate bond market participants and generally enhance secondary market liquidity. Backstop facility A backstop is an act of providing last-resort support or security in a securities offering for the unsubscribed portion of shares. When a company is trying to raise capital through an issuance, it may get a backstop from an underwriter or a major shareholder, such as an investment bank, to buy any of its unsubscribed shares. MUST READ: Alternate Investment Fund (https://iasbaba.com/2023/01/alternate-investment-fund-and-credit-default-swap/) SOURCE: The Hindu Business line https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/markets/new-backstop-fund-mooted-to-bail-out-mf-debt-schemes-in-distress/article66676446.ece PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2017) It is an organ of NITI Aayog. It has a corpus of Rs 4,00,000 crore at present. Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Institute Of Cost Accountants of India Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The Delhi High Court has restrained the Institute of Cost Accountants of India from using the acronym ICAI after the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India moved a trademark infringement lawsuit. About Institute of Cost Accountants of India. The Institute of Cost Accountants of India was established by an Act of Parliament, the Cost and Works Accountant Act, 1959. The institute was formed with the objectives of promoting, regulating and developing profession of cost accountancy in India It is under the administrative control of Ministry of Cooperate Affairs. The Institute is a founder member of International Federation of Accountants, Confederation of Asian and Pacific Accountants and South Asian Federation of Accountants. About Institute of Chartered Accountants of India It is a statutory body established under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 for the regulation of the profession of Chartered Accountancy in India. It is the only licensing cum regulating body of the financial audit and accountancy profession in India. It recommends the accounting standards to be followed by companies in India to National Advisory Committee on Accounting Standards (NACAS). The institute has achieved recognition as a premier accounting body in the fields of education, professional development, maintenance of high accounting, auditing and ethical standards. In India, accounting standards and auditing standards are recommended by the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) to the Government of India which sets the Standards on Auditing (SAs) to be followed in the audit of financial statements in India. Membership: Members of the Institute are known as Chartered Accountants (CA). Becoming a member requires passing the prescribed examinations, three

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Forum for India–Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) Summit 2023 Syllabus Prelims : International Relations Context: Recently, Prime Minister of India attended Forum for India–Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) Summit in Papua New Guinea. About Forum for India–Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC ) Summit Forum for India-Pacific Islands cooperation is a multinational grouping developed in 2014 for cooperation between India and 14 Pacific Islands nations. FIPIC consists of Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, Marshall Islands, Federated States of Micronesia, Nauru, Niue, Samoa, Solomon Islands, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Tonga, Tuvalu and Vanuatu. India established the Forum for FIPIC as a part of the Act East Policy. Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Fiji convened FIPIC’s inaugural gathering in 2014. All 14 countries actively participated in this landmark event. In 2015, the second meeting of the forum was held in Jaipur, with the participation of all 14 countries. Third summit of India-Pacific Islands Co-operation (FIPIC Summit 2023) held at Port Moresby was jointly hosted with Papua New Guinea. Prime minister of India co- chaired the summit with PM of Papua New Guinea. On this occasion, Prime Minister of India unveiled a comprehensive 12-step initiative aimed at advancing India’s collaborations with the countries in the Pacific region. India’s development partnership with Pacific Island Countries (PICs) encompasses various areas, such as infrastructure development, with a particular emphasis on education, health, and culture. Additionally, community development projects have involved initiatives such as refurbishing libraries and school buildings, renovating colleges, providing IT infrastructure to educational institutions, and establishing digital libraries. Act East Policy The Act East Policy launched in November 2014, is considered to be an upgrade of the Look East Policy. India’s Act East Policy focuses on the extended neighbourhood in the Asia-Pacific region. The Objective of ”Act East Policy” is to promote economic cooperation, cultural ties and develop strategic relationship with countries in the Asia-Pacific region. Act East Policy (AEP) provides an interface between North East India including the state of Arunachal Pradesh and the ASEAN region. Various plans at bilateral and regional levels include steady efforts to develop and strengthen connectivity of Northeast with the ASEAN region through trade, culture, people-to-people contacts and physical infrastructure (road, airport, telecommunication, power, etc.). Some of the major projects include Kaladan Multi-modal Transit Transport Project, the India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway Project, Rhi-Tiddim Road Project, Border Haats, etc. MUST READ: ASEAN SOURCE: The Hindu https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/pm-modi-underlines-importance-of-free-and-open-indo-pacific-at-fipic-summit-in-papua-new-guinea/article66879690.ece. PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION  Q1. With reference to the “Look East Policy” of India, consider the following statements India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in East Asian affairs. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of the Cold War. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbours in Southeast and East Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Koundinya Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims : Environment Context:  A three-day Jumbo census in Seshachalam hills, Koundinya Wildlife Sanctuary hints at sizeable presence of Jumbos in the region. About Koundinya Wildlife Sanctuary Kaundinya Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary and an elephant reserve situated in Andhra Pradesh, India. It is the only sanctuary in Andhra Pradesh with a population of Asian elephants, which migrated after 200 years from neighboring regions. This Sanctuary comes under Project elephant – a Country wide Elephant Conservation Project taken up by Government of India. The Sanctuary also has many places of attraction around it. Forest Type: Southern tropical dry deciduous forest, with patches of thorn, scrub and grassy plains. Flora: Plants like Albizzia amara, Ficus glomerata, Zizyphus xylocarpus, Gymnosporia Montana, etc; make this a green panoramic place with a breathtaking floral diversity. Fauna: Insects like Gongylus praying mantis, Painted grasshopper, Plain tiger butterfly, Common grass yellow butterfly, etc; abound this