Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Coal Bed Methane Syllabus Prelims – Geography and Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Union Minister of Coal, Mines and Parliamentary Affairs spoke on the extraction of Coal Bed Methane in the Lok Sabha. About Coal Bed Methane:- IMAGE SOURCE: Natural Gas Drilling Basics – Lawrence & Mercer ALLARM – A Citizen Science Initiative from Westminster College (google.com) It is an unconventional form of natural gas. It is found in coal deposits or coal seams. It is formed during the process of coalification, the transformation of plant material into coal. Extraction:- Coal Bed Methane is extracted from unconventional gas reservoirs Unconventional gas reservoirs are where gas is extracted directly from the rock that is the source of the gas For example shale in the case of shale gas and coal in the case of CBM Process:- The methane is held underground within the coal and is extracted by drilling into the coal seam and removing the groundwater. The resulting drop in pressure causes methane to be released from the coal. Uses of Coal Bed Methane:- It can be used in Power generation. It can be used as Compressed natural gas (CNG) auto fuel. It can be used as a feedstock for fertilisers. It can be used for Industrial uses such as cement production, rolling mills, steel plants, and methanol production. Reserves in India:- IMAGE SOURCE: Coal Bed Methane IN INDIA MAP UPSC – Bing The country’s coal and CBM reserves are found in around 12 states of India. The Gondwana sediments of eastern India hold the bulk. The Damodar Koel valley and Son valley are prospective areas for CBM development. CBM projects existing in Raniganj coalfields, the Parbatpur block in Jharia coalfield and the East and West Bokaro coalfields. The Son valley includes the Sonhat North and Sohagpur East and West blocks. MUST READ: Methane Emissions SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Monazite is a source of rare earth. Monazite contains thorium. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2020) Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment. High ash content is observed in Indian coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Western Disturbances Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent studies suggest that Climate change is causing Western Disturbances to weaken. About Western Disturbances:- IMAGE SOURCE: Readying to pack your woollens up? Think again! Extreme weather conditions in North-West India next week will chill you to the bone – India Today These are low-pressure areas embedded in the Westerlies. Westerlies: the planetary winds that flow from west to east between 30°-60° latitude. Disturbance in the name indicates an area of “disturbed” or reduced air pressure. Western disturbances are formed naturally. They are labelled as an extra-tropical storms. Extra-tropical: it means outside the tropics. As the WD originates outside the tropical region, the word “extra-tropical” is used for them. They originate in the Mediterranean region and travel over Iran, Iraq, Afghanistan and Pakistan to enter India loaded with moisture In India, the Himalayas obstruct them, causing rain and snow in the western Himalayas. They usually bring mild rain during January-February, which is beneficial to the rabi crop. Since wheat is one of the most important Rabi crops and is the staple diet of people in this region, winter showers contribute to meeting India’s food security. These are associated with a cloudy sky, higher night temperatures and unusual rain. Excessive precipitation due to western disturbances can cause crop damage, landslides, floods and avalanches over the Indo-Gangetic plains. They occasionally bring cold wave conditions and dense fog. MUST READ: NORTHEAST (WINTER) MONSOON SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds. In the temperate Zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Vedic Heritage Portal Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, the Vedic Heritage Portal created by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts was inaugurated. About Vedic Heritage Portal:- The ‘Vedic Heritage Portal’ created by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA). It is a one-stop solution for common users and researchers seeking any information regarding ‘Vedic heritage. It gives detailed information about oral traditions, a textual traditions in form of published books/manuscripts or implements. It aims to communicate messages enshrined in the Vedas. It will help common people to have a general understanding of the Vedas. The audio-visual recording of four Vedas has been uploaded on the Vedic Heritage portal. The portal has over 18 thousand mantras of the four Vedas with a duration of over 550 hours.  About Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts:- The IGNCA comes under of Ministry of Culture. It was established in 1987 as an autonomous institution. The founder trustees of IGNCA were Shri Rajiv Gandhi, Shri R. Venkataraman, Shri P.V. Narasimha Rao, Smt. Pupul Jayakar, the Finance Minister of 1987, Shri H. Y. Sharada Prasad and Dr. Kapila Vatsyayan. It is

