June 2025

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO), arrested a Chartered Accountant in Hyderabad recently. Background:- Shri Nalin Prabhat Panchal, a Chartered Accountant by profession was arrested for failure to honour the summons issued in connection with the prosecution of Nityank Infrapower & Multiventures Private Limited. About Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO):- Ministry: Ministry of Corporate Affairs. HQ: New Delhi. Establishment: As per the Companies Act, 2013, the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) has been established through the Government of India Notification dated 07.2015. It is a multi-disciplinary organization, consisting of experts in the field of accountancy, forensic auditing, banking, law, information technology, investigation, company law, capital market and taxation, etc. Objective: It works for detecting and prosecuting or recommending for prosecution white-collar crimes/frauds. (Shell Companies) It has five Regional Offices in Mumbai, New Delhi, Chennai, Hyderabad & and Kolkata. Composition:- Headed by: a Director as Head of Department in the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India. The Director is assisted by Additional Directors, Joint Directors, Deputy Directors, Senior Assistant Directors, Assistant Directors Prosecutors, and other secretarial staff.  Functions:- Take up for investigation cases characterized by complexity and having inter-departmental and multi-disciplinary ramifications. substantial involvement of public interest to be judged by size, either in terms of monetary. the possibility of investigation leading to or contributing towards a clear improvement in systems, laws, or procedures. Investigate serious cases of fraud received from the Department of Company Affairs. Investigate the affairs of a company on: – on receipt of a report of the Registrar or inspector under section 208 of the Companies Act, 2013. on intimation of a special resolution passed by a company that its affairs are required to be investigated. in the public interest. on request from any department of the Central Government or a State Government.  MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thogai Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the Tamil Nadu government has identified 1.06 crore women, who are eligible to benefit from the Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thogai (women’s basic income) scheme. Background:- Chief Minister M.K. Stalin launched the scheme in Kancheepuram on September 15, the birth anniversary of the former CM. C.N. Annadurai. About Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thogai:- Launched: September,2023. Launched by: Government of Tamil Nadu. Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thittam is a scheme through which a monthly grant is to be provided to eligible women heads of households. Under this program, qualified women are entitled to a monthly rights grant of Rs 1,000, totaling Rs 12,000 annually. It will be effective from 15, September 2023. Objective: to give women economic recognition, and empowerment. Background:- The scheme was one of the poll promises of the ruling DMK government in 2021. During the State Budget presentation in March this year, the then Finance Minister Palanivel Thiaga Rajan announced that ₹7,000 crore would be allotted for the scheme for the current financial year. Initially, an estimated 2.2 crore women heads of families, all ration card holders were expected to benefit from this scheme. However, now the government has indicated an estimated one crore women heads of families would receive the rights grant. Eligibility:- Beneficiary families should meet the following economic criteria:- Annual income below ₹2.5 lakh. Ownership of less than five acres of wetland or less than ten acres of dryland. Consumption of less than 3,600 units of electricity per year for domestic use. Significance:- This initiative aims to enhance the economic well-being and living standards of women, ultimately fostering societal self-respect. Once implemented, will be one of the biggest cash transfer schemes implemented by any State government in India’s history.  MUST READ: SAMARTH initiative for women SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Flood Syllabus Prelims –DISASTER MANAGEMENT Context: The flood in Narmada following the release of water in Narmada Dam displaced thousands in Gujarat recently. Background:- The Narmada and other rivers are in full spate as severe rains pounded portions of Gujarat on 17, September, 2023. The rivers inundated several low-lying areas and cut off many villages in the central and southern regions of the state. About Flood:- A high water level that overflows the natural banks along any portion of a stream is called a flood. They are the most frequent type of natural disaster. They occur when an overflow of water submerges land that is usually dry. Risks: Floods can cause

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th September 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Shantiniketan Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi congratulated the nation on the inclusion of Shantiniketan in the UNESCO World Heritage list. Background:- Shantiniketan has been listed on the UNESCO World Heritage List on Sep 17, 2023. In a social media post, Prime Minister Modi said that this is a proud moment for all Indians. Modi said that Shantiniketan is an embodiment of Gurudev Rabindranath Tagore’s vision and India’s rich cultural heritage. About Shantiniketan:- Location: Birbhum district in West Bengal. Established: 1901. Established by: Maharshi Debendranath Tagore. Maharshi Debendranath Tagore was the father of Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore. Shantiniketan has been listed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2023. It was based on old Indian traditions and a vision of humanity’s unity that transcended religious and cultural barriers. Santiniketan grew into the Visva Bharati University in 1921, attracting some of the most creative minds in the country. The Visva-Bharati University at Shantiniketan is the epitome of the revolutionary tradition of breaking barriers of all kinds, be it castes, religions, classes, creeds, genders, cultures with a principal focus on humanities, arts, and contact with nature. Even today, Shantiniketan follows Tagore’s principles of equality. It houses a little over 10,000 students on its campuses who comprise Indian and international students within a co-educational facility. The trend of Gurukul (open-air classes) is still practiced under the campus trees. Shantiniketan is also famous for its many festivals. Some of them include:- Grand Poush Utsav: celebrated on the Foundation Day of the University. Basant Utsav: celebrated on Holi. Sarad Utsav: Autumn Festival. Magh Utsav : Founding Day of the Sriniketan campus Vrikhsharopan Utsav: Tree Planting Festival. Important Places in Shantiniketan:- Tagore’s Ashram: The Ashram complex is the oldest area of Shantiniketan where Maharshi Debendranath Tagore built Shantiniketan Griha, the first guest house. Rabindra Bhaban Museum or Tagore Museum: The Rabindra Bhaban Museum was founded just after the death of Rabindranath Tagore in 1942. Vishwa Bharati University: Established with the principal motto and objective to explore arts, humanities, language, music, dance, and folk arts, Visva Bharati’s focal point is to create oneness in diversity. Uttarayan Complex: Located in the northern part of Shantiniketan, it is a collection of five houses built by Rabindranath Tagore during his lifetime. Upasana Griha: the Prayer Hall is one of the stunning buildings in the entire Shantiniketan area. Kala Bhavan: One of the most beautifully designed blocks within the Visva Bharati University premises is the Kala Bhavan. China Bhavan: The academic blocks within the vicinity of Visva Bharati University Complex are named in accordance with the purpose, culture, and subject being taught there. Nippon Bhavan: Like China Bhavan, the Nippon Bhavan is dedicated to Japanese culture, literature, art, language and tradition. Chhatimtala: The site of Chhatimtala is considered to be sacred and is of great importance to everyone at Shantiniketan. MUST READ: Gitanjali by Rabindranath Tagore SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag here. Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of the Andhra region from here. Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here. Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up the headquarters of the Theosophical Society first here. G20 Global Partnership for Financial Inclusion (GPFI) Meeting Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The Fourth G20 Global Partnership for Financial Inclusion (GPFI) Meeting concluded recently. Background:- The three-day meeting saw G20 GPFI delegates engaging in thought-provoking discussions on energizing growth for MSMEs, empowering consumers through digital financial literacy and consumer protection as well as key priority areas of GPFI, namely, digital financial inclusion and SME (Small and Medium Enterprise) Finance. About G20 Global Partnership for Financial Inclusion (GPFI) Meeting:- Venue: Mumbai, India. Date: from September 14-16, 2023. The meeting brought together over 50 delegates from G20 member countries, special invitee countries, and International Organizations. (India and G20 Presidency) The meeting involved discussions on ongoing work of the financial inclusion agenda under the G20 India Presidency in areas of Digital Financial Inclusion and SME Finance. A Symposium on Digital Public Infrastructure for energizing MSMEs was held on September 14, 2023. The Symposium saw a panel discussion between global experts around two key themes “Energizing MSMEs for Higher Economic Growth through Digital Public Infrastructure” and “Credit Guarantees and SME ecosystems”. GPFI members discussed GPFI work regarding the implementation of G20 GPFI High-Level Principles for Digital Financial Inclusion, Update of National Remittance Plans and SME best practices and innovative instruments to overcome common constraints in SME financing. A Symposium on “Advancing Financial Inclusion through Digital Public Infrastructure: Empowering Consumers through Digital and Financial Literacy and Consumer Protection” was also held on September 16, 2023, as part of the GPFI Meeting. The delegates attending the 4th GPFI WG meeting also visited the Kanheri Caves in Mumbai. Significance:- Through the New Delhi Leaders Declaration, the G20 Leaders renewed their commitment to accelerate “strong, sustainable, balanced and inclusive growth” and “the full and effective implementation of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development” and underscored that MSMEs will be central in fulfilling both the commitments. Through two-panel discussions, eminent global panelists deliberated upon approaches to bridge the challenges faced by MSMEs through innovative measures like DPI (Digital Public Infrastructure) for bridging the credit gap, promoting transparency, enhancing affordability, and driving innovations and productivity gains. The GPFI Plenary Meeting included discussions on GPFI work regarding the implementation of G20 GPFI High-Level Principles for Digital Financial Inclusion, Update of National Remittance Plans and SME best practices and innovative instruments to overcome common constraints in SME financing. The discussions contributed towards the culmination of the remaining work of the ongoing three-year Financial Inclusion Action Plan FIAP 2020 which is

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th September 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Segur elephant corridor Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: A Supreme Court-appointed committee recently declared 12 private resorts, along the Segur elephant corridor, illegal. Background:- The committee’s ruling highlighted that the resorts had constructed unlawful structures that impeded the natural movement of elephants. Despite assertions from resort owners who disputed the corridor’s designation as an elephant habitat, the committee ultimately sided with preserving the corridor’s integrity. While this decision secures the protection of the corridor, it carries economic implications for the local communities that depend on employment opportunities provided by these resorts. About Segur elephant corridor:- IMAGE SOURCE: downtoearth.org.in The Segur elephant corridor serves as a crucial passageway for the movement of elephants and various other wildlife species between different habitats within the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. ( Endangered Asian elephant in Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve) The corridor is situated in the ecologically fragile Sigur plateau. Sigur plateau connects the Western and the Eastern Ghats. It facilitates easy movement of about 6,300 Asiatic elephants from Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka. It sustains elephant populations and their genetic diversity. (Elephant Conservation) The elephants cross the plateau in search of food and water. It has the Nilgiri Hills on its southwestern side. Moyar River Valley is on its northeastern side. The plateau is a low-rainfall marginal land. It has poor soils and in recent times, also had a low population density. There are five major streams in the Sigur plateau: Moyar River, Sigur River, Avarahalla River, Kedarhalla River, and Gundattihalla River. All these rivers originate in the Nilgiris plateau. MUST READ: Project Re-Hab SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (2023) Fishing cat Orangutan Otter Sloth bear Q.2) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements: (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only UN Convention on the International Effects of Judicial Sales of Ships Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, 15 countries joined the UN Convention on the International Effects of Judicial Sales of Ships. Background:- The convention was opened for signatures at a ceremony in Beijing on September 5, 2023, according to the United Nations. 