June 2025

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) Syllabus Prelims – Sports Context: The United World Wrestling (UWW) has suspended the Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) for not conducting elections on time. Background:- The UWW suspended the WFI for not conducting its elections within the mandated 45 days, which meant that the Indian grapplers would not be able to compete in Belgrade from September 16 under the Indian flag. About the Wrestling Federation of India (WFI):- Establishment: 1958. Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports. HQ: New Delhi. It is the governing body of wrestling in India. Objective: to promote wrestling players for the Olympics, Asian Games, National Wrestling Championships, and World Wrestling Championships. Historical Background of Wrestling in India:– Wrestling in India has been practiced since the 5th millennium B.C. In Ancient India, wrestling was known as Many characters in Mahabharata are considered to be great wrestlers of the time, included: Bhimawas Jarasandha, Keechak, and Balrama. Ramayana mentions Hanuman as one of the greatest wrestlers of his time. It is called kushti in Punjab and Haryana. Composition of WFI:- President -01 Senior Vice President – 01 Vice Presidents – 04 Honourary Secretary General – 01 Honourary Treasurer – 01 Honourary Joint Secretaries – 02 Executive Members – 05 Functions of WIFI:- To encourage, promote, and control amateur wrestling activities. To affiliate with the Indian Olympic Association. To affiliate with the United World Wrestling [UWW] and to enforce the rules and regulations of UWW. To arrange the holding of Senior, Junior, and Sub-Junior Wrestling Championships every year as per UWW Rules. To authorize a State Wrestling Association to hold wrestling competitions of Inter-Regional nature. To maintain control over officials and keep a panel of trained officials to work in approved. To arrange for their training and tests whenever required. To conduct systematic coaching camps for the benefit of wrestlers. To lay down the general policy under which the State Wrestling Associations. To register wrestlers and promote friendly bouts among them.   About-United World Wrestling (UWW):- It is the international governing body for the sport of wrestling. HQ: Objective: to lead the growth of Wrestling, competitive and recreational, around the world. The UWW was formerly known as FILA (Fédération Internationale des Luttes Associées).   MUST READ: Sports Code SOURCE: AIR Shaheed Rajguru Syllabus Prelims – Modern Indian History Context: The Union Minister Amit Shah paid tribute to Shaheed Rajguru on his birth anniversary recently. About Rajguru:- Birth: 24 August 1908. Birth Place: Khed, near Pune, Maharashtra. Death: 23 March 1931. Rajguru was a freedom fighter in the Indian National movement. He was 22 years old when he was martyred. Ideology: He believed in militant nationalism and thought that oppression was to be met with ferocity and violence. Political Career:- He joined the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA). HSRA: It was a revolutionary group founded during the freedom movement in India. Its members consisted of revolutionaries such as Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqulla Khan, and Sachindra Nath Bakshi. They believed that India could gain independence only by force. The group engaged in violent methods to achieve their objective. Assassination of J P Saunders:- The young revolutionaries wanted to take revenge for the death of Lala Lajpat Rai who died due to injuries sustained in a brutal police lathi charge during the protests against the Simon Commission. Rajguru among other revolutionaries wanted to assassinate James A. Scott, the police officer who had ordered the lathi charge. However, in a case of mistaken identity, J. P. Saunders, a British police officer was killed. Rajguru was caught and arrested. Trial:- In the trial that followed the shooting, all three leaders Rajguru, Bhagat Singh, and Sukhdev were sentenced to death. Rajguru, along with his fellow revolutionaries, was hanged in Legacy:- Rajguru, Bhagat Singh, and Sukhdev were hanged on 23 March 1931. This day is observed as Martyrs’ Day in India. MUST READ: Chandra Shekhar Azad SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a: (2014) revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters in San Francisco. nationalist organization operating from Singapore. militant organization with headquarters in Berlin. communist movement for India’s freedom with headquarters at Tashkent. Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) Syllabus Prelims – Defense/Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Defence Acquisition Council approved proposals worth 7,800 crore rupees to enhance the operational capabilities of the Armed Forces. Background:- To enhance the efficiency of the Indian Air Force, the DAC granted Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for the procurement and installation of Electronic Warfare EW Suite on Mi-17 V5 Helicopters. The EW Suite will be procured from Bharat Electronics Limited BEL. The DAC has also accorded AoN for procurement of a Ground-Based Autonomous System for mechanized infantry and armoured regiments which will enable various operations like unmanned surveillance, logistic delivery of ammunition, fuel, and spares, and casualty evacuation on the battlefield. The AoN for procurement of Ruggedized Laptops and Tablets for the Indian Army under Project Shakti has also been accorded. About the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):- Establishment: 2001. Ministry: Ministry of Defense. HQ: Delhi. The Defence Acquisition Council is the highest decision-making body in the Defense Ministry. It decides new policies and capital acquisitions for the three services (Army, Navy, and Air Force) and the Indian Coast Guard. Objective: To ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the armed forces. Chairman: The Minister of Defense is the Chairman of the Council. Historical Background:- It was formed, after the Group of Ministers’ recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post Kargil War (1999). Functions of DAC:- Give in-principle approval of a 15-year Long Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP) for defense forces. Accord of acceptance of necessity to acquisition proposals. Categorization of the acquisition proposals relating to ‘Buy’, ‘Buy & Make’, and ‘Make’. Take decisions regarding ‘offset’ provisions