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Finance Bill 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Finance Bill 2023 was approved with amendments. About Finance Bill 2023:- Key Highlights of the bill:- The withholding tax rate on royalties and fees for technical services paid to non-residents has been raised from 10% to 20%This may increase the cost of import of technology. Options contracts will now attract 0.021% STT from 0.017% earlier and futures will attract a levy of 0.0125%, up from 0.01% The Finance Bill has paved the way for setting up GST Appellate Tribunals across the country, with a principal bench in New Delhi and several State benches. The Tribunal will be headed by a former Supreme Court judge or a retired Chief Justice of a High Court. The stock market has seen an increase in Securities Transaction Tax (STT) on futures and options contracts from April 1, 2023. It is to discourage excessive trade in F&O. Significance of the amendment:- This increase in  STT will shore up revenues for the Government. The main idea behind this could be to discourage excessive trade in the F&O segment where a large number of retail traders end up losing money as per a recent SEBI study. An incidental effect of this could be shifting the F&O trades to SGX, Gift and other locations that do not attract such taxes for participants who have access to them. REITs (Real Estate Investment Trusts) and InvITs (Infrastructure Investment Trusts): the government has tweaked the Budget proposal to tax distribution from business trusts as income from other sources. Any amount received in excess of the issue price would be taxable as income. The draft rules related to valuation shall be shared with the stakeholders for their input in April itself, and exclusions, currently provided to domestic Venture Capital Funds etc, shall also be considered for similar overseas entities. This will impact all mutual funds that offer schemes with nomenclatures such as conservative hybrid funds, that invest predominantly in debt but have an equity exposure of up to 35% in their portfolios. An arbitrage is being created right now where interest income from a debt mutual is not distributed and converted into long-term capital gains of 20% (with indexation). Debt mutual fund: where not more than 35% is invested in shares in the domestic company. Thus many taxpayers are able to reduce their tax liability through this arbitrage. Money Bill vs Finance Bill:- A Finance Bill is a bill that deals with the country’s finances, as the name implies – it could be about taxes, government spending, government borrowings, revenues, and so on. The Union Budget is enacted as a Finance Bill because it deals with these issues. The finance bill is classified into two categories: Financial bill (I) Financial bill (II) Money Bills, as the name implies, are bills whose provisions are entirely concerned with all or any of the issues specified in Article 110(1). It includes issues such as the imposition, repeal, and regulation of taxes, the control of government borrowing, the protection of Consolidated or Contingency Funds and the influx or outflow of money from any such funds, the allocation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India, and so on. Types of Financial Bills:- Financial bills (I)–Article 117 (1) A financial bill (I) is a measure that includes not only any or all of the subjects stated in Article 110, but also other general legislative provisions. A finance bill (I) is comparable to a money bill in two ways: (a) both can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha and (b) both can be introduced only on the president’s advice. In all other ways, a finance bill (I) follows the same parliamentary procedure as an ordinary bill. Financial bills (II)–Article 117 (3) A financial bill (II) has provisions affecting Consolidated Fund of India spending but does not include any of the items enumerated in Article 110. It is considered an ordinary bill and is subject to the same parliamentary procedure as an ordinary bill in all aspects. The single distinguishing element of this bill is that it cannot be enacted by either House of Parliament unless the President has requested that the measure be considered by that House. As a result, finance bill (II) can be filed in either House of Parliament, and the President’s approval is not required. In other words, the President’s suggestion is not necessary at the introduction stage but is required during the consideration step. Either the House of Parliament has the option of rejecting or amending it. If the two Houses disagree on such a law, the President might call a joint session of the two Houses to break the stalemate. When the measure is given to the President, he can either grant his consent to it, withhold his assent to it, or return it to the Houses for reconsideration. MUST READ: Angel Tax SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India? (2022) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Commission for the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources (CCAMLR) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Minister of state (independent charge) for science and technology and earth science stated that India will continue to support the efforts of the Commission for the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources (CCAMLR). About the Commission for the Commission for the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources (CCAMLR):-Background:– It was established by an international convention in 1982 with the objective of conserving Antarctic marine life. Objective:-Based on the best