15 countries, including China, Saudi Arabia, Singapore, and Switzerland, signed the UN Convention. About the UN Convention on the International Effects of Judicial Sales of Ships:- Date of adoption: 7 December 2022. Objective: to promote legal certainty and predictability at the international level by creating a uniform regime for the international effects of ‘judicial’ sales of ships. Background:- It was developed by the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL). It was to address the problem of bona fide new owners and those financing the purchase of vessels who, for instance, find themselves dealing with previous creditors laying claim to the ship as security for a loan. The convention is also known as the Beijing Convention on the Judicial Sale of Ships. It establishes a harmonized regime for giving international effect to judicial sales while preserving domestic law governing the procedure of judicial sales and the circumstances in which judicial sales confer clean title. By ensuring legal certainty as to the title that the purchaser acquires in the ship as it navigates internationally, the Convention is designed to maximize the price that the ship is able to attract in the market and the proceeds available for distribution among creditors and to promote international trade. Key Provisions:- Basic rule of the Convention:- A judicial sale conducted in one State Party which has the effect of conferring clean title on the purchaser has the same effect in every other State Party (article 6). The basic rule is subject only to a public policy exception (article 10). Additional rules of the Convention:- The first is a requirement that the ship registry deregister the ship or transfer registration at the request of the purchaser (article 7). (UN biodiversity Summit) The second is a prohibition on arresting the ship for a claim arising from a pre-existing right or interest (i.e. a right or interest extinguished by the sale) (article 8). The third is the conferral of exclusive jurisdiction on the courts of the State of judicial sale to hear a challenge to the judicial sale (article 9). The Convention provides for the issuance of two instruments: a notice of judicial sale (article 4) and a certificate of judicial sale (article 5). It also establishes an online repository of those instruments which is freely accessible to any interested person or entity (article 11). The Convention regime is “closed”, in the sense that it applies only among States Parties (article 3), but “not-exclusive”, in the sense that it does not displace other bases for giving effect to judicial sales, for instance under more favourable domestic law regimes (article 14). MUST READ: UN High Seas Treaty SOURCE: BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th September 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction Syllabus Prelims –DISASTER MANAGEMENT Context: Leaders have recommitted to full implementation of the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction in the recently held summit. Background:- Leaders from around the world gathered on September 18, 2023, for the High-level Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) Summit and agreed to intensify their efforts to deliver SDGs by 2030. About Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction:- IMAGE SOURCE: UNDR Adoption: 2015. Time Period: 2015-2030. It was adopted at the Third UN World Conference in Sendai, Japan, on March 18, 2015. Objective: to guide the multi-hazard management of disaster risk in development at all levels as well as within and across all sectors. Historical Background:- It is the outcome of stakeholder consultations initiated in March 2012 and inter-governmental negotiations from July 2014 to March 2015, supported by the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction at the request of the UN General Assembly. It is the successor instrument to the Hyogo Framework for Action (HFA) 2005-2015: Building the Resilience of Nations and Communities to Disasters. The Sendai Framework outlines seven clear targets and four priorities for action to prevent new and reduce existing disaster risks. The four priorities for action include:- Understanding disaster risk: Disaster risk management should be based on an understanding of disaster risk in all its dimensions. Strengthening disaster risk governance to manage disaster risk: Disaster risk governance at the national, regional, and global levels. Investing in disaster reduction for resilience: Public and private investment in disaster risk prevention and reduction. Enhancing disaster preparedness for effective response, and to “Build Back Better” in recovery, rehabilitation, and reconstruction: strengthen disaster preparedness for response. It aims to achieve the substantial reduction of disaster risk and losses in lives, livelihoods, and health and in the economic, physical, social, cultural, and environmental assets of persons, businesses, communities, and countries. It recognizes that the State has the primary role to reduce disaster risk. It believes that responsibility should be shared with other stakeholders including local government, the private sector, and other stakeholders. (Reimagining Disaster Management) The Sendai Framework works hand in hand with the other 2030 Agenda agreements, including The Paris Agreement on Climate Change. Significance:- The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030 was the first major agreement of the post-2015 development agenda. It provides Member States with concrete actions to protect development gains from the risk of disaster. MUST READ: Joshimath crisis SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2016) The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015. The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Hoysala Temples Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: As per recent announcements, the Hoysala Temples, will be India’s 42nd UNESCO World Heritage Site. Background:- The announcement was made by the agency in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, where the 45th session of the World Heritage Committee is being held till September 25, 2023. Rabindranath Tagore’s Santiniketan, the university town in West Bengal, was also included as a world heritage site previously. About Hoysala Temples:- IMAGE SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS The sacred ensembles of the Hoysalas, that has been inscribed on the UNESCO’s World Heritage List includes three temples in Karnataka. The three Hoyasala temples include:- Chennakeshava temple Location: Belur (Hassan district), Karnataka. It is located at the centre of the traditional settlement which is surrounded by the remnants of a mud fort and a moat. The Garbhagriha is stellar shaped with zigzag walls making 24 forms of Lord Vishnu looking different at all times of the day due to light and shade effect. Shantaladevi, the queen of King Vishnuvardhana, is represented in Darpana Sundari (lady with the mirror). Sculpture and bracket figures of madanikas (celestial nymphs) are on the ceiling. Temples of Kappe Chennigaraya, Soumyanayaki, Andal, and other Vaishnava manifestations, surround the main temple. Hoysaleswara Temple Location: Halebidu (Hassan district), Karnataka. River: It is on the banks of the Dwarasamudra tank in Halebidu. It is a town that has many protected and unprotected temples, archaeological ruins, and mounds. Twin-shrine temple, perhaps the largest Shiva temple built by Hoysala kings. Poised on a star-shaped base that consists 8 rows of friezes carved with elephants, lions, horses, and floral scrolls. Outer walls have intricately carved Hindu deities, sages, stylized animals, birds, and friezes depicting the life of Hoysala kings. Imagery from epics like Ramayana, Mahabharata, and Bhagavad Gita adorn the outer walls. Highly ornate temple doorways. The Nandimantapa with a decorated Nandi statue is positioned right in front of the temple. The exquisite carvings in the interiors of the temple have highly polished lathe-turned pillars. Keshava Temple Location: Mysore district, Karnataka. It is at the center of Somanathapura village (Mysore district). It is a Vaishnava temple. River: Built on the banks of River Kaveri at Somanathapura. It was consecrated in 1258 CE by Somanatha Dandanayaka who was a general of King Narasimha III. It is enclosed in a walled courtyard with a mahadvara (major gate) and tall carved soapstone pillars. Soapstone: a green-grey chloritic schist material that is soft in a quarry but hardens when exposed to the air. There are inscription stones in old Kannada, with Hindu iconography and miniature reliefs of Keshava, Janardhana, and Venugopala. About Hoysala Architecture:- Hoysala architecture developed under the rule of the Hoysala Empire between the 11th and 14th centuries. It is mostly concentrated in southern Karnataka. Hoysala temples are sometimes called hybrid or vesara as their unique style seems between Dravida and Nagara styles. The Hoysala temples contain