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th August 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Global Environment Facility (GEF) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The Global Biodiversity Framework Fund (GBFF) was ratified and launched at the Seventh Assembly of the Global Environment Facility (GEF) held recently. Global Biodiversity Framework Fund’s (GBFF) implications:- Governments, non-profits, and the private sector can now contribute their funds to GBFF. This will ensure that the world meets the goals and targets of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) formulated by the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) by 2030. As much as 20 percent of the funds would support Indigenous-led initiatives to protect and conserve biodiversity. It will also prioritize support for Small Island Developing States and Least Developed Countries, which will receive more than a third of the fund’s resources. This is the first time there would be funds channeled to non-state actors like the indigenous communities. Under Target 19 of GBF, at least $200 billion per year will need to be raised by 2030. Canada and the United Kingdom have already donated 200 million Canadian dollars and 10 million pounds respectively to the GBFF. After donations from Canada and the UK, $40 million is still needed to operationalize the fund by the end of 2023. The first GBFF Council meeting will be held in January 2024, with a view to approving the first work programme at the June 2024 Council meeting. The first tranche of the fund is likely to be disbursed after the council meeting to ensure that the first projects under the new Fund can be launched ahead of CBD’s CoP16. About Global Environment Facility (GEF):- IMAGE SOURCE: GEF Established:1991. It was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit of UNFCC. HQ: Washington, D.C. United States. Historical Background:- It was set up as a fund under the World Bank. Restructured: in 1994. 1992: At the Rio Earth Summit, the GEF was restructured and moved out of the World Bank system to become a permanent, separate institution. Since 1994, however, the World Bank has served as the Trustee of the GEF Trust Fund. Rio Earth Summit: It was a major United Nations conference held in Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) in 1992. It highlighted the impact of human socio-economic activities on the environment. ( Climate Ambition Summit 2020 held virtually) Members of GEF: It has 184 member India is a member. Venue of the seventh Assembly of GEF: Vancouver, Canada. It is a family of funds dedicated to confronting biodiversity loss, climate change, pollution, and strains on land and ocean health. Its grants, blended financing, and policy support to help developing countries address their biggest environmental priorities and adhere to international environmental conventions. It provides financial assistance for five major international environmental conventions:- The Minamata Convention on Mercury. Signed: 2013. Effective from 2014. It is an international treaty designed to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds. The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). Signed:2001. Effective from 2004. It is an international environmental treaty that aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants (POPs). The United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD) (UN Biodiversity Summit) Signed: 5 June 1992 – 4 June 1993. Effective from 1993. It is the international legal instrument for “the conservation of biological diversity, the sustainable use of its components, and the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD). Signed: 14 October 1994 – 13 October 1995. Effective from 1996. It was established in 1994 to protect and restore our land and ensure a safer, just, and more sustainable future. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Signed:1992-1993. Effective from 1994. It was adopted in 1992 with the ultimate aim of preventing dangerous human interference with the climate system. Organization of GEF:- The GEF’s governing structure is organized around an Assembly, Council, Secretariat, 18 implementing agencies, a Scientific and Technical Advisory Panel, and the Independent Evaluation Office. GEF Council: it is the GEF’s main governing body, and comprises 32 members appointed by constituencies of member countries. Functions of GEF:- It supports developing countries’ work to address the world’s most pressing environmental issues. It organizes work around five focal areas – biodiversity loss, chemicals and waste, climate change, international waters, and land degradation. It takes an integrated approach to support more sustainable food systems, forest management, and cities. GEF and India: India is a founder member of GEF. It is both a donor and recipient of GEF funds. India represents the GEF South Asia Constituency (including, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, and Sri Lanka) in the GEF Council. GEF Political Focal Point: Department of Economic Affairs (DEA). It is responsible for issues related to GEF governance, including policies and decisions, as well as relations between member countries and the GEF Council and Assembly. GEF Operational Focal Point (OFP): The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) MUST READ: Climate Adaptation Summit 2021 SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following : (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) It serves as a financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at the global level It is an agency under the OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with the specific aim of protecting their environment Both (a) and (b) Multi Commodity Exchange Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Gold prices declined 50 rupees at Multi Commodity Exchange for October 2023. Background:- Gold was trading at 58,769 rupees per 10 grams. Silver was also down by 404 rupees to trade at 73,600 rupees per kilogram for September 2023 Contracts. About Multi Commodity Exchange:- A commodities exchange is