available scientific information, the Commission agrees to a set of conservation measures that determine the use of marine living resources in the Antarctic. It is an international commission with 27 Members. Important members: Australia, Brazil, China, EU, Japan, UK, USAetc 10 countries have acceded to the Convention so far. India is a member of the convention. The CAMLR Convention entered into force on 7 April 1982. CCAMLR’s Secretariat is located in Hobart, Tasmania, Australia. CCAMLR’s programs of research, monitoring and the application of conservation measures in the Convention Area make a valuable contribution to Antarctic conservation. About United Nations 30×30 Framework:- It is a landmark agreement adopted by the UN Biodiversity Conference, COP15. COP15:- It was held in Montreal, Canada. It was originally set to be held in Kunming, China, in 2020 but was postponed due to the COVID-19 pandemic. United Nations 30×30 Framework aims to protect 30 per cent of the planet’s lands, coastal areas and inland waters by 2030. The United Nations has designated the next 10 years “The Decade on Restoration” to halt ecosystem degradation. The 30×30 goal is particularly urgent because it’s easier to protect an environment from destruction than it is to regenerate an environment that’s already been degraded. An estimated 16.44% of land worldwide is currently protected, along with 7.74% of the ocean, according to the United Nations. Roughly three-quarters of all land environments and two-thirds of the ocean have been heavily degraded by human activities according to reports. The 30% conservation goal gives the planet a chance to recover and could protect millions of species from extinction. The countries can protect 30% of their land and marine spaces through legislation. MUST READ: Conserving Marine Resources and BIMSTEC & Maritime Protection SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations? (2022) Restoration of damaged coral reefs Development of building materials using plant residues Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas Earth Hour Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: About Earth Hour:- Earth Hour famously began in Sydney, Australia back in 2007. It is an annual initiative of the World Wildlife Fund for Nature (WWF). Earth Hour is held every year on the last Saturday of March. It encourages people from more than 180 countries to switch off the lights from 8.30 pm to 9.30 pm as per their local time. Objective: to encourage individuals, households, communities and businesses to take accountability for their ecological footprint and engage in a dialogue on finding real solutions to challenges like climate change, biodiversity loss and environmental degradation as a whole. The 2023 edition of this worldwide movement, organised by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), has been scheduled for 8:30-9:30 p.m. on Saturday, March 25. Interestingly, every year on March 20-21, Earth’s northern and southern hemispheres witness the equinox. Equinox: it is an astronomical event that causes both hemispheres to experience nearly equal hours of day and night. This leads to near coincidental sunset times in both hemispheres, thereby ensuring a compelling visual impact for a global ‘lights out event’. This is a major reason to celebrate Earth Hour towards the end of March. About World Wildlife Fund for Nature (WWF):- It is the world’s leading conservation organization and works in more than 100 countries. It was established in 1961. It is headquartered in Gland, Switzerland. Initiatives of WWF:- TX2 Goal TRAFFIC Living Planet Report MUST READ: Energy Security SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as the 2020 Tree City of the World Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for recognition for a year following its commitment to growing and maintaining the Urban forests. (2021) Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1 Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct. Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct. Q.2) The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for(2021) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit of time Gymnothorax tamilnaduensis Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a new species of eel Gy mnothorax tamilnaduensis has been discovered. About Gymnothorax tamilnaduensis:- The researchers have discovered a new species of Moray eel at the Mudasalodai fish landing centre off the Cuddalore coast. The species has been named after Tamil Nadu as Gymnothorax tamilnaduensis with a common name as Tamil Nadu brown moray. The new species are notably different from its known Indian water congeners (organisms of the same