elephant land. Reptiles like Common cobra, Rat snake, Indian rock python, Forest calotes, Skinks, etc; make this place their abode. Birds like Partidges, quails, storks, Cotton teal, etc; make this Sanctuary their domicile. A further balance in the food-web is maintained by mammals like Indian Elephant, Panther, Sloth bear, Wild boar, Chowsingha, Nilgai, Hyena, Jackal, etc. MUST READ: Asian Elephants SOURCE : The Hinduhttps://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/jumbo-census-in-seshachalam-hills-koundinya-wildlife-sanctuary-hints-at-sizeable-presence/article66870607.ece. PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Consider the following pairs: (2013) Nokrek Biosphere Reserve : Garo Hills Logtak (Loktak) Lake : Barail Range Namdapha National Park : Dafla Hills Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 None Q2.From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats? (2017)  Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve  Nallamala Forest Nagarhole National Park  Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve Deputy Chief Minister Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: D K Shivakumar was sworn in as Deputy Chief Minister (CM) of Karnataka. About Post of Deputy CM Articles 163-164 deals with Council of Ministers (CoM) in states. Article 163(1) of the Constitution says, “There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advice the Governor in the exercise of his functions”. Article 164 (1) says “there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions.” Hence, neither Article 163 nor Article 164 mentions a Deputy Chief Minister. Therefore, the post of Deputy CM is understood as being equivalent in rank to that of Cabinet Minister (in the state). The Deputy CM enjoys the same pay and perks as a Cabinet Minister. Ten other states in the country (besides Karnataka) currently have Deputy CMs. Perhaps the first Deputy CM in India was Anugrah Narayan Sinha. He was served as the Deputy Chief Minister cum Finance Minister from the time of the first Congress Ministry of Bihar in 1937 till his death on 5 July 1957. SOURCE: The Indian Express https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-politics/dk-shivakumar-deputy-cm-post-explained-8621053/ PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. With reference to the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: (2022) As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC) Syllabus     Prelims: Geography Context: Iranian President Ebrahim Raisi and his Russian counterpart Vladimir Putin have signed an agreement to finalize the construction of the Rasht (Iranian city on Caspian Sea)-Astara (Azerbaijan) railway, which is expected to boost the International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC). About International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC): International North-South Transport Corridor is a multi modal transportation established in 2000 for promoting transportation and cooperation among the Member States. Russia, India and Iran signed preliminary agreements to develop the 7,200-km-long International North-South Transport Corridor (NSTC) in 2002. Three years later, Azerbaijan signed up for the project. This agreement was eventually ratified by 13 countries — India, Russia, Iran, Azerbaijan, Belarus, Bulgaria, Armenia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Oman, Tajikistan, Turkey and Ukraine. The ambitious trade corridor seeks to link Russia’s Baltic Sea coast to India’s western ports in the Arabian Sea through Azerbaijan and Iran. The corridor encompasses sea, road and rail routes. India’s Interest: India’s interest in the development of the INSTC is manifested by its $2.1 billion investments, including the construction of the port of Chabahar in Iran and the construction of a 500 km Chabahar-Zahedan railway line. Chabahar is now capable of processing ultra-large container ships. For India, the INSTC opens the way for trading with Iran and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan. This, naturally, has implications in terms of reaching out to both Afghanistan and Central Asia, significant corners in our extended neighbourhood. The corridor will also provide access to potential markets in the wider Eurasia region. MUST READ: Chabahar Port (UPSC Prelims) SOURCE: The Hindu PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India? (2017) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase. India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened. India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India. Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus     Prelims: Environment Context: The first-ever sighting of Barkudia limbless skink (Barkudiamelanostica), a small reptile has been reported at the Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary. About Barkudia limbless skink: Barkudia limbless skink is a small reptile. It is fossorial in nature, is characterised by its elongated body, muddy brown colouration, and absence of limbs, a unique adaptation to its environment. This species is listed as Critically Endangered in theIUCN Red List of Threatened Species. Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary: The Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary is an important protected area located near Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh. The sanctuary is named after the local hillock, Kambalakonda, and is home to a number of rare and endangered species, including the Indian leopard. The Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary is a dry deciduous forest with meadows and scrub. The forest is surrounded by the Gambheeram reservoir on the northeast and the Simhachalam hill range on the west. These unique physical features create a unique microclimate that supports the survival and growth of various species of plants and animals. SOURCE: The Hindu PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1. From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats? (2017)  Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve  Nallamala Forest Nagarhole National Park Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve Thirukkural Syllabus      Prelims – Indian Culture Context: PM Modi releases Tamil classic ‘Thirukkural’ in Tok Pisin language. Tok Pisin is the official language of Papua New Guinea. About Thirukkural: Tirukkural, (Tamil: “Sacred Couplets”) also called Kural. It is the most celebrated of the Patiren-kirkkanakku (“Eighteen Ethical Works”) in Tamil literature and a work that has had an immense influence on Tamil culture and life. It is attributed to the poet Tiruvalluvar, who is thought to have lived in India in the 6th century. The traditional accounts describe it as the last work of the third Sangam, but linguistic analysis suggests a later date of 450 to 500 CE and that it was composed after the Sangam period. It has 133 sections of 10 couplets each are divided into three books: aram (virtue), porul (government and society), and kamam (love). Important Messages of Thirukural: It is considered one of the greatest works on ethics and morality, it is known for its universality and secular nature. The first section opens with praise of God, rain, renunciation, and a life of virtue. It then presents a world-affirming vision, the wisdom of human sympathy that expands from one’s family and friends to one’s clan, village, and country. The porul section projects a vision of an ideal state and relates good citizenship to virtuous private life. The kamam section addresses both “secret love” and married love; The section on married love is written as a dialogue between husband and wife. It emphasizes non-violence and moral vegetarianism as virtues for an individual. It highlights truthfulness, self-restraint, gratitude, hospitality, kindness, goodness of wife, duty, giving, and so forth. Besides covering a wide range of social and political topics such as king, ministers, taxes, justice, forts, war, greatness of army and soldier’s honor, death sentence for the wicked, agriculture, education, abstinence from alcohol and intoxicants. It also includes chapters on friendship, love, sexual union, and domestic life MUST READ: Sangam Age (UPSC Mains – Sangam Age) SOURCE: The Hindu PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct? (2022)  Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture. The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets. Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethic. Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational. Fortified Rice Syllabus     Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Government will supply 35 million tonne (MT) of iron fortified rice to the 800 million beneficiaries under the National Food Security Act (NFSA) by March 31, 2024. Additionally 3.4 MT of fortified rice will be supplied to 83 million beneficiaries under the social sector programme such as Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and PM Poshan

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Ordinance 2023: Syllabus     Prelims: Polity Context: Recently, the central government promulgated an Ordinance that undid the unanimous verdict of a five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court had earlier ruled that the government of National Capital Territory of Delhi has legislative and executive power over administrative services in the National Capital, excluding matters relating to public order, police and land. The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Ordinance 2023: The President promulgated the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Ordinance 2023 that took away the power of the Delhi government over services. Instead, the lieutenant governor (LG), an official appointed by the central government was given the final say on the question of transfers and postings of bureaucrats in the Delhi government. The ordinance established a statutory body, the National Capital Civil Services Authority, to decide on issues concerning the transfer and posting of bureaucrats. The authority comprises the chief minister (CM), the chief secretary, and the principal home secretary of the government of the national capital territory of Delhi, which means that the decision of the elected CM can be vetoed or overruled by two senior unelected bureaucrats. The 2023 ordinance was promulgated in the wake of the unanimous judgment passed by the Constitution bench of the Supreme Court (SC) on May 11, holding that the democratically elected government of Delhi, rather than the LG, should exercise control over services in Delhi. Thus, other than the constitutionally mandated exceptions of land, police, and public order, the five-judge bench held that the elected Delhi government had final legislative and co-extensive executive power over issues of transfer and posting of the bureaucrats. The rationale behind the court’s judgment was that an elected government must be able to control and hold to account the civil service officers posted in its services, since they “play a decisive role in the implementation of government policy.”  Promulgation of Ordinance; Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President of India to promulgate Ordinances. President can promulgate ordinance at any time when both Houses of Parliament are not in session (recess of Parliament) , the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him/her to take immediate action, he/she may promulgate such Ordinances as the circumstances appear to him/her to require. These ordinances have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament but are in the nature of temporary laws. The ordinance can only be promulgated on those subjects on which Parliament is empowered to legislate, that is, the Union list or Concurrent list. An ordinance is subject to the same constitutional limitations as an Act of Parliament. Hence, an ordinance cannot abridge or take away any of the fundamental rights. Every ordinance issued must be laid before both the Houses of Parliament within six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament and it ceases to exist if it is not approved within six weeks of reassembly. Whenever a Bill seeking to replace an ordinance is introduced in the House, a statement explaining the circumstances that had necessitated immediate legislation through ordinance route should also be placed before the House. After the ordinance has been passed, it is required to be approved by the parliament within six weeks of reassembling. The same will cease to operate if disapproved by either House. The 44th Constitutional Amendment has reiterated that the satisfaction of the President to promulgate ordinance could be challenged in case an ‘immediate action’ was not required. Thus, it is subject to Judicial Review. The President may withdraw an ordinance at any time. However, he exercises his power with the consent of the Council of Ministers headed by the President. The Ordinances may have retrospective effect and may modify or repeal any act of parliament or other ordinances. Article 213 deals with the broadly analogous powers of the Governor to promulgate/ withdraw an Ordinance when the state legislature is not in session. An Ordinance is valid for six weeks, or 42 days, from the date on which the next session starts. If the two Houses start their sessions on different dates, the later date will be considered, say the explanations in Articles 123 and 213. Repromulgation of Ordinance; To re-promulgate Ordinance simply means to effectively extend the life of an Ordinance. An Ordinance ‘ceases to operate’ 6 weeks after the two Houses reassemble, except if it is converted into an Act by then. Re-promulgation sidesteps this limitation. In 2017, (Krishna Kumar Singh and Another v. State of Bihar) a seven-judge Bench of the court, which included present Chief Justice of India (CJI) D Y Chandrachud, reiterated that legislation should normally be done by the legislature, and the Governor’s power to issue an Ordinance is in the nature of an emergency power. The court clarified that there might be circumstances permitting the re-promulgation of an Ordinance — however, it said, repeated re-promulgations without bringing the Ordinance to the legislature would usurp the legislature’s function, and will be unconstitutional. In Dr D C Wadhwa and Ors v. State of Bihar and Ors (1986) case, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court headed by then CJI P N Bhagwati held that “an Ordinance promulgated by the Governor to meet an emergent situation shall cease to be in operation at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of the Legislature.” If the government wishes for the Ordinance to continue in force beyond the six-week period, it “has to go before the Legislature”, which is the constitutional authority entrusted with law-making functions. SOURCE: The