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th August 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Sri Lanka’s first Karnataka cultural festival Syllabus Prelims –Art and culture Context: Recently, Sri Lanka hosted its very first Karnataka cultural festival. Key highlights of the events:- Organized by: International Cultural Council of India in collaboration with the Swami Vivekananda Cultural Centre and M.E Global Peace Foundation. Venue: Performing Arts University Auditorium, Colombo. The event showcased a mesmerizing lineup of performances by performing artists of nearly thirty well-known folk and classical traditions of Karnataka State. Performances included: Dances (Academic, traditional, and folk), musical performances, multilingual poetry recitals, Mudra dramas, puppet shows, etc. will be presented at the concert. (Tholpavakoothu) The programme featured the essence of Karnataka’s heritage, with the spotlight on talented artists like Madhuri Bondre and her troupe. Madhuri Bondre: A prominent Karnataka dancer. The event celebrated cultural diversity and marked a significant moment in the shared cultural heritage of India and Sri Lanka. About Swami Vivekananda Cultural Centre:- Established: 1998 Established at Colombo It was formerly known as the Indian Cultural Centre. Objective: Building bridges of cultural exchange and interaction between India & and Sri Lanka. The Centre is one of the 24 Indian Cultural Centres established by the Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) to :- Revive and strengthen cultural relations and mutual understanding between India and other countries and seek Promote India-Sri Lanka cultural cooperation by building on cultural commonalities and Create an awareness of Indian culture in all its facets. MUST READ: Kalyana Karnataka Utsav SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct? (2022) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture. The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets. Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethics. Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational. Q.2) With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu’? (2014) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India It is an ancient style bronze and brass work still found in the southern part of the Coromandel area It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India Fukushima Nuclear Power Plant water issue Syllabus Prelims – International Relations/Disaster Management Context: South Korean protesters recently, called for government action to avoid any disaster caused by the release of treated radioactive water from the Fukushima nuclear power plant. Background of the issue:- Japan planned the release of over 1 million tons of water, which is claimed to be treated but potentially radioactive, from the Fukushima nuclear power plant into the sea. This sparked strong opposition and anxiety among neighboring countries, particularly South Korea. Concerns Raised- South Korea: It fears that the water release will contaminate its waters, salt, and seafood, affecting its fishing industry and public health. China: criticized Japan’s plan, questioned its transparency, and expressed concerns about the potential impact on the marine environment and global health. Japan’s Alternative Options:- Store the water for longer and then discharge it. This is because tritium’s half-life is 12-13 years. Half-life – the time it takes for its quantity to be halved through radioactive decay. The quantity of any other radioactive isotopes present in the water will decrease in this time. Hence, at the time of discharge, the water would be less radioactive. Expert Opinion:- The International Atomic Energy Agency in a final report in July 2023, concluded that the release, if conducted as designed, will cause negligible impact on the environment and human health. About the Fukushima Daiichi Nuclear Power Plant tragedy:- Fukushima Daiichi Nuclear power plant meltdown: (Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant) Location: Japan. (India – Japan Relations) Causes: a massive earthquake and tsunami. Impact: It released large amounts of radioactive materials into the environment. Causalities: No deaths were initially attributed to the incident. Although around 18,000 people lost their lives as a result of the earthquake and tsunami. ( Early Tsunami Warning System in India) Development after tragedy:- Since then, Japan has been storing the cooling water for nuclear fuel, and rain and groundwater seeping through the damaged reactor buildings in large tanks on site. The water is treated using a filtering system called Advanced Liquid Processing System (ALPS). ALPS: a filtering system that removes most of the radioactive elements except for tritium. Tritium: a hydrogen isotope that is difficult to separate. MUST READ: India’s Nuclear Energy SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Monazite is a source of rare earths. Monazite contains thorium. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Band-e-Amir National Park Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: The Taliban government has banned women from visiting the Band-e-Amir National Park in Afghanistan, recently. About Band-e-Amir National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: discoverytumundo.blogspot.com.ar Location: Yakawlang district, Afghanistan (India-Afghanistan) 2009: It was declared Afghanistan’s first national park. It features a chain of six lakes set in the Hindu Kush Mountains. Hindu Kush Mountains: a great mountain system of Central Asia. Lakes:- The lakes are famous for their intense and varying colors, ranging from faint turquoise to deep blue. The colour is a result of the minerals that fill the water and create the lake beds. It’s been called Afghanistan’s Grand Canyon. Tourism: It was visited by thousands of Afghans and pilgrims. It ceased as security nationwide deteriorated with the Taliban coming to power. Wildlife: ibex (wild goats), urials (wild sheep – pictured here), wolves, foxes, fish, and birds MUST READ: Eco-sensitive Zones (ESZ) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2022) Azerbaijan Kyrgyzstan Tajikistan Uzbekistan Turkmenistan Which of the above has borders with Afghanistan? 1, 2