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Daylight Saving Time (DST) Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, Lebanon saw mass confusion after its government at the last minute delayed the start of daylight saving time by a month. About Daylight Saving Time (DST):- IMAGE SOURCE: Daylight saving time – Phần 9 – THIẾT BỊ KHOA HỌC CÔNG NGHỆ (thietbikhoahoccongnghe.com.vn) It is the practice of turning the clock ahead as warmer weather approaches and back as it becomes colder again. The practice was first suggested by Benjamin Franklin in 1784. India does not follow daylight saving time as countries near the Equator do not experience high variations in daytime hours between seasons. However, people of the Northeast have demanded a separate time zone to make up for the loss of daylight hours due to the longitudinal breadth of India. Several countries, including Australia, Great Britain, Germany, and the United States, adopted Daylight Saving Time during World War I to conserve fuel by reducing the need for artificial light. A group of Canadians in Port Arthur (Ontario) were the first to adopt the practice of setting their clocks an hour ahead in 1908. Among the biggest disadvantages is the disruption of the body clock or circadian rhythm leading to health issues. SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs on the: (2022) The first half of the month of June The second half of the month of June The first half of the month of July The second half of the month of July Q.2) On 21st June, the Sun (2019) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn iDEX scheme Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: Recently, three iDEX scheme winners secured contracts from Army, Navy & Air Force. About the iDEX scheme:- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Defence. It was launched by the Government in April 2018. Objective: It aims to create an ecosystem which fosters innovation and encourages technology development in Defence by engaging R&D institutes, academia, industries, start-ups and even individual innovators. It is one of the first aims of India as a nation since Independence has been to achieve self-reliance in the field of defence and defence production. Its two founding members are Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) & Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) HAL and BEL are Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs). HAL and BEL are navratna companies. India is the world’s largest defence equipment importer. iDEX will be funded and managed by a “Defence Innovation Organisation (DIO)‟ DIO is a “not-for-profit‟ company as per Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013 for this purpose. Working:  Start-ups or individual applications are invited to provide solutions to these problems and after rigorous evaluation of the applications, winners receive innovation grants in technological areas through the prototype funding guidelines called Support for Prototype and Research Kickstart (SPARK). iDEX has partnered with leading incubators in the country to provide hand-holding, technical support and guidance to the winners of iDEX challenges. MUST READ: Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) Prime SOURCE: BUISINESSLINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Bauxite Certified Reference Material (CRM) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, NALCO-BARC Released India’s 1st Bauxite Certified Reference Material (CRM). About Bauxite Certified Reference Material (CRM):- CRMs are blocks of metal that come with certificates indicating the concentration of their various constituent elements along with their uncertainty levels. CRMs are used as calibration standards for analytical methods, instrument performance evaluation, and data quality control in routine analysis of bauxite. The CRM was certified for nine property values – Al2O3, Fe2O3, SiO2, TiO2, V2O5, MnO, Cr2O3, MgO and LOI which are traceable to the international system of units. NALCO-BARC Released India’s 1st Bauxite Certified Reference Material (CRM). This is the first of its kind CRM in India and 5th in the World. It is developed by NALCO in joint collaboration with Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC). It has been named BARC B1201. The CRM will serve as a standard for bauxite testing and analysis, ensuring greater accuracy and consistency in testing. It exemplifies India’s commitment to building a robust and dependable testing infrastructure for critical raw materials, which is critical for the country’s economic growth and development. The National Centre for Certified Reference Materials (NCCRM), a division of India’s National Physical Laboratory, has certified the bauxite CRM (NPL). The certification process included extensive testing and analysis to ensure the CRM meets the highest accuracy and reliability standards. National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO):- It was established in 1981. It works under the Ministry of Mines, Govt. of India. It is a Schedule ‘A’ Navratna CPSE. It has a registered office in Bhubaneswar.  It is one of the largest integrated Bauxite-Alumina-Aluminium- Power Complex in the Country. It is the country’s leading manufacturer and exporter of alumina and aluminium. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre ( BARC ) It is under the  Department of Atomic Energy, Government of India. It is a multi-disciplinary research centre with extensive infrastructure for advanced research and development covering the entire spectrum of nuclear science, chemical engineering, material sciences and metallurgy, electronic instrumentation, biology