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st September 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) India-Canada Relations Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: The recent killing of pro-Khalistan leader and a Canadian citizen, Hardeep Singh Nijjar has caused diplomatic challenges in India-Canada Relations. Background of the Issue:- Khalistan Tiger Force chief Hardeep Singh Nijjar, one of the most wanted terrorists in India, was shot dead by two unidentified men within the premises of a gurdwara in Canada Sunday night. Canadian Prime Minister Justin Trudeau recently made explosive allegations of a “potential link” between agents of the Government of India and the killing of a pro-Khalistan leader and Canadian citizen, Hardeep Singh Nijjar. Hardeep Singh Nijjar’s name had been included in the wanted list handed over by the then-Punjab CM Captain Amarinder Singh, to Canadian Prime Minister Justin Trudeau during the latter’s visit to India in 2018. The Khalistan issue has always plagued bilateral ties, from the 1980s to the last eight years of Trudeau’s term. But this time, Ottawa has ratcheted up the ante and New Delhi is watching the situation keeping in mind the complexity of the bilateral ties and the reputational cost on the global stage. About India-Canada Relations:- India and Canada have a longstanding bilateral relationship based on shared democratic values, the multi-cultural, multi-ethnic, and multi-religious nature. 1947: India established diplomatic relations with Canada in 1947. 1951: Canada’s aid program to India began in 1951 and grew substantially under the Colombo Plan. Canada provided food aid, project financing, and technical assistance to India. 1974: deterioration of India-Canada relations due to India’s Smiling Buddha nuclear test. 1976: The Canadian government severed bilateral nuclear cooperation with both India and Pakistan in 1976 after claims that the fissionable material used to construct India’s first nuclear device had been obtained from the Canadian-supplied CIRUS nuclear research reactor. 1985: The bombing by Sikh separatists of Air India Flight 182 resulted in Canada and India maintaining a bilateral dialogue on anti-terrorism. 2015: The Prime Minister of India’s visit to Canada in April 2015 elevated the bilateral relationship to a strategic partnership. In recent years, both countries have been working to enhance bilateral cooperation in several areas of mutual importance. Significance:- Canada hosts one of the largest Indian diasporas in the world, numbering 16 lakh people of Indian origin. It accounts for more than 3 percent of the total Canadian population and 700,000 NRIs. At the Ministerial level, Canada and India enjoy a strategic partnership underpinned by Ministerial Dialogues on foreign policy, trade and investment, finance, and energy. At the official level, there are regular working groups that focus on counter-terrorism, security, agriculture, education, science, technology, etc. Trade relations In 2021, India was Canada’s 14th largest export market and 13th largest trading partner overall. India became the top source of foreign students studying in Canada — 2.3 lakh, according to 2022 data. India is a key partner as Canada strengthens its economic links to the Indo-Pacific under a new, comprehensive strategy for the region. Challenges in India-Canada Relations:- Sikh extremism and the Presence of Sikh separatist groups in Canada. Concerns about the revival of the Khalistan movement. Sikh Diaspora’s Influence on Canadian Politics Impediments for Trade: India’s Complex labour laws; Market protectionism; Bureaucratic regulations. Areas of Cooperation:- Politically, India and Canada share commonalities in Parliamentary structure and procedures. Commercial: Bilateral trade between India and Canada stands at over USD 6.4 billion in 2020. Negotiations for a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA). Nuclear Cooperation: Nuclear Cooperation Agreement (NCA) signed in 2010 by, the Joint Committee on Civil Nuclear Cooperation, restoration of nuclear cooperation. Security and Defense Collaboration: in international fora, mutual ship visits, Framework for Cooperation between India and Canada on Countering Terrorism in 2018 People-to-People Ties Cultural Exchanges Cooperation during COVID-19 Pandemic. (Second Wave of COVID-19) MUST READ: India and G20 Presidency SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second-largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct GCES Web Portal and Mobile Application Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: The Innovative GCES Web Portal and Mobile Application was launched recently. Background:- Shri Manoj Ahuja Secretary, Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (DA&FW) launched the portal. About GCES Web Portal and Mobile Application:- Launched: September, 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. Objective: the portal and mobile application have been designed to transform agricultural practices across the nation. Salient Features of the GCES Web Portal and Mobile Application:- Comprehensive Information:- The portal and the app provide a comprehensive repository of yield estimation including village-wise GCES plan. Plot details where the crop-cutting experiments are conducted, post-harvesting crop weight, and drainage weight of the crop are also provided. (Crop Insurance) Geo-referencing:- It is one of the key features of the mobile application. It enables the primary worker to draw the boundary of the experimental plot and upload photos of the plot as well as of the crops through it. This feature will ensure transparency and accuracy of the data as well. Challenges Addressed by GCES Web Portal and Mobile Application:- Delay in Reporting: To date, data collection, compilation, and yield estimation is a completely manual process that causes delays in reporting by states. In the new process, the field data will be collected using a GPS-enabled mobile