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th August 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 29th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Horn of Africa Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: The Greater Horn of Africa is likely to get heavy rains from October to December 2023, according to the Intergovernmental Authority on Development (IGAD) Climate Prediction and Applications Centre (ICPAC). Key Highlights: ICPAC attributed the wetter-than-usual conditions across most parts of the Greater Horn of Africa to El Nino. El Nino: a natural phenomenon wherein the ocean temperatures rise especially in parts of the Pacific Ocean.( El Nino and La Nina) Southern Ethiopia, eastern Kenya, and southern Somalia are very likely to experience wetter-than-usual rainfall, according to the forecast. In contrast, drier-than-usual conditions have been forecast for the isolated areas of southwestern Uganda and southwestern South Sudan. Below-average rainfall has been forecast until the end of the season for Eritrea, central and northern Ethiopia, Djibouti, Western Kenya, significant areas of South Sudan and Sudan, and Northern Uganda. October to December, the vital rainfall season, especially in the equatorial parts of the Greater Horn of Africa, may contribute 20-70 percent of the annual total rainfall. About the Intergovernmental Authority on Development (IGAD):- Establishment: 1996. HQ: Djibouti, Africa. The IGAD in Eastern Africa was created to supersede the Intergovernmental Authority on Drought and Development (IGADD). Mission: Promote regional cooperation and integration to add value to Member States’ efforts in achieving peace, security, and prosperity. About ICPAC:- Historical Background:- The Drought Monitoring Center-Nairobi (DCMN) was adopted as a specialized IGAD institution in the 10th Summit of the Heads of State and Governments IGAD in 2003. It changed its name to IGAD Climate Prediction and Applications Centre (ICPAC). HQ: Nairobi, Kenya. It is a Climate Center accredited by the World Meteorological Organization. It provides Climate Services to 11 East African Countries. About Horn of Africa:- IMAGE SOURCE: is online About Horn of Africa:- Countries: Somalia, Ethiopia, Eritrea and Djibouti. Location: northeast of the African It lies along the southern boundary of the Red Sea. It extends hundreds of kilometers into the Guardafui Channel, the Gulf of Aden, and the Indian Ocean. It is equidistant from the equator and the Tropic of Cancer. It extends out into the Arabian Sea for hundreds of kilometers. It is located along the south of the Gulf of Aden. The Horn of Africa is a UNESCO Biodiversity Hotspot and one of the two entirely arid ones. Biodiversity Hotspot: To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, an area must meet two strict criteria:- Contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants found nowhere else on Earth (known as “endemic” species). Have lost at least 70 percent of its primary native vegetation. The Greater Horn of Africa region includes Burundi, Djibouti, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Kenya, Rwanda, Somalia, South Sudan, Sudan, Tanzania, and Uganda. MUST READ: India-Africa: Challenges & Way Ahead SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (2022) Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Q.2) With reference to the ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting the Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct (2017) The IOD phenomenon is characterized by a difference in sea surface temperature between the tropical Western Indian Ocean and the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Chail wildlife sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a rare black eagle was spotted at Chail Wildlife Sanctuary. About Chail Wildlife Sanctuary:- Location: Solan & Shimla districts of Himachal Pradesh. Terrain: encompasses hills, valleys, forests, and grasslands. Flora: oak, pine, cedar, rhododendron, and grasslands. Fauna: pheasants, Himalayan bears, deer, langurs, and porcupines. Water Bodies: It comprises part of the catchment area of a tributary of the Giri River. Conservation programs: Established a pheasant breeding program in 1988. (Wildlife Protection) Chail Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area. Protected areas: in which human presence or the exploitation of natural resources (e.g. firewood, non-timber forest products, water, etc.) is limited. (Eco-sensitive Zones (ESZ)) Black eagle:- Characteristics feature: This Eagle is dark black in color and has a striking yellow beak. Habitat: It soars over forests and is mostly found in hilly regions. Food: They mainly hunt for mammals and small birds, especially the ones in the nest. Family: Accipitridae. Genus: Ictinaetus. It is the only member of the genus. Distribution: tropical and subtropical South and Southeast Asia, as well as southeastern China. Distribution in India: Himachal Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir, forests of the Eastern and Western Ghats in peninsular India. Conservation status:- IUCN: Least concern MUST READ: Rare migratory eagle SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: (2023) They build nests by making burrows in the ground. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following fauna: (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The government’s flagship scheme for financial inclusion Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana recently completed nine years of implementation. Background:- Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has said that Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana-led interventions and digital transformation have revolutionized financial inclusion in the country in the last nine years About Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY):- Launched: 28th August in 2014. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. Objectives: ensuring access to various financial services like availability of basic savings bank account, access to need based credit, remittances facility, insurance, and pension to the excluded sections i.e. weaker sections & and low-income groups. Salient Features of PMJDY:- The PMJDY is a National Mission on Financial Inclusion. It encompasses an