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Vembanad and Ashtamudi lakes Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology and Geography Context: Recently, the National Green Tribunal (NGT), imposed a penalty of Rs 10 crore on the Kerala government for failing to protect the Vembanad and Ashtamudi lakes. About Vembanad lake:- It is the largest lake in Kerala and the longest Lake in India. It is bound by Alappuzha, Kottayam and Ernakulam. It has its source in four rivers: Meenachil, Achankovil, Pampa and Manimala. It is separated from the Arabian Sea by a narrow barrier island and is a popular backwater stretch in Kerala. Vallam Kali (i.e Nehru Trophy Boat Race): a Snake Boat Race held every year in the month of August in Vembanad Lake. It was included in the list of wetlands of international importance, as defined by the Ramsar Convention in 2002. It is the second-largest Ramsar site in India only after the Sundarbans in West Bengal. The Government of India has identified the Vembanad wetland under the National Wetlands Conservation Programme. The Kumarakom Bird Sanctuary is located on the east coast of the lake. In 2019, Willingdon Island, a seaport was carved out. About Ashtamudi Lake:- IMAGE SOURCE: http://www.kerenvis.nic.in/WriteReadData/userfiles/ramsar.jpg It is a freshwater lake located in the Kollam district of Kerala, a state in southern India. It is an extensive estuarine system, the second largest in Kerala State. Ashtamudi means ‘eight braids’ in the local Malayalam language. It has been recognized as a Ramsar site, a wetland site designated internationally important under the Ramsar Convention. The Ramsar Convention: is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands, and India is a signatory to this treaty. MUST READ: COP14 of Ramsar Convention on Wetlands SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) Wetland/Lake:                                  Location Hokera Wetland                        Punjab Renuka Wetland                       Himachal Pradesh Rudrasagar Lake                       Tripura Sasthamkotta                            Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of the Ramsar Convention The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 SHRESHTA and SMILE scheme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The implementation of the Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA) and Support for Marginalised Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise (SMILE)was reviewed recently. About Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA):- It is under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It is a Central Sector Scheme. Objective: for the purpose of providing seats for the meritorious SC boys and girls in the best private residential schools in the country. Every year, it is expected that about (3000) students would be selected for admission in Class 9 and Class 11 under the scheme. Admission will be provided in Class 9 and Class 11 of CBSE-affiliated private schools. Selection process: The selection will be done through a transparent mechanism which is known as National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA (NETS). It will be conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA) for admission in classes 9th and 11th. NTA: it is a premier, specialist, an autonomous and self-sustained testing organization to conduct entrance examinations for admission/fellowship in higher educational institutions. It was established as an independent, autonomous, and self-sustained premier testing organization under the Societies Registration Act (1860) by the Ministry of Education (MoE). It is for conducting efficient, transparent, and international standardized tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admission to premier higher education. About Support for Marginalised Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise (SMILE):- It is under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It is a Central Sector scheme. Objective: for providing welfare measures to the Transgender community and people engaged in begging. It seeks to strengthen and expands the reach of Rights that give necessary legal protection and secured life to the targeted group. It keeps in mind the social security required through multiple dimensions of identity, education, medical care, shelter, and occupational opportunities. This umbrella scheme would cover several comprehensive measures including welfare measures with a focus extensively on rehabilitation, provision of medical facilities, counselling, education, skill development, economic linkages etc. It will work with the support of State Governments/UTs/Local Urban Bodies, Voluntary Organizations, Community-Based Organizations (CBOs) and institutions and others. It includes two sub-schemes – Comprehensive Rehabilitation for the Welfare of Transgender Persons and  Comprehensive Rehabilitation of persons engaged in the act of Begging. Components of Comprehensive Rehabilitation for the Welfare of Transgender Persons:- Scholarships for Transgender Students studying in IX and till post-graduation to complete their education. Skill Development and Livelihood under the PM-DAKSH scheme. Composite Medical Health package in convergence with PM-JAY to support Gender-Reaffirmation surgeries through selected hospitals Shelter Homes ‘Garima Greh’, where all the basic facilities (food, clothing, medical support) recreational facilities and skill development opportunities, will be provided. Transgender Protection Cell will be set up in each state for monitoring cases of offences and ensuring timely registration, investigation and prosecution. Components of Comprehensive Rehabilitation of persons engaged in the act of Begging:- Survey and Identification of beneficiaries by Implementing