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd September 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Adi Shankaracharya statue Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister unveiled the 108-foot-tall ‘Statue of Oneness’ of Adi Shankaracharya at Omkareshwar in Madhya Pradesh. About Adi Shankaracharya: Birth: 11th May 788 AD, at Kaladi, Kerala. Samadhi: at Kedar Tirth. Philosophy: Propounded the Doctrine of Advaita (Monism) and He was opposed to Buddhist philosophers. Established four Mathas in the four corners of India at Sringeri, Puri, Dwaraka and Badrinath– for propagation of Sanathana Dharma. Major books: Brahmasutrabhasya (Bhashya or commentary on the Brahma Sutra), Bhajagovinda Stotra, Nirvana Shatakam and Prakaran Granths Advocation of Advaita Vedanta: It articulates a philosophical position of radical nondualism, a revisionary worldview which it derives from the ancient Upanishadic texts. According to Advaita Vedantins, the Upanishads reveal a fundamental principle of nonduality termed ‘brahman’, which is the reality of all things. Advaitins understand brahman as transcending individuality and empirical plurality. They seek to establish that the essential core of one’s self (atman) is brahman. The fundamental thrust of Advaita Vedanta is that the atman is pure non-intentional consciousness. It is one without a second, nondual, infinite existence, and numerically identical with brahman. Source:  Indian Express National Higher Education Qualifications Framework (NHEQF) Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The University Grants Commission (UGC) recently finalised the National Higher Educational Qualification Framework (NHEQF), a regulatory reform proposed by National Education Policy 2020. About National Higher Education Qualifications Framework (NHEQF): Development: The Ministry of Labour and Employment developed the National Vocational Qualifications Framework (NVQF) and the Ministry of Education developed the Vocational Education Qualifications Framework (NVEQF). The NHEQF has divided parameters into levels 5 to 10. Levels 1 to 4 cover the school education. The NHEQF level 5 represents learning outcomes appropriate to the first year (first two semesters) of the undergraduate programme of study; While Level 10 represents learning outcomes appropriate to the doctoral-level programme of study. According to the NHEQF, students must possess and display the desired graduate profile/attributes after completing a programme of study. It also establishes the amount of credits required to complete the four-year undergraduate programme, postgraduate degrees, and doctoral degrees at various levels. About University Grants Commission (UGC): EST: 28th December, 1953 It is a statutory organization by the UGC Act, 1956 Ministry: Ministry of Education. The UGC’s mandate includes: Promoting and coordinating university education. Determining and maintaining standards of teaching, examination and research in universities. Framing regulations on minimum standards of education. Monitoring developments in the field of collegiate and university education; disbursing grants to the universities and colleges etc Source: The Hindu G4 countries Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently the G4 countries have reiterated that expansion of UN Security Council in both permanent and non-permanent categories is essential to make the body more representative, legitimate, effective and efficient. About G4 countries: The G4 is a grouping of Brazil, Germany, India and Japan which are aspiring to become permanent members of the UNSC. They are supporting each other’s bids for permanent membership of the UNSC. The G4 nations traditionally meet on the sidelines of the annual high-level UN General Assembly session. Opposition to G4: the Coffee Club The Uniting for Consensus (UfC), or the Coffee Club, emerged in the 1990s in opposition to the potential extension of permanent seats on the UN Security Council. Italy along with Pakistan, Mexico and Egypt founded the Coffee Club in 1995 to reject the proposal to increase the number of permanent seats in the UNSC. About UN Security Council: EST: United Nations charter in 1945 HQ: New York City, USA. Members: 15 members Permanent members with veto power (P5 members): the United States, the Russian Federation, France, China and the United Kingdom. Non-permanent members: The non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected for a term of two years. The 10 non-permanent seats are distributed on a regional basis as follows: Five for African and Asian States. One for the Eastern European States. Two for the Latin American and Caribbean States; Two for Western European and other States Source:  AIR National Medical Commission (NMC) Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The National Medical Commission (NMC) of India has been awarded the coveted World Federation for Medical Education (WFME) Recognition Status for a tenure of 10 years. About NMC: Statutory body under National Medical Commission Act, 2019. HQ: New Delhi It has replaced the Medical Council of India (MCI) constituted under the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956. Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Functions: NMC regulates medical education and medical professionals. The Commission grants recognition of medical qualifications gives accreditation to medical schools, grants registration to medical practitioners, monitors medical practice and assesses the medical infrastructure in India. Members: It consists of 33 members including Chairman (medical professionals only), 10 ex-officio members and 22 parttime members. Four autonomous boards under NMC: Under-Graduate Medical Education Board (sets norms for undergraduate (UG) courses), Post-Graduate Medical Education Board (sets norms for post-graduate courses), Medical Assessment and Rating Board (inspects and rates the medical education institutes), and Ethics and Medical Registration Board (regulates professional conduct of the doctors and registers them). About World Federation for Medical Education (WFME): EST: In 1972 HQ: Ferney-Voltaire, France. Aim: WFME is a global organisation concerned with the education and training of medical doctors. Objective: It is the organisation that officially and globally represents medical teachers and medical teaching institutions before the World Health Organization(WHO). WFME’s accreditation program plays a pivotal role in ensuring that medical institutes meet and uphold the highest international standards of education and training Source:   AIR State of Working India Report 2023 Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently the ‘State of Working India 2023’ report, released by Azim Premji University’s Centre for Sustainable Employment. Major Findings of the ‘State of Working India 2023’ Report: Faster structural change: Between 2004 and 2017, around 3 million regular wage jobs were created annually. Between 2017 and 2019 this jumped to 5 million per year. Since 2019, the pace of regular wage job creation has