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 29th August 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 30th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) International Blind Sports Federation (IBSA) World Games 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Sports Context: The Indian men’s visually impaired team won silver medal after defeat against Pakistan in the final of the men’s T20 cricket event at the International Blind Sports Federation (IBSA) World Games 2023. About International Blind Sports Federation (IBSA) World Games 2023:- Convened on: 18th – 27th August 2023. Venue: Birmingham, Great Britain. It is the world’s biggest gathering of athletes with visual impairments. Events: Powerlifting, judo, goalball, football, chess, tenpin bowling, shooting, and showdown, as well as cricket, archery, and tennis, form the programme. The men’s and women’s IBSA Blind Football World Championships and the partially sighted World Championships will take place as part of the event. The World Games are normally conducted every four years. It has three Paralympic and eight non-Paralympic sports. Last IBSA World Games: Seoul, South Korea, in 2015. About IBSA:- Founded: 1981. HQ: Bonn, GERMANY. IBSA’s first congress was held at the UNESCO headquarters in Paris, France. It was attended by 30 countries. IBSA is the world’s leading organization for the development of sports for people with visual impairments. It has more than 100 members in every region of the world. It is involved with sports that are on the Paralympic programme such as athletics, swimming, and shooting. IBSA is a member of the International Paralympic Committee with full voting rights. MUST READ: Chess Olympiad SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 State of India’s Birds report 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The State of India’s Birds report 2023 was released recently. Key Highlights of the report:- 39% of species show clear declines over the past decades. 178 species classified as of High Conservation Priority, and require immediate attention. Raptors, migratory shorebirds, and ducks have experienced the most significant declines. Long-distance migratory birds, such as those from Eurasia and the Arctic, have suffered significant declines. Several species like the Indian Peafowl, Rock Pigeon, Asian Koel, and House Crow are thriving and increasing in both abundance and distribution. 150% increase in the abundance of peafowl across the country over the past decades. Birds with diets focused on vertebrates and carrion have seen notable declines due to harmful pollutants present in these food resources. The report emphasizes the decline of species endemic to the Western Ghats and Sri Lanka biodiversity hotspots. (Global Biodiversity Framework) About the State of India’s Birds Report 2023:- Developed by: State of India’s Birds Partnership. State of India’s Birds Partnership: a group of 13 government and non-government organizations. Objective: to assess the conservation status of the majority of species that regularly occur in the country. This year, the report assessed the “status of 942 bird species. The earlier assessment carried out in 2020 had listed 15 species of conservation priority. Threats to Bird Species:- The report mentions threats like forest degradation, urbanization, and energy infrastructure. Birds are highly impacted by environmental pollutants, climate change’s impacts on migratory species, avian diseases, and illegal hunting and trade. (Bird flu) MUST READ: American foulbrood (AFB) disease SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases? (2015) AIDS Bird flu Dengue Swine flu Q.2) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Article 35A Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Supreme Court observed that abrogated Article 35A in Jammu and Kashmir had negative affect on the fundamental rights of the people especially those who were not from Jammu and Kashmir. Background:- The Supreme Court observed this while hearing the matter of the abrogation of Article 370 and the restructuring of J& K into two Union territories. The Constitution bench was headed by Chief Justice of India Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud. About Article 35A:- Article 35A was part of Article 370, which granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir until it was scrapped in 2019. Article 370: It allowed the state its own constitution, a separate flag, and independence over all matters except foreign affairs, defense, and communications. Article 35-A deals with empowering the Jammu and Kashmir Constitution to define “permanent residents” of the state. It also empowers the Jammu and Kashmir Legislature to confer on permanent residents or state subjects special rights and privileges. These include rights and privileges in public sector jobs, acquisition of property in the state, scholarships, and other public aid and welfare. It disallows people from outside the state from:- Buying or owning immovable property there Settling permanently Availing themselves of state-sponsored scholarship schemes. Only the Jammu-Kashmir assembly can change the definition of Permanent Residents through a law ratified by a two-thirds majority. Historical Background:- The law came into place during the Dogra times when Maharaja Hari Singh passed it in 1927. It was enacted to prevent the influx of Punjabis into the state. Later, in 1954, an amended version of the law was added through the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954 issued by the President of India (Rajendra Prasad) on aid and advice of Jawaharlal Nehru’s cabinet. It replaced the 1952 Delhi Agreement between Nehru and the then Prime Minister of J&K Sheikh Abdullah, which