Agencies. Outreach work will be done to mobilise the persons engaged in begging to avail services available in Shelter Homes. Shelter homes will facilitate education for children engaged in the act of Begging. MUST READ: Education & Nation Building SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) COVID-19 Syllabus Prelims –Science and technology Context: Recently, Delhi reported an uptick in COVID-19 cases, compelling the health department to hold an emergency meeting. About COVID-19:- Covid-19 is spread via airborne droplets (sneezing coughing) or contact with the surface. The incubation period (interval between being infected and showing symptoms) is not very accurately known. Coronavirus is also known as COVID-19. This disease is caused by Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus(SARS-CoV-2). It is an infectious disease that spreads from person to person. Structure:- IMAGE SOURCE: Trending Clinical Topic: COVID-19 (medscape.com) The outer layer of this virus is covered with spike-like proteins which surround it like a crown, thus named COVID. COVID-19 Diagnostic tests:- Viral tests: Mainly laboratory tests done by doctors. Antibody test:– It is a kind of blood test that determines the body’s status before exposure to COVID-19 and the body’s antibody stamina. The body takes 12 days to make enough antibodies to get identified in a test. Important Variants:- IMAGE SOURCE: What is a variant? An expert explains | News | Wellcome Over time, the virus may start to differ slightly in terms of its genetic sequence. These changes to the viral genetic sequence during this process are known as Viruses with new mutations are sometimes called Variants. Variants can differ by one or multiple mutations. All strains are variants, but not all variants are strains. XE Variant of Coronavirus:- XE is a sub-variant of Omicron, which caused the third wave of Covid-19. It was suspected of a woman in Mumbai, India in 2022. The Omicron variant, which is responsible for over 90% of the infections detected in 2022, has two prominent sub-variants, called 1 and BA.2. The XE variant is what is called a ‘recombinant’. This means it contains the mutations found in BA.1 as well as BA.2 varieties of Omicron. MUST READ: iNCOVACC SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Uncontrolled Re-entry of satellites Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recent studies show that aeroplanes may face a growing risk of being hit by uncontrolled re-entries of rockets used to launch satellites. About Uncontrolled Re-entry of satellites:- IMAGE SOURCE: Everything about ISRO: History and Mission: Planets Education In an uncontrolled re-entry, the rocket stage simply falls. Its path down is determined by its shape, angle of descent, air currents and other characteristics. It disintegrates as it falls. Concerns:- As the smaller pieces fan out, the potential radius of impact will increase on the ground. Some pieces burn up entirely while others don’t. But because of the speed at which they’re travelling, debris can be deadly. If re-entering stages still hold fuel, atmospheric and terrestrial chemical contamination is another risk. Regulations:- There is no international binding agreement to ensure rocket stages always perform controlled re-entries nor on the technologies with which they can be controlled. The Liability Convention, 1972 requires countries to pay for damages, not prevent them. These technologies include wing-like attachments, de-orbiting brakes, extra fuel on the re-entering body, and design changes that minimise debris formation. MUST READ: RISAT and RISAT-2B SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch  vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct.? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Climate change impact on Salt Marshes Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent studies show that more than 90% of the world’s salt marshes may soon succumb to sea level rise. About Salt Marshes:- These are types of wetlands. Wetlands: Lands transitional between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems where the water table is usually at or near the surface or the land is covered by shallow water. These are periodically saturated, flooded, or ponded with water. They are characterized by herbaceous (non-woody) vegetation adapted to wet soil conditions. They are further characterized as tidal marshes and non-tidal marshes. Marshes are often divided into:- Freshwater Swamps These are often found hundreds of kilometres from the coast. These are dominated by grasses and aquatic plants. These marshes often develop around lakes and streams. Saltwater Marshes These are some of the richest ecosystems for biodiversity. They are dominated by grasses. They provide food and shelter for algae, fungi, shellfish, fish, amphibians, and reptiles. A few mangrove trees may dot saltwater marshes, but they are dominated by grasses and a layer of algae called an