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd September 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Fatehpur Sikri Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently A 61-year-old French tourist died inside the Fatehpur Sikri fort after she fell from a nine-feet-high platform following the collapse of a wooden railing. About Fatehpur Sikri: Location: It is a city predominantly in red sandstone, situated at a distance of 37 km from Agra, Uttar Pradesh. Founder: Mughal emperor Akbar in 1569. Designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1986. The structures has combined elements of Persian, Indian, and Central Asian styles. It served as the Mughal Empire’s capital from 1571 to 1585. When Akbar returned from his Gujarat campaign victorious in 1573, the city was renamed Fatehpur Sikri, or the City of Victory, to commemorate the victory. The Fatehpur Sikri complex include: Jama Masjid: It is home to the Jama Masjid, one of the largest mosques in India. It is known for its imposing structure, graceful arches, and intricately designed prayer hall. Buland Darwaza: This colossal gateway, also known as the “Gate of Magnificence,” is an iconic monument of Fatehpur Sikri. It was built to commemorate Akbar’s victorious campaign in Gujarat and is a grand example of Mughal architecture. Diwan-i-Khas and Diwan-i-Aam: These are two prominent buildings within the complex. The Diwan-i-Khas (Hall of Private Audience) was where Akbar held private meetings, while the Diwan-i-Aam (Hall of Public Audience) was for conducting public affairs. Panch Mahal: This five-storied palace is a unique structure with open pavilions on each level. It served as a place for relaxation and entertainment. Source:   Hindustan Times Basel-III capital framework Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The RBI recently introduced norms on the Basel III capital framework for All India Financial Institutions (AIFIs), which will come into effect from 2024. About Basel III: Basel III is an internationally agreed set of measures developed by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision in response to the financial crisis of 2007-09 in order to strengthen the regulation, supervision and risk management of banks. Basel III standards are minimum requirements which apply to internationally active banks. Objective: The guidelines aim to promote a more resilient banking system by focusing on four vital banking parameters viz. capital, leverage, funding and liquidity. Capital: The capital adequacy ratio is to be maintained at 12.9%. The minimum Tier 1 capital ratio and the minimum Tier 2 capital ratio have to be maintained at 10.5% and 2% of risk-weighted assets respectively. Leverage: The leverage rate has to be at least 3 %. The leverage rate is the ratio of a bank’s tier-1 capital to average total consolidated assets. Funding and Liquidity: Basel-III created two liquidity ratios: LCR and NSFR. The liquidity coverage ratio (LCR) will require banks to hold a buffer of high-quality liquid assets sufficient to deal with the cash outflows encountered in an acute short term stress scenario as specified by supervisors. This is to prevent situations like “Bank Run”. The goal is to ensure that banks have enough liquidity for a 30-days stress scenario if it were to happen. The Net Stable Funds Rate (NSFR) requires banks to maintain a stable funding profile in relation to their off-balance-sheet assets and activities. NSFR requires banks to fund their activities with stable sources of finance (reliable over the one-year horizon). The minimum NSFR requirement is 100%. Therefore, LCR measures short-term (30 days) resilience, and NSFR measures medium-term (1 year) resilience. Deadline for India to adopt: March 2019 but it was postponed to March 2020 in light of the coronavirus pandemic. About AIFIs: AIFI is a group composed of financial regulatory bodies that play a pivotal role in the financial markets by assisting the proper allocation of resources, sourcing from businesses that have a surplus and distributing to others who have deficits. They act as an intermediary between borrowers and final lenders, providing safety and liquidity. India has five AIFIs regulated by the central bank: National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) National Housing Bank (NHB) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) Source:  The Hindu Dudhwa Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: The endangered Indian Skimmer was recently spotted near Zalim Nagar Bridge along the Ghaghra River at Dudhwa Tiger Reserve, Uttar Pradesh (UP). About the Indian Skimmer: It is an unusual-looking bird with a striking red, orange beak where the lower bill is longer than the upper bill. Distribution: Globally found in the coastal estuaries of western and eastern India, and Bangladesh. Food: fish, larvae, insects, and shrimps. Habitat: It favours slow-moving rivers with sandbar habitats formed seasonally during summers, around lakes and adjacent marshes, estuaries, and coasts. Breeding: Between February to June and raise one to three chicks per clutch. Conservation Status: IUCN: Endangered (EN) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 : Schedule I About Dudhwa Tiger Reserve: Location: Spread across the Lakhimpur Kheri and Bahraich districts of Uttar Pradesh. Rivers: The Sharda River flows by the Kishanpur WL Sanctuary, the Geruwa River flows through the Katerniaghat WL Sanctuary and the Suheli and Mohana streams flow in the Dudhwa National Park, all of which are tributaries of the mighty Ghagra River. It was considered as a tiger reserve in 1987. Vegetation: The vegetation is of the North Indian Moist Deciduous type, containing some of the finest examples of Sal forests (Shorea robusta) in India. Flora: The flora is predominantly Sal forest along with its associate tree species like Terminalia alata (Asna), Lagerstroemia parviflora (Asidha), Adina cordifolia (Haldu), Mitragyna parviflora (Faldu), Gmelina arborea (Gahmhar), Holoptelea intgrifolia (Kanju) etc. Fauna: Guldar, Tiger, Fishing cat, Monkey, Langur, Mongoose, Small Indian Mongoose, small Indian civet, Jackal etc. Birds include Dabchick, spotbilled pelican, Large cornorant, Little cormorant, Grey Heron, White stork, Black storck, White Ibis etc. Reptiles include Mugger, Ghariyal, Python, Sandboa, Banded krait, Russel’s viper, Rat snake etc. Source:  India Times Five Eyes Alliance Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently US ambassador to Canada has claimed that “shared intelligence among Five Eyes

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, ‘Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve’ became Madhya Pradesh’s 7th protected habitat for big cats. About Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve:- Location: Damoh and Narsinghpur districts of Madhya Pradesh. Area: 2,339 square kilometers. Naming: It is named after Rani Durgavati, a queen of the Gondi people. Rivers: Some areas of the reserve are situated in the Narmada and Yamuna River basins. Culture: The Singorgarh Fort can be found inside the reserve. Vegetation: Dry deciduous type. Flora: The chief floral elements include Teak, Saja, Dhaora, Ber, Amla, etc. Fauna:- The sanctuary provides a habitat for a wide variety of mammals, totaling 18 different species. (Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS)) These include notable creatures such as leopard, wolf, the elusive jackal, the swift Indian fox, the fascinating striped hyena, and the adorable sloth bear. In addition to these captivating mammals, the sanctuary also serves as a residence for many species of birds, fish, reptiles, and amphibians. Significance: – It is the seventh tiger reserve in Madhya Pradesh. (Importance of Tiger Conservation) It will encompass areas within the Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary and Durgavati Wildlife Sanctuary. A green corridor linking Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR) with Durgavati will be developed for the natural movement of the tiger to the new reserve. MUST READ: Buddhist caves, temples in Madhya Pradesh’s Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements? (2018) The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act 2006. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given habitat rights. The Union Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The term M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of (2017) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna Maintenance of Tiger Reservoirs Indigenous Satellite Navigation System Security of National Highways JPM GBI-EM Global Diversified Index Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: India will be included in the JPM GBI-EM Global Diversified Index as of  June 2024. Background:- JP Morgan Chase & Co has announced that it will include Indian government bonds in its emerging markets bond index from 28 June 2024. The move can potentially attract about $25 billion into the country, as per analyst estimates. Its ultimate weight will likely reach the 10% cap, which will be scaled in at 1% per month. The inclusion will be phased over 10 months till March 31, 2025. Implications of the move:- Currently, foreign investors own two percent of Indian debt, a number which could more than double after the next inclusion. Indian bonds are expected to account for ten percent of the index once included. The inclusion would result in index tracking managers allocating money to India, which is expected to be in tens of billions of dollars. This could be a push factor to prompt foreign inflows into India and foreign investors are likely to be more active in the Indian fixed-income market. Experts believe the move is likely to bring down the cost of borrowing for the government. It will support the Indian rupee and bond markets, and improve the country’s credit rating. About JPM GBI-EM Global Diversified Index:- The Government Bond Index-Emerging Markets (GBI-EM) is a widely tracked index in the global financial market. It comprises government bonds issued by emerging market countries. (Government bonds for NRIs) These countries can differ significantly in terms of their economic development, creditworthiness, and the size of their bond markets. Investment decisions and portfolio allocations in the emerging market debt space are often guided by this index. The index is maintained by prominent financial institutions, including JPMorgan. The J.P. Morgan ESG EMBI Global Diversified Investment Grade Index (JESG EMBI IG) tracks liquid, US Dollar emerging market fixed and floating-rate debt instruments issued by sovereign and quasi-sovereign entities. The index applies an ESG scoring and screening methodology to tilt toward issuers ranked higher on ESG criteria and green bond issues, and to underweight and remove issuers that rank lower. The JESG EMBI IG is based on the established flagship J.P. Morgan EMBI. Global Diversified Index tracks instruments that are classified as investment grade (IG). The GBI-EM index is not static, it undergoes periodic updates. These updates ensure that the index remains relevant and up-to-date. Significance:- It plays a crucial role in shaping international capital flows. It serves as a benchmark for global investors to assess the performance of these bonds. Benefits:- Access to Global Capital. Boost to International Capital Markets. Increased Investor Confidence. (Bond Yields) Diversification of Funding Sources. Challenges:- Outflows from Other Countries. Currency Risk Management. Taxation Policies. MUST READ: Green Bonds SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements (2022) As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Unified Registration Portal for GOBARdhan Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNANCE Context: The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation has introduced a Unified Registration Portal for GOBARdhan recently. About Unified Registration Portal for GOBARdhan:- IMAGE SOURCE: nic.in Launched: 2023. Ministry:

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 27th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Counter Terrorism Field Training Exercise (FTX) 2023 Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, the Indian Army Contingent departed for the ASEAN Defence Ministers Meeting (ADMM) Plus Expert Working Group (EWG) on Counter Terrorism Field Training Exercise (FTX) 2023. About Counter Terrorism Field Training Exercise (FTX) 2023:- Date: 25th to 30th September 2023. Venue: Russia. It is a multinational joint military exercise being hosted by Russia as a co-chair of the EWG along with Myanmar. (Exercise IBSAMAR) It was preceded by the Table Top Exercise of the ADMM Plus EWG on Counter-Terrorism at Nay Pyi Taw, Myanmar from 2nd to 4th August 2023. Historical Background:- Since 2017, the ADMM Plus has met annually to allow dialogue and cooperation among the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and Plus countries. The inaugural ADMM Plus was convened in Ha Noi, Vietnam on 12th October 2010. This year ASEAN member states along with Plus Group will be participating in the exercise. Objective of the exercise: strengthening and promoting regional cooperation in the field of counter-terrorism. The exercise will comprise a number of counter-terrorism drills including destroying of terrorist groups in a fortified area. ADMM Plus EWG on Counter-terrorism 2023 will provide the Indian Army with a platform to share their expertise and best practices in counter-terrorism operations. It will increase the cooperation between the other 12 participating countries. (Military Exercises) The Indian Army looks forward to an enriching professional experience from the exercise. MUST READ: 26th Exercise Malabar SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Spike in global crude oil prices Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The recent spike in global crude oil prices above the $80-per-barrel mark has contributed to petrol and diesel prices hitting all-time highs in India. Background:- Since hitting a low of $16 per barrel on 22 April 2022, the price of Brent crude oil has been rising steadily. Since the beginning of the year (2023), it has risen nearly 58% from about $51.8 per barrel to about $81 in September. The rise has been sharp over the last six weeks, from $65 per barrel on 20 August 2023. According to analysts, prices are nearing their intermediate top level of $86 per barrel, around which some cooling off is expected even though the broader trend remains rising. ( Oil Price Rise) Reasons for price rise:- Crude Oil prices have risen sharply in 2021 on the back of a recovery in global demand as the world economy recovered from the COVID-19 pandemic. Supply restrictions maintained by the OPEC+ grouping, have kept international oil prices high. These oil-producing economies have signaled slow production increases, which has led to a rise in gas prices as well. A shortage of gas in Europe and Asia has further boosted the demand for oil for power generation. Impact on India:- The rise in crude prices has contributed to petrol and diesel prices hitting all-time highs in India. Prices of petrol and diesel in India are pegged to a 15-day rolling average of the international prices of these fuels. High taxes by the central and state governments have contributed to retail prices being far higher. Analysts point out that increasing oil prices reflect growing demand in the economy, and equities often deliver more than the expected inflation that the oil surge may lead to. In line with oil, prices of other commodities including coal have been rising Impact stocks and bonds:- The BSE Basic Materials Index has risen more than three times from a low of 1,761 on April 3, 2020, to 5,725 at Wednesday’s close. This reflects the general view that economic recovery will strengthen going forward. For bonds: central bank policies will play a far greater role than the direct impact of rising oil prices. For equity investors: they can increase their exposure to upstream oil companies, which benefit from rising prices. In sectors where oil is a major cost component, a negative reaction on returns can be expected. Impact currency and the economy:- Rising crude prices tend to depress the rupee, as India being a major importer of oil needs more dollars to buy the same amount of crude. A surge in crude prices tends to increase India’s expenditure and adversely affects the fiscal deficit. MUST READ: Rising Oil Prices and Stagflation SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The term ‘West Taxes Intermediate’, sometimes found in news to a grade of (2020) Crude oil Bullion Rare earth elements Uranium Q.2) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (2018) Civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of the IAEA The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG. Nilgiri tahr Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Tamil Nadu and Kerala may soon join hands to perform a synchronized census of the Nilgiri tahr. About Nilgiri tahr:- The Nilgiri tahr is the only mountain ungulate in southern India amongst the 12 species present in India. It is also the state animal of Tamil Nadu. (Project Nilgiri Tahr) Habitat: open montane grassland habitat of the South Western Ghats montane rain forests eco-region. Distribution: It is

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) MISSIONS Psyche Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY-SPACE Context: The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) will be launching a Psyche mission soon. About MISSIONS Psyche:- IMAGE SOURCE: graphicnews.com Launch date: 5 October 2023. Launch Site: NASA’s Kennedy Space Center, Florida, USA. Launch Vehicle: SpaceX Falcon Heavy. Psyche is a NASA mission to study a metal-rich asteroid named Psyche. Asteroid Psyche is located in the main asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter. This is NASA’s first mission to study an asteroid that has more metal than rock or ice. The journey to the asteroid, also named Psyche, will span nearly six years. It will cover approximately 6 billion kilometers. The body of the Psyche spacecraft is about the size of a small van. It is powered by solar electric propulsion. It has a magnetometer, a gamma-ray and neutron spectrometer, and a multispectral imager to study asteroid Psyche. The spacecraft will start sending images to Earth as soon as it spots the asteroid. The asteroid orbits the Sun between Mars and Jupiter. (NASA’s InSight Mars Mission) It is believed to be a remnant core of a planetesimal, composed primarily of iron-nickel metal. While there are no plans to mine the asteroid, studying it from orbit could provide invaluable insights into the composition of Earth’s core. In addition to its primary mission, the Psyche spacecraft will also host a pioneering technology demonstration known as NASA’s Deep Space Optical Communications (DSOC) experiment. (NISAR satellite) This experiment could revolutionize how data is transmitted across vast distances in space, potentially enhancing our ability to explore the farthest reaches of the solar system. Significance: This mission represents a significant step forward in our understanding of the early solar system and the formation of terrestrial planets. MUST READ: NASA’s DART mission SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet at the same speed and places a probe on its surface. Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change Gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in a straight line Speed of light is always the same India Ageing Report 2023 Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY/POLITY Context: India Ageing Report 2023 was released recently. About India Ageing Report 2023:- Released on: 27 September 2023. Released by: International Institute for Population Sciences and the United Nations Population Fund. Key highlights of the report:- The percentage of the elderly in India has been increasing rapidly in recent years and this trend is likely to continue in the coming decades as well, By 2050, the share of the elderly in India’s total population can reach more than 20 percent. The number of elderly will also be higher in proportion to the number of children aged 0-14 years. The number of working-age people in the age group of 15-59 years will decrease. Also, women will live longer than men, due to which the number of older women will be more than older men. A large number of them will be rural women. It noted that the decadal increase in India’s elderly population since 1961 was medium to high. This pace was slow until 2001 but is expected to spike in the coming decades. The report said the global population has been increasing even as people are living longer. (World Population Prospects) According to the report, in India, a man aged 60 years can live another 18.3 years, while women can live 19 years. In Kerala and Himachal Pradesh, women can be up to 4 years more than men. The report has expressed concern that since the life expectancy of women in India will be longer than that of men, the number of widowed women will be considerable. (The Population Worry) MUST READ: Demographic Dividend SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice? (2019) Article 19 Article 21 Article 25 Article 29 Q.2) Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”? (2018) Limitation of powers Equality before the law People’s responsibility to the Government Liberty and civil rights Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Kole wetlands Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: The Kole wetlands of Kerala are facing the threat of alien plants. Background:- Cabomba furcuta, popularly called as Pink Bloom due its massive flowering, has been a new threat in addition to water hyacinth and Salvinia molesta to the Kole wetlands. About Kole wetlands:- IMAGE SOURCE: fas.org.in Location: Thrissur and Malappuram districts in Kerala, India. River: The area extends from the Chalakudy River in the South to the Bharathappuzha River in the North, and to Ponnani Taluk It fulfills 40 percent of Kerala’s rice requirement. It acts as a natural drainage system for Ponnani City, Thrissur City, Thrissur District, and Malappuram District. It is one of the largest, highly productive, and threatened wetlands in Kerala. It is fertile with alluvium soil which is deposited Kechery and Karuvannoor rivers in the monsoon. In terms of the number of birds, the Thrissur Kole Wetlands is the third largest in India after Chilika Lake in Orissa and Amipur Tank in Gujarat. (Launch of ‘Wetlands of India’ Portal) It comes in the Central Asian Flyway of migratory birds. It has been recognized as one of India’s Important Bird Areas by BirdLife

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