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 31st August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Chandrayaan-3 Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Chandrayaan-3 probe shows 50°C temperature difference between the moon’s surface and below it. Background:- On August 27, 2023, the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) released a graph of the temperature variation between the moon’s surface and a point around 8 cm below as measured by an instrument named ChaSTE on board the lander module of the Chandrayaan-3 mission. ChaSTE – short for ‘Chandra’s Surface Thermophysical Experiment’. Developed by: the Space Physics Laboratory of ISRO’s Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), with the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL), Ahmedabad. It is a temperature probe that can be driven into the moon’s surface using a motor to a depth of up to 10 cm. It measured the temperature profile of the lunar topsoil around the south pole to understand its thermal behaviour. Its data show that at the moon’s surface (where the lander is located, a point between the craters Manzinus C and Simpelius N), the temperature is 40-50 degrees C. But just under 80 mm under, it plunges to around -10 degrees C. About Chandrayaan-3:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA Chandrayaan-3 is the successor to the Chandrayaan-2 mission. Launch Vehicle: Mark-III (LVM3). Launched site: Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC), Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Composition: It consists of an indigenous Lander module (LM), a Propulsion module (PM), and a Rover. Lander: a spacecraft that descends towards and comes to rest on, the surface of an astronomical body. Propulsion module: a box-like structure, mounted with a large solar panel on one side and a large cylinder on top. Rover: a small vehicle that can move over rough ground, often used on the surface of other planets, sometimes controlled from the earth. The Lander and the Rover have scientific payloads to carry out experiments on the lunar surface. There will not be any orbiters like Chandrayaan 2 in it. Objectives of Chandrayaan-3 mission:- To demonstrate a Safe and Soft Landing on the Lunar Surface. To demonstrate Rover roving on the moon. To conduct in-situ scientific experiments. Lander payloads:- Chandra’s Surface Thermophysical Experiment (ChaSTE): to measure the thermal conductivity and temperature Instrument for Lunar Seismic Activity (ILSA): for measuring the seismicity around the landing site Langmuir Probe (LP): to estimate the plasma density and its variations. A passive Laser Retroreflector Array from NASA is accommodated for lunar laser ranging studies. Rover payloads:- Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer (APXS) and Laser Induced Breakdown Spectroscope (LIBS): for deriving the elemental composition near the landing site. Propulsion Module Payload:- Spectro-polarimetry of Habitable Planet Earth (SHAPE): Future discoveries of smaller planets in reflected light would allow us to probe into a variety of Exo-planets which would qualify for habitability or for the presence of life. About GSLV-Mk III:- Weighs: 641 tones. Capacity: GSLV can take 10,000-kg satellites to lower earth orbits. It is also known as the Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3). It is a three-stage vehicle. It has two solid motor strap-ons, a liquid propellant core stage, and a cryogenic stage. It is the heaviest and the shortest among India’s operational launch vehicles. MUST READ: Gaganyaan SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Southwest monsoon Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: As per recent reports, Rishikesh in Uttarakhand was India’s wettest town for most of August during the southwest monsoon season in 2023. Background:- Between August 1 and August 25, the town received 1,901 millimeters of rainfall. During the same period, the two wettest places in India and the world, Cherrapunji and Mawsynram, received 1,876.3 mm and 1,464 mm of rainfall respectively. About the southwest monsoon:- Monsoons are seasonal winds that reverse their direction with the change of season. Monsoons are peculiar to the Indian Subcontinent, South East Asia, parts of Central Western Africa, etc. They are more pronounced in the Indian Subcontinent compared to any other region. India receives southwest monsoon winds in summer and northeast monsoon winds in winter. South-west monsoons: formed due to an intense low-pressure system formed over the Tibetan plateau. North-east monsoons: associated with high-pressure cells over Tibetan and Siberian plateaus. South-west monsoons bring intense rainfall to most of the regions in India. Other Countries receiving most of the annual rainfall during the southwest monsoon season: Indonesia, Bangladesh, Myanmar, etc. Factors responsible for the onset of south-west monsoon:- Intense heating of the Tibetan plateau: The Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated during summer, resulting in strong vertical air currents and the formation of low pressure over the plateau at about 9 km above sea level. Permanent high-pressure cell in the South Indian Ocean. Subtropical Jet Stream (STJ). Tropical Easterly Jet (African Easterly Jet). Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ): It is a broad trough of low pressure in equatorial latitudes. This is where the northeast and the southeast trade winds converge Factors that influence the intensity of south-west monsoons:- Strengths of Low pressure over Tibet and high pressure over the southern Indian Ocean. Somali Jet (Findlater Jet). Somali Current (Findlater Current). Indian Ocean branch of Walker Cell. Indian Ocean Dipole. Mechanism of Monsoon:- The location of ITCZ shifts north and south of the equator with the apparent movement of the Sun. June: The sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Cancer and the ITCZ shifts northwards. The southeast trade winds of the southern hemisphere cross the equator and start blowing in the southwest to a northeast direction under the influence of the Coriolis force. These winds collect moisture as they travel over the warm Indian Ocean. July: The ITCZ shifts to 20°-25° N latitude and is located in the Indo-Gangetic Plain. This causes the southwest monsoons to blow from the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal. The ITCZ in this position is often called the Monsoon Trough. The shift in the position of the ITCZ is also related to the phenomenon of the withdrawal of the westerly jet stream from its position over the north Indian plain, south of the Himalayas. Easterly

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –1st September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Red sand boa Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: In India, 172 incidents of seizures of red sand boa were recorded from 2016 to 2021 as per the recent report. Key Highlights of the report:- Incidents of illegal sand boa trade were documented in 18 States and one Union Territory covering 87 districts across India; the highest number was recorded in Maharashtra (59) followed by Uttar Pradesh (33). The study also highlights the role of social media in the illegal trade of the species. The report also suggested that local and international conservation organizations should conduct formative research to better understand the situation of the illegal reptile trade and demand. About Red sand boa:- Scientific Name: Eryx johnii. Family: Boidae. Habitat: arid and semi-arid regions. Distribution: India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and parts of Bangladesh. The Red Sand Boa is a rare non-poisonous snake. It is a non-venomous snake It is predominantly nocturnal. Nocturnal: most active during the night. It is Ovoviviparous. Ovoviviparous: They produce young ones by means of eggs which are hatched within the body of the parent. Ecological importance:- Like other snake species, the Red Sand Boa also plays a significant role in the ecosystem by maintaining a healthy population between prey and predator. ( Species in news: Gharials) Application:- It has applications in medicine, cosmetics, and even black magic, making it highly valued in the global market. (Wildlife Protection) Conservation Status:- IUCN: Near Threatened. CITES: Appendix II. Wildlife Protection Act of 1972: Schedule IV. MUST READ: Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (2023) Fishing cat Orangutan Otter Sloth bear Q.2) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis POSHAN (Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition) scheme Syllabus Prelims – Government Schemes Context: As per recent reports, the Government will celebrate the sixth Rashtriya Poshan Maah 2023 in September. Rashtriya Poshan Maah 2023:- Objective: to comprehensively tackle malnutrition through a life-cycle approach. The focal point of Poshan Maah 2023 is to cultivate widespread awareness concerning critical human life stages comprising pregnancy, infancy, childhood, and adolescence. The aim of this celebration is to foster nutritional understanding across India. Theme: “Suposhit Bharat, Sakshar Bharat, Sashakt Bharat” (Nutrition-rich India, Educated India, Empowered India). About POSHAN:- Launched: 2018. Ministry: Ministry of Women and Child Development. Vision: to ensure the attainment of Malnutrition Free India by 2022. Historical Background:- The Government launched the POSHAN Abhiyaan, earlier known as the National Nutrition Mission, on March 08, 2018. Objective: to address the problem of malnutrition in the country. Salient Features of POSHAN:- POSHAN Abhiyaan is the Government of India’s flagship programme to improve nutritional outcomes for children, adolescent Girls, pregnant women, and lactating mothers. The Abhiyaan targets to reduce:- Stunting by 2% per annum Undernutrition by 2% per annum Anemia (among young children, women, and adolescent girls) by 3% per annum Low birth weight by 2% per annum It is a Multi-Ministerial Convergence Mission. It aims to reduce malnutrition in the country in a phased manner through a life cycle approach. Under the POSHAN Abhiyaan, ‘Rashtriya Poshan Maah’ is celebrated each year in September with the aim of creating awareness about nutrition and healthy food. (POSHAN Maah) Mission Poshan 2.0:- Mission Poshan 2.0, an integrated nutrition support programme, subsumed the Supplementary Nutrition Programme and POSHAN Abhiyaan. It was announced in the Union Budget 2021-2022 for all States/UTs. Objective: to strengthen nutritional content, delivery, outreach, and outcomes with a focus on developing practices that nurture health, wellness, and immunity to disease and malnutrition. (PM Poshan Shakti Nirman Scheme) Targets of Poshan 2.0:- Nutrition Support for POSHAN through the Supplementary Nutrition Programme (SNP) for children of the age group of six months to six years, pregnant women and lactating mothers (PWLM), and Adolescent Girls in the age group of 14 to 18 years in Aspirational Districts and North Eastern Region (NER). Early Childhood Care and Education [3-6 years] and early stimulation for (0-3 years). Anganwadi Infrastructure including modern, upgraded Saksham Anganwadi POSHAN Abhiyaan. Poshan 2.0 also focuses on Maternal Nutrition, Infant and Young Child Feeding Norms, Treatment Protocols for Severely Acute Malnourished (SAM) / Moderately Acute Malnourished (MAM) and wellness through AYUSH practices to reduce wasting and under-weight prevalence besides stunting and anaemia. MUST READ: Year End Review-2022: Ministry of Women and Child Development SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Regarding Digi Locker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under the Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Mera Bill Mera Adhikaar scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The invoice incentive scheme – Mera Bill Mera Adhikaar scheme began recently. About Mera Bill Mera Adhikaar:- IMAGE SOURCE: PIB Launched: 1st September, 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. Objective: to bring a cultural and behavioural change in the general public to ‘Ask for a Bill’ as their right and entitlement. Duration: This Pilot Scheme will run for a period of 12 months. Salient Features of Mera Bill Mera Adhikaar:-