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) International Yoga Day Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture About International Yoga Day : The UN proclaimed 21st June as IDY by passing a resolution in December 2014. It was during the 69th session of the General Assembly. About Yoga and UNESCO Intangible Heritage Sites:- Intangible cultural heritage means the traditions or living expressions inherited from our ancestors and passed through generations as a way of life. These include oral traditions, performing arts, social practices, rituals, and festive events. The Convention of the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage was adopted by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) in 2003 and entered into force in 2006. Salient features of Intangible Cultural heritage:- Traditional, contemporary and living at the same time Inclusive Representative Community-based The Purpose of the Convention:- to safeguard the expressions of intangible cultural heritage that are endangered by the processes of globalization to ensure respect for the intangible cultural heritage of the communities, groups and individuals to raise awareness at the local, national and international levels of the importance of the intangible cultural heritage. The Committee to the Convention publishes three lists of intangible cultural heritage: Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity List of Intangible Cultural Heritage in Need of Urgent Safeguarding Register of good safeguarding practices UNESCO World Intangible Cultural Heritage List 2021 Kutiyattam: Sanskrit theatre-2008 Vedic chanting-2008 Ramlila: the traditional performance of the Ramayana-2008 Ramman: religious festival and ritual theatre of the Garhwal Himalayas, India-2009 Chhau dance-2010 Kalbelia: folk songs and dances of Rajasthan-2010 Mudiyettu: ritual theatre and dance drama of Kerala-2010 Buddhist chanting of Ladakh: recitation of sacred Buddhist texts in the trans-Himalayan Ladakh region, Jammu and Kashmir, India-2012 Sankirtana: ritual singing, drumming and dancing of Manipur-2013 Traditional brass and copper craft of utensil making among the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru, Punjab, India-2014 Nawrouz-2016 Yoga-2016 Kumbh Mela-2017 Durga Puja in Kolkata-2021 IMAGE SOURCE: Click here MUST READ: India’s list of World Heritage Sites SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2017) Traditions                                       Communities Chaliha Sahib Festival           Sindhis Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra             Gonds Wari-Warkari                         Santhals Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 Only 2 and 3 Only 1 and 3 Only None of the above INDIASOFT Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The 23rd edition of INDIASOFT was inaugurated recently. About INDIASOFT:- It is held consecutively since 2001. It has emerged as the favourite meeting ground for Indian tech developers and global consumers. Purpose: With more than 1000 IT and tech companies converging to meet and connect with each other, the show brings to the fore competencies of the Indian software and tech industry. Provides multiple opportunities to forge business alliances, spread first-hand information about the latest innovations and help build a vibrant and dynamic tech world. MUST READ:  Indian Deep Tech and a case for a strategic fund SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Concerning foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Concerning the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports. India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have decreased in recent years. India’s exports of services are more than its imports of services. India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Government has formulated National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) as a separate and independent scheme to motivate farmers to adopt chemical-free farming and enhance the reach of natural farming. About National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF):- Formulated as a separate and independent scheme from 2023-24 by upscaling the Bhartiya Prakritik Krishi Paddati (BPKP). The scheme is from 2023 to 2026. Mission Objectives:- To promote an alternative system of farming for freedom from externally purchased inputs, cost reduction and thereby increasing income of farmers. To popularize integrated agriculture-animal husbandry models based on desi cow and local resources. To collect, validate and document Natural Farming practices. To undertake activities for awareness creation, capacity building, promotion and demonstration of Natural Farming. To create standards, certification procedures and branding for Natural Farming products for national and international markets. Benefits to farmers:- Incentive to farmers for one-time on-farm manure production infrastructure:- A financial assistance of Rs. 15000/- per ha @ Rs. 5000/- per ha/year for three years Training of Farmers by Champion farmers and CRP Farmer Producer Organisations (FPO) formation for farmers practicing Natural Farming: 100 FPOs in the Gangetic belt Another 400 FPOs across the country Farmer Field School:– It will involve activities to create awareness. About Bhartiya Prakritik Krishi Paddati (BPKP):- IMAGE SOURCE: Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana – Bing images It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS). It is a sub-mission under the Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY), which falls within the umbrella of the National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA). Objectives:- To improve farmers’ profitability, availability of quality food and restoration of soil fertility and farmland ecosystem as well as generate employment.