Hindu PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1. Consider the following statements: The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR) Syllabus       Prelims: Environment Context: National Campaign for Updation and Verification of People’s Biodiversity Register was recently launched in Goa. About People’s Biodiversity Register: The program of People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR) is designed as a tool for the formal maintenance of the local knowledge of biodiversity. PBR is a record of knowledge, perception and attitude of people about natural resources, plants and animals, their utilization and conservation in a village or a panchayat. PBR is also a mechanism to create awareness among the people about the condition of plants and animals and their conservation and sustainable utilization. This mechanism can bring the people to participate in development planning which would be ecologically sustainable and socially justifiable. As per the Biological Diversity Act 2002, Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC) are created for “promoting conservation, sustainable use and documentation of biological diversity” by local bodies across the country. BMCs have been constituted by the local bodies in the States and Union Territories and are entrusted with preparation of the People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs), in consultation with local communities. Biological Diversity (BD) Act, 2002; The Biological Diversity (BD) Act, 2002 was legislated pursuant to India’s obligation under the Convention of Biological Diversity (CBD). The Biological Diversity (BD) Act, 2002 was enacted by the Parliament of India to conserve biological diversity, sustainably use its components and ensure fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources. Salient Features of the Act: The Act prohibits the following activities without the prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority: Any person or organization (either based in India or not) obtaining any biological resource occurring in India for its research or commercial utilization. The transfer of the results of any research relating to any biological resources occurring in, or obtained from, India. The claim of any intellectual property rights on any invention based on the research made on the biological resources obtained from India. The act envisaged a three-tier structure to regulate the access to biological resources: The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) The State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) The Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) (at local level) The Act provides these authorities with special funds and a separate budget in order to carry out any research project dealing with the biological natural resources of the country. It shall supervise any use of biological resources and the sustainable use of them and shall take control over the financial investments and their return and dispose of those capitals as correct. Under this act, the Central Government in consultation with the NBA: Shall notify threatened species and prohibit or regulate their collection, rehabilitation and conservation Designate institutions as repositories for different categories of biological resources The act stipulates all offences under it as cognizable and non-bailable. Any grievances related to the determination of benefit sharing or order of the National Biodiversity Authority or a State Biodiversity Board under this Act, shall be taken to the National Green Tribunal (NGT). National Biodiversity Authority (NBA); NBA is a statutory, autonomous body and it performs facilitative, regulatory and advisory functions. NBA is headquartered at NBA has an advisory and regulatory role to perform. NBA advises Central Government on Biodiversity Conservation Issues. It performs a regulatory role by granting approvals to Foreign Nationals and Companies for access to Bio-resources of India for commercial use. It also Grants approvals for intellectual property rights of Bio resources and associated Traditional Knowledge to Indians and Non-Indians. Structure of the NBA: The National Biodiversity Authority consists of the following members to be appointed by the central government, namely: A Chairperson. Three ex officio members, one representing the Ministry dealing with Tribal Affairs and two representing the Ministry dealing with Environment and Forests. Seven ex-officio members to represent the Ministries of the Central Government. Five non-official members to be appointed from amongst specialists and scientists having special knowledge and experience in the required matters. Must Read: Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Consider the following pairs: Terms have sometimes                              Their origin seen in the news Annex-I Countries                            Cartagena Protocol Certified Emissions Reductions        Nagoya Protocol Clean Development Mechanism       Kyoto Protocol Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mohenjo-Daro’s Dancing Girl Syllabus      Prelims: Ancient India Context: On International Museum Day, the Prime Minister unveiled the International Museum Expo’s mascot – a “contemporised” version of the famous Dancing Girl of Mohenjo-Daro. About International Museum Day: International Museum Day is an international day held annually on or around 18 May, coordinated by the International Council of Museums. The event highlights a specific theme, which changes every year reflecting a relevant theme or issue facing museums internationally.  About the International Museum Expo 2023 Mascot: The International Museum Expo 2023 Mascot was a life size (5 ft as compared to the original 10 cm) figure inspired from the Dancing Girl of the Indus Valley Civilization. The traditional craft of Channapatna toys was used to create this mascot. Mohenjo-Daro’s Dancing Girl figurine;   Source: Archeological Survey of India The Indus Civilization (3300-1300 BC with its mature stage dated to 2600-1900 BC), also known as the Harappa-Mohenjo-Daro Civilization, had been long forgotten until its discovery was announced in 1924. After the initial recognition as an ancient civilisation, a spate of excavations were conducted in the two major sites that were known until then – Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro. The Dancing Girl was discovered in one such excavation in 1926, by British archaeologist Ernest McKay in Mohenjo-Daro’s citadel. Dancing Girl is a prehistoricbronze sculpture made in lost-wax casting during c. 2300–1750 BC. It is 10.5 cm in height, 5 cm in width and 2.5 cm in depth. Even though Mohenjodaro and Harappa became part of Pakistani territory after the

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Khorramshahr- 4 Ballistic Missile Syllabus     Prelims: Science and Technology Context: Iran unveiled a new Liquid-Fuel Ballistic Missile named “Khorramshahr-4” with a range of 2,000 Kilometers. About Khorramshahr-4 Ballistic Missile: The Khorramshahr has the heaviest payload of Iran’s ballistic missile fleet. The Khorramshahr-4 is named after an Iranian city that was the scene of heavy fighting during theIran-Iraq War in the 1980s. Khorramshahr-4 Missile has a 2,000-kilometre range and can carry 1,500-kilogram warhead. The Khorramshahr-4 missile has a navigational aid system and can transport a large warhead. According to official accounts, the enemy’s defense systems cannot detect, intercept, or take action to destroy the warhead due to its fast speed when it strikes the target. This missile is the most recent iteration of the Khorramshahr family of point-blank missiles, which do not require final-stage guidance. The ability to target precisely when in mid-flight (above the atmosphere) distinguishes this missile from its earlier iterations. SOURCE: Times of India PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (2018) An Israeli radar system India’s indigenous anti-missile programme An American anti-missile system A defense collaboration between Japan and South Korea. X-Ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) Syllabus     Prelims: Science and Technology Context: The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) is collaborating with the Raman Research Institute (RRI), Bengaluru, to build the X-Ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) that is scheduled to be launched later this year. About X-Ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat): According toISRO, “XPoSat will study various dynamics of bright astronomical X-ray sources in extreme conditions.” The spacecraft will carry two scientific payloads in a low earth orbit. The primary payload POLIX (Polarimeter Instrument in X-rays) will measure the polarimetry parameters (degree and angle of polarization). POLIX is expected to observe about 40 bright astronomical sources of different categories during the planned lifetime of XPoSat mission of about 5 years. This is the first payload in the medium X-ray energy band dedicated for polarimetry measurements. The XSPECT (X-ray Spectroscopy and Timing) payload will give spectroscopic information on how light is absorbed and emitted by objects. It would observe several types of sources, such as X-ray pulsars, black hole binaries, low-magnetic field neutron star, etc. X-Ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) is India’s first, and only the world’s second polarimetry mission that is meant to study various dynamics of bright astronomical X-ray sources in extreme conditions. The other such major mission is NASA’s Imaging X-ray Polarimetry Explorer (IXPE) that was launched in 2021. IXPE carries three state-of-the-art space telescopes. Each of the three identical telescopes hosts one light-weight X-ray mirror and one detector unit. These will help observe polarized X-rays from neutron stars and super massive black holes. By measuring the polarisation of these X-rays, we can study where the light came from and understand the geometry and inner workings of the light source. Must Read: Indian Space Association SOURCE: Indian Express Angel Tax Syllabus   Prelims: Economy Context: The government provided an exemption from angel tax to pension and sovereign wealth funds, among others investing in India from 21 countries. About the Angel Tax: Angel tax is the tax payable by privately held companies on the issue of shares at a rate higher than the fair market value. In India, the ‘angel tax’ was first introduced in It aims to deter the generation and use of unaccounted money through the subscription of shares of a closely held company at a value that is higher than the fair market value of the firm’s shares. Section 56(2) (VIIB) of the Income Tax Act, deals with angel tax. Under Section 56(2) (vii) (b) of the Income Tax Act, if a closely held company issues shares at a price exceeding fair market value, the difference is to be taxed as income from other sources. The tax affects angel investment the most and therefore is popularly called the angel tax. An angel investor is usually a high-net-worth individual who funds startups at the early stages, often with their own money. About the Recent Exemption from Angel Tax; The Finance act, 2023 amended the angel tax provision of the Income Tax Act, bringing foreign investment under its ambit. Before the amendment, the provision applied only to investments by Indian residents and funds not registered as alternative investment funds (AIFs). India exempted investments by non-resident entities such as sovereign wealth funds and pension funds from 21 countries from the so-called ‘angel tax leaving out Mauritius, Singapore, and Luxembourg among others that account for significant equity inflow into the country. The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) issued the notification exempting foreign central banks, pension funds, sovereign wealth funds and endowment funds from 21 countries from the levy. The 21 countries are Australia, Austria, Belgium, Canada, Czech Republic, Denmark, Finland, France, Germany, Iceland, Israel, Italy, Japan, South Korea, New Zealand, Norway, Russia, Spain, Sweden, the UK and the US. Mauritius has the highest share in cumulative foreign direct equity investment since April 2000 at 26%, followed by Singapore with 23%. Investments by non-resident investors including multilateral entities, foreign banks and insurers, foreign portfolio investors and entities registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India will not face the angel tax. The exemption will also be available to foreign investments in startups registered with the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) but no changes have been made to the eligibility conditions to register. SOURCE: Economic Times PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly? Certificate of Deposit Commercial Paper Promissory Note Participatory Note Public Interest Litigation (PIL) Syllabus    Prelims: Polity Context: Recently, A public interest litigation (PIL) was filled against the forest department in view of the alleged hurdles created by forest officials in Khanapur, Karnataka in implementing government projects. The complainant has alleged that by holding up development work, the forest department has denied villagers of

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Model Prisons Act 2023 Syllabus Prelims : Polity Context:  Recently , The Centre has finalised a comprehensive ‘Model Prisons Act, 2023’ to replace the pre-independence era ‘Prisons Act, 1894’ which mainly focused on keeping criminals in custody and enforcing discipline and order in prisons. The Model Prisons Act, 2023, is being introduced following the spate of killings and gang violence within prisons. One such incident was the killing of 33-year-old Tillu Tajpuriya, who was allegedly stabbed to death by members of a  rival gang inside Tihar jail. About Model Prisons Act 2023 The current ‘Prisons Act, 1894’ is almost 130 years old and mainly focuses on keeping criminals in custody and enforcing discipline and order in prisons, with no provision for reform and rehabilitation. MHA assigned the task of revising the Prisons Act, 1894, to the Bureau of Police Research and Development. Under the new Act, prisons will be viewed as reformative and correctional institutions, with a focus on transforming and rehabilitating inmates back into society as law-abiding citizens. The Model Prisons Act, 2023 aims to ; Address the gaps in the existing Prisons Act by providing guidance on the use of technology in prison management. Make provisions for parole, furlough, and remission to prisoners to encourage good conduct. Special provisions for women and transgender inmates. Focus on the reformation and rehabilitation of inmates. Features of the new Model Prisons Act; Some salient features of the new Model Prisons Act include Provision for security assessment and segregation of prisoners. Individual sentence planning. Grievance redressal. The establishment of a prison development board. A focus on the physical and mental well-being of prisoners. Use of technology in prison administration, such as video conferencing with courts and scientific and technological interventions in prisons. Punishment of prisoners and jail staff for using prohibited items like mobile phones in jails. New provisions being proposed;  It seeks to create provisions for the grant of parole, furlough, and remission to prisoners to encourage good conduct. It aims to provide separate accommodation for women and transgender inmates, ensure the physical and mental well-being of prisoners, and focus on the reformation and rehabilitation of inmates. It also intends to bring about “attitudinal change towards prisoners” and initiate vocational training and skill development for prisoners for their reintegration into society. It also seeks to bring about “transparency in prison management” . Is the Model Prisons Act, 2023, binding on states? As per the provisions of the Constitution, ‘prisons’ and ‘persons detained therein’ fall under the State List. This means that the responsibility of prison management and administration solely vests with the state government, which alone is competent to make appropriate legislative provisions in this regard. So, the ministry also clarified while announcing the 2023 Act that it “may serve as a guiding document for the States” so that they may benefit from its adoption in their jurisdictions. Prisons Act, of 1894; It defined a “prison” as “any jail or place used permanently or temporarily under the general or special orders of a State Government for the detention of prisoners”, excluding police custody and subsidiary jails. It demarcated prisoners into three different categories according to the nature of their crimes, such as “criminal prisoner”, “convicted criminal prisoner” and “civil prisoner”. The 1894 Act dealt with provisions for accommodation, food, clothing, bedding segregation, and the discipline of prisoners, including solitary confinement. It also laid down provisions for the prisoners’ employment, health, and visits. Flaws in 1894 Act The act had no provisions for reformation or rehabilitation and permitted “whipping, provided that the number of stripes shall not exceed thirty,” albeit for only male prisoners. This Act did not apply to “civil jails in the State of Bombay, outside the city of Bombay, and those jails administered under the provisions of Sections 9–16 of the Bombay Act, 1874. The Prisoners Act 1900 It was introduced with the objective of consolidating the “several acts relating to prisoners” and replacing the “separate enactments by a single act, expressed more simply and intelligibly.” Presently, the jail manuals of each state also deal with the administration and management of its prisons. PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1. Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct SOURCE: The Indian Express Navigation With Indian Constellation (NavIC) Syllabus Prelims : Science and Technology Context: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched the first of the second-generation satellites for its navigation constellation. The 2,232 kg satellite, the heaviest in the constellation, was launched by a Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) rocket that lifted off from Sriharikota. About Navigation With Indian Constellation (NavIC) NavIC was erstwhile known as Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS). It was developed by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and its commercial wing ANTRIX. NavIC consists of 8 satellites located at a distance of approximately 36,000 Km and currently, 7 satellites are active. 3 satellites are in Geostationary Orbit (GEO) 5 satellites are in inclined Geosynchronous Orbit (GSO) Objective of the NavIC To provide navigation, timing, and reliable positioning services in and around India. It is being designed to give precise position data service to users located in India and also to users in the area out-spreading up to 1500 Km from India’s boundary. Other Countries with Navigation Satellite System Global Positioning System (GPS)- USA GLONASS – Russia Galileo – European Union BeiDou – Chinese Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS) – Japan PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1. Which one of the following countries has its own

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Global Hunger Hotspots Syllabus Prelims : Economics Context:  According to a new report published by United Nations, several parts of the world faces increase in acute food insecurity. India’s neighbors, Pakistan, Afghanistan and Myanmar, are among the hunger hotspots in the world. About Global Hunger Hotspots: Acute food insecurity can potentially increase in magnitude and severity for 18 areas in 22 countries, according to the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) and the World Food Programme (WFP). Findings of the report titled “Hunger Hotspots FAO‑WFP early warnings on acute food insecurity”: Highest concern level countries: Afghanistan, Nigeria, Somalia, South Sudan, Yemen Haiti, Burkina Faso and Mali. Highest concern level countries have populations facing or projected to face starvation or are at risk of deterioration towards catastrophic conditions, given they already have critical food insecurity and are facing severe aggravating factors. These countries require the most urgent attention. Hotspots with very high concern countries: Pakistan, the Central African Republic, Ethiopia, Kenya, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, the Syrian Arab Republic and Myanmar. These hotspots have many people facing critical acute food insecurity, coupled with worsening drivers that are expected to intensify life‑threatening conditions in the coming months. Hunger hotspot countries: Lebanon, El Salvador, Nicaragua, Malawi, Guatemala and Honduras.  Major Reasons   Global food crisis Eruption of conflict due to organized violence and armed conflict and these Conflict disrupt livelihoods Economic concerns continue to drive acute food insecurity Weather extremes, such as heavy rains, tropical storms, cyclones, flooding, drought and increased climate variability, remain significant drivers in some countries and regions Recommendations Urgent and scaled-up assistance is required in all hunger hotspots to protect livelihoods and increase access to food. Address existing humanitarian needs and ensure short‑term protective interventions before new needs materialize. Must Read: Food Security in India. SOURCE: Down to Earth PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which of the following is/are the indicator/ indicators used by IFPRI to compute the Global Hunger Index Report? (2016) Undernourishment Child stunting Child mortality Select the correct answer using the code given below:  1 only  2 and 3 only  1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only Q2. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts? (2018)  Angola and Zambia  Morocco and Tunisia Venezuela and Colombia  Yemen and South Sudan Ternary Nanoparticles Syllabus Prelims : Science and Technology Context: A recent study has shown that new nanostructures system can be used to solve environmental problems and the weakness of renewable energy source. About Ternary Nanoparticles: Ternary nanoparticles are nanoparticles composed of three different types of materials or elements. These nanoparticles consist of a combination of three distinct components, which can be metals, metal oxides, semiconductors, or other materials. The term “ternary” indicates the presence of three components in the nanoparticle’s composition. Properties of Ternary Nanoparticles It exhibit a range of unique properties that arise from the combination of three different materials or elements. Ternary nanoparticles offer the ability to fine-tune the composition by adjusting the relative ratios of the three components. This allows researchers to tailor the properties of the nanoparticles to meet specific requirements Ternary nanoparticles can exhibit improved stability compared to their binary counterparts. Ternary nanoparticles can possess multiple functionalities due to the combination of different materials. Ternary nanoparticles often exhibit interesting optical properties, such as enhanced absorption or emission spectra, due to the interaction between different components. Ternary nanoparticles can be synthesized with precise control over their size, shape, and morphology. Applications Ternary Nanoparticles These are employed as catalysts in various chemical reactions. Ternary nanoparticles are used in energy storage and conversion devices. These with specific optical and electronic properties are utilized in photovoltaic devices such as solar cells also used in light-emitting diodes (LEDs), photodetectors, and displays. It is employed in biomedical imaging techniques, including magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), computed tomography (CT), and fluorescence imaging. These are used as carriers for controlled and targeted drug delivery. Ternary nanoparticles are explored for environmental applications, such as water purification and air pollution control. SOURCE: Nature.com PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q1.Consider the following statements (2022) Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. Nanoparticles of same commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 All India Survey of Higher Education Syllabus Prelims :Polity Context:  The All India Survey of Higher Education (AISHE) Survey 2020-21 conducted under the Ministry of Education found that the Muslim community’s enrolment in higher education declined at a time when the enrolment of SCs, STs and OBCs improved. About All India Survey of Higher Education All India Survey of Higher Education is an annual web-based survey, which started in 2010-11 and conducted by Ministry of Education. Various parameters of data collection includes teachers, student enrolment, programmes, examination results, education finance, and infrastructure. For the first time, the Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) of India have filled their data using an entirely online data collection platformthrough the Web Data Capture Format (Web DCF) developed by the Department of Higher Education and the National Informatics Centre (NIC). Key findings from the report: Gross Enrolment Ratio(GER) for all enrolments (as per 2011 Census) increased by over 2 points to 27.3. The female enrolment in higher educationprogrammes had increased to 49% of total enrolments in 2020-21 compared to 45% in 2019-20. SC: More SC students who were enrolled in 2020-21 compared two lakh to the previous year. ST: The year also saw about three lakh more ST students and six lakh more OBC students being enrolled for higher education. The proportion of Muslim students enrolling for higher education dropped to 4.6% in 2020-21 from 5.5% in 2019-20 During2020-21, the number of universities has increased by 70, and the number of colleges has increased by 1,453. The female per 100 male faculty has improved to 75 in 2020-21 from 74 in 2019-20

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Telangana’s woollen gongadi shawls Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recent initiatives to refashion Telangana’s woollen gongadi shawls into shoes for farmers have been observed. About Telangana’s woollen gongadi shawls:- Gongadi is the traditional woollen blanket woven by the indigenous Kuruma communities. It is made from the wool of the indigenous Deccani sheep, which is locally known as Nalla gorrae. Nalla gorrae: it is a breed of sheep found in the Deccan Plateau region. (UPSC MAINS: Landform formation due to volcanic eruptions) The blanket is famous for its durability and versatility. It lasts for more than a decade due to its unique hand weaving. (UPSC CSE: Textile Industry in India) Unique natures of gongadi = it does not fade but grows darker in time. The traditional gongadi is produced organically, without using any dyes either natural or synthetic. Sizing of the strings is done using the paste of soaked and cooked tamarind seeds. MUST READ: Hyderabad lac bangles set to get GI tag SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2018) Crafts                                       Heritage of Puthukkuli Shawls             Tamil Nadu Sujni Embroidery             Maharashtra Uppada Jamdani saris      Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is /are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Kalamkari painting refers to (2015) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India. a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in NorthEast India. a block-painted woollen cloth in the Western Himalayan region of India. a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India. Tele-Law programme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: According to recent reports the Tele-Law programme has achieved a new milestone with 40 lakh beneficiaries across the country. About the Tele-Law programme:- IMAGE SOURCE: CODESSLIDE.IN The Tele-Law programme was launched in (UPSC CSE: Tele-Law) Ministry/ministries: Ministry of Law and Justice and Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). Objective: the programme connects the disadvantaged section with a panel of lawyers through an e-interface platform. It uses video conferencing facilities and telephone services to connect lawyers to litigants who need legal advice. It is to facilitate the delivery of legal advice through a panel of lawyers stationed at the State Legal Services Authorities (SALSA) and CSC (Common service centres). (UPSC CSE: NALSA) The service is free for those who are eligible for free legal Aid under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987. For all others, a nominal fee is charged. MUST READ: Citizens’ Tele-Law Mobile App SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Regarding Digi Locker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Kanger Valley National Park Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a rare mouse deer was caught on a camera trap set up at Kanger Valley National Park. About Kanger Valley National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: SLIDESHARE Kanger valley national park is situated in Jagdalpur, It was established as a national park in the year (UPSC CSE: Eco-sensitive Zones (ESZ) ) It derives its name from the Kanger River that flows through it. The Cuddapah group of rock formations, as well as the Vindhyan group of rock formations, are the most prevalent rock formations in the park. The state bird of Chattisgarh, the Bastar Hill Myna, is the most famous species in this area.It can imitate human voices. Kutumbasar, Kailash, and Dandak are three caves in the park, known for their geological features of stalagmites and stalactites. Fauna: Tigers, Leopards, Mouse Deer, Rhesus Macaque, Sloth Bear, Flying Squirrel, Chital, Sambar, Barking Deer, Pythons, Cobra, Snakes etc. (UPSC CSE: Chhattisgarh’s state animal, Wild buffalo, close to extinction) Flora: Teak, Haldu, Sal, Tendu, Mahua, Saja, Bija, Dhavara, Tinsa, , Mahulbel, Amarbel, Bandha etc. MUST READ: Indravati Tiger Reserve SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous? (2020) Kanha National Park Manas National Park Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary Foucault pendulum Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: A Foucault’s Pendulum, was installed in the new Parliament building inaugurated recently. About Foucault’s Pendulum:- IMAGE SOURCE: si.edu The Foucault pendulum is a device that proves the Earth’s rotation. A French scientist, Leon Foucault invented the Foucault pendulum. Historical Context: In 1851, the Foucault pendulum experiment conclusively demonstrated the Earth’s rotation, settling debates about the planet’s movement. (UPSC MAINS: What is Geomagnetism?) Working: The pendulum consists of a heavy iron ball suspended by a steel wire and swings in a plane, mimicking the Earth’s rotation on its axis. A Foucault pendulum always rotates clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere. The rate of rotation depends on the latitude. (UPSC CSE: Climate change causing a shift in Earth’s axis) The rate

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Small Finance Banks Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recent reports suggest that Small Finance Banks have revolutionised banking services in rural and semi-urban areas. About Small Finance Banks:- IMAGE SOURCE: tnpscthervupettagam.com Small Finance Banks are the financial institutions, which provide financial services to the unserved and unbanked region of the country. They are registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act, 2013. Minimum paid-up capital– 100 cr. Capital adequacy ratio – 15% of risk-weighted assets. Foreign shareholding capped at 74% of paid capital. Foreign Portfolio investment ( FPIs) cannot be more than 24%. Priority sector lending requirement of 75% of total adjusted net bank credit. (UPSCE MAINS: Micro finance has the ability to unleash rural India’s entrepreneurial zeal.) Eligibility Criteria:- Resident individuals/professionals, having at least 10 years of experience in banking and finance can start Small Finance Banks with the approval of RBI. Existing Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs), Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs), and Local Area Banks (LABs) in the private sector. (UPSC CSE: Digital Banks) Indian residents and have a successful record of accomplishment of running their businesses for at least a period of five years must control these. Joint ventures for setting up small finance banks are not permitted. Functions:- Take small deposits and disburse loans. Distribute mutual funds, insurance products and other simple third-party financial products. Lend 75% of their total adjusted net bank credit to priority sector. (Revised Priority Sector Lending Guidelines). Maximum loan size would be 10% of capital funds to single borrower, 15% to a group. Minimum 50% of loans should be up to 25 lakhs. MUST READ: Inclusive Growth SOURCE: THE PRINT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, the Central Bank’s function as the “lender of last resort” usually refers to which of the following? (2020) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 3 only Q.2) With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks in India, consider the following statements: (2021) They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. They can issue equity shares and preference shares. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, of 1949 through an Amendment in 1996 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 World’s largest grain storage plan Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Union Cabinet approved a programme for “world’s largest grain storage”. About World’s largest grain storage plan:- This scheme intends to construct grain storage facilities in the cooperative sector. Every block will have a dedicated godown with a capacity of 2,000 tonnes. Objective: to revolutionize the storage and distribution of food grains, ensuring their preservation and availability across the country. Supervision of the scheme: an inter-ministerial committee will oversee implementation. Schemes identified for convergence under the Plan:- Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare:- Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure Scheme (AMI) Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH) Sub Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM) Ministry of Food Processing Industries:- Pradhan Mantri Formalization of Micro Food Processing Enterprises Scheme (PMFME) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution:- Allocation of food grains under the National Food Security Act Procurement operations at Minimum Support Price Benefits:- The plan aims to address not just the shortage of agricultural storage infrastructure. (UPSC MAINS: Evaluate the storage mechanism for agricultural produce in India. ) Functioning as Procurement centres for State Agencies/ Food Corporation of India (FCI) Creation of decentralised storage capacity- it would reduce food grain wastage and strengthen the food security of the country. Providing various options to the farmers-, it would prevent the distressed sale of crops, thus enabling the farmers to realise better prices for their produce. Reduce the cost incurred in the transportation of food grains to procurement centres. MUST READ: Free Foodgrain Scheme SOURCE: THE HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past? (2020) Minimum Support Price Government’s trading Government’s stockpiling Consumer subsidies Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? (2020) Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Social Capital Development Free electricity supply to farmers Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system Setting up cold storage facilities by the governments. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 5 only 1, 3, 4 and 5 only 2, 3 and 6 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Chytridiomycosis Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, scientists developed a diagnostic test for Chytridiomycosis. About Chytridiomycosis:- IMAGE SOURCE: SLIDESERVE.COM Chytridiomycosis is a fungal disease in frog populations. (UPSC CSE: White fungus) It has caused severe declines in over 500 frog species and led to 90 extinctions, making it the deadliest animal disease known. (UPSC CSE: Mucormycosis ) How does it infect? It infects frogs skin. This damages their ability to balance water and salt levels. Origin- the disease originated in Asia. It spread globally through amphibian trade and travel. Mortality rate- extremely high. Natural immunity:- Some amphibian species have some form of natural immune resistance and do not become sick when they carry the fungus. This Immunity might come from anti-microbial chemicals within the skin, symbiotic bacteria on the skin, white blood cells and antibodies in the blood, or combinations of these mechanisms. So far, no clear trend has been