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The recently released Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) report suggests that air pollution shortens the lives of the residents of Delhi by around 11.9 years. Key Highlights of the report:- On account of the number of people that high particulate matter levels affect in India, the country faces the greatest health burden from air pollution among all the countries in the world. In South Asia, particulate pollution has increased by 9.7 percent from 2013 to 2021. In India, 5 levels rose 9.5 percent. Particulate matter( PM): particles found in the air, including dust, dirt, soot, smoke, and liquid droplets that remain suspended in the air for long periods of time. According to PM2.5 data for 2021 derived from satellites, pollution in India has increased from 56.2 µg/m3 in 2020 to 58.7 µg/m3 in 2021. This is more than 10 times the WHO guideline of 5 µg/m3. Delhi’s annual average PM2.5 level in 2021 was found to be 126.5 µg/m3, which is more than 25 times the World Health Organization (WHO) ( Delhi and Air Pollution) The report said particulate matter pollution is also the biggest threat to human health in India in terms of lowering life expectancy, beating cardiovascular diseases, and child and maternal malnutrition. The average Indian resident is set to lose 5.3 years of life expectancy if the WHO guideline is not met. About Air Quality Life Index (AQLI):- Produced by: Energy Policy Institute at the University of Chicago (EPIC). Published: Annually. The Air Quality Life Index ( AQLI), provides details of impact of air pollution on life expectancy. Special Features of AQLI:- The research underlying the AQLI is based on pollution data at the very high concentrations that prevail in many parts of the world today. The causal nature of the AQLI’s underlying research allows it to isolate the effect of air pollution from other factors that impact health. The AQLI delivers estimates of the loss of life expectancy for the average person. The AQLI uses highly localized satellite data, making it possible to report life expectancy that impacts at the county or similar level. MUST READ: India’s uphill battle to bring down air pollution SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m3 and the annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 ug/m3. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Sixth census on minor irrigation Syllabus Prelims – Government Initiatives Context: The Jal Shakti Ministry has released the sixth census on minor irrigation schemes report. Key Highlights of the report:- As per the report, 14 million minor irrigation (MI) schemes have been reported in the country. The report also revealed that there has been an increase of about 1.42 million in MI schemes as compared to the previous census. Minor Irrigation Schemes(MI): those structures either in groundwater or in the surface water category having culturable command areas up to 2,000 hectares. Out of these 93 million are Ground Water (GW) and 1.21 million are Surface Water (SW) schemes. Ground Water (GW) schemes: provide irrigation throughout the year. Surface Water (SW) scheme: comprises surface flow schemes and surface lift irrigation schemes. For the first time, the information about the gender of the owner of the MI scheme was also collected in the case of individual ownership. Out of all the individually owned schemes, 1 percent are owned by women. Minor irrigation (MI) schemes: Uttar Pradesh possesses the largest number of MI schemes in the country. It was followed by Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu. Ground Water (GW) ranking: The same ranking of states as MI follows for the Ground Water (GW) Surface Water (SW) ranking: Maharashtra leads in SW schemes followed by Karnataka, Telangana, Odisha, and Jharkhand. About the 6th census on minor irrigation:- IMAGE SOURCE: PIB Published in 2023. Published by: Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Past censuses: 1986-87, 1993-94, 2000-01, 2006-07 and 2013-14. Objective: to gather a sound and reliable database for minor irrigation schemes for effective planning and policy making in this sector. The census was conducted under the centrally sponsored scheme “Irrigation Census”. The 6th MI census work was delayed due to the Covid-19 pandemic. It was executed in 32 States/ UTs across the country. Detailed information on various parameters of Irrigation sources, irrigation potential created (IPC), potential utilized, ownership, holding size of land by owner, windmills, etc. were collected. Irrigation sources: dug well, shallow tube well, medium tube well, deep tube well, surface flow, and surface lift schemes. (‘Per Drop More Crop’) Significance of report:- This report will be useful for planners, policy makers, researcher scholars, agricultural and groundwater scientists, and administrators & all concerned with the development of irrigation and the agricultural economy of the country. ( Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)) MUST READ: Precision Agriculture SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia aoyssinica) seeds. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) Expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. enabling the banks to assess the

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 4th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) issued an order against M/s IQRA IAS Institute, to discontinue the false testimonials and misleading claims from their website with immediate effect recently. Background:- The issue came to the notice of CCPA through the website of IQRA IAS Institute established in 2018 deliberately and falsely claimed through the testimonials of top-rank holders of UPSC CSE in 2015 & 2017 as their students which is factually deceiving. Therefore, CCPA took Suo-moto cognizance and found that along with the aforesaid false claim the institute claimed itself as the only coaching academy to have the best faculty from all around India for providing the best UPSC online prelims test series 2020, thus making it the top UPSC coaching within a year in Pune. Accordingly, the notice was issued to IQRA IAS Institute in view of the violation of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. Consumer Protection Act, 2019:- Definition of consumer: The act defines a consumer as a person who buys any good or avails a service for consideration. Exclusion: It does not include a person who obtains a good for resale or a good or service for commercial purposes. It covers transactions