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Kangra tea Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the European Commission grants a GI tag for Himachal’s Kangra tea. About Kangra tea:- In 1849, Dr Jameson, then superintendent of the Botanical Tea Gardens, pronounced the region ideal for tea cultivation.  Being one of India’s smallest tea regions makes Kangra green and black tea all the more exclusive.  While the black tea has a sweet lingering aftertaste, the green tea has a delicate woody aroma. It is hand-plucked and processed with traditional methods to bring out its full potential. It is exported to Kabul and Central Asia via Peshawar. Kangra tea is a registered Geographical Indication (GI). Tea Attributes: The first flush of Kangra tea is known for its quality, unique aroma and tinge of fruity flavour. A little milder than Darjeeling tea in terms of flavour. It has more body and liquor. Elevation: Teas are grown at elevations ranging from 900 to 1400 metres above sea level. Annual Rainfall: 270 to 350cm. MUST READ: GI Tag for Mithila Makhana SOURCE: BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Changpa’ Community of India, consider the following statements: (2014) They live mainly in the state of Uttarakhand They rear the Pashmina goats that yield fine wool They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes Which of the given statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) 2023 Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) 2023 has been notified. About Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) 2023:- IMAGE SOURCE: Mahila Samman Saving Certificate Apply Post Office and Bank – Sarkari Yojana – TheHowPedia It is a one-time small savings scheme for women to commemorate celebrations of 75 years of Independence.  It will be made available for a two-year period up to March 2025. It will be under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. The small saving certificate will have a fixed interest rate of 7.5% for two years. The deposit can be made in the name of a woman or a girl child. The maximum deposit amount has been kept at ₹2 lakhs and the scheme will have a partial withdrawal facility as well. Eligibility:- Application for opening an account under the scheme can be made by a woman for herself or by the guardian on behalf of a minor girl. Deposit limit:- Any number of MSSC accounts can be opened by a woman, or in the name of a minor girl by the guardian, subject to the maximum limit of Rs 2 lakh. Interest Rate:- The Government has notified 7.5% interest on deposits in an MSSC account. The interest will be compounded on a quarterly basis and credited to the account. Maturity and Payment:- The notification said that the deposit shall mature on completion of two years from the date of the deposit. The eligible balance may be paid to the account holder on an application in Form-2 submitted to the accounts office on maturity. Partial Withdrawal:- An MSSC accountholder will be allowed to withdraw a maximum of up to 40% of the eligible balance once after the expiry of one year from the date of opening of the account but before the maturity of the account. The notification further said that in case of an account opened on behalf of a minor girl, the guardian may apply for the withdrawal for the benefit MUST READ: SAMARTH initiative for women SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statement is/are correct? (2016) Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Summit for Democracy 2023 Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, President Joe Biden announced the opening of his second Summit for Democracy. About Summit for Democracy 2023:- It is hosted by the U.S. Agency for International Development (USAID). Objectives: to renew democracy at home and confront autocracies abroad. The Summit comprises a series of events and a Year of Action (YoA) led by the US Government to support democratic renewal around the world.  The Summit for Democracy as a process is an extraordinary opportunity to galvanize attention and mobilize international action. This is the second Summit for Democracy, the U.S. Agency for International Development (USAID). It  unveils new efforts to advance democracy abroad like: Presidential Initiative for Democratic Renewal (PIDR)  USAID is contributing eight new initiatives, many of which are focused on policy reforms, to the PIDR. The PIDR comprises five lines of effort in response to significant challenges to democracy in the 21st Century. This includes the Partnerships for Democratic Development (PDD), which provides multi-year support to countries that demonstrate sustained democratic progress. The USAID has announced the first wave of nine PDD partner countries: Armenia, Dominican Republic, Ecuador, Malawi, Nepal, North Macedonia, Paraguay, Timor-Leste, and Zambia. MUST READ: 2022 Resilient Democracies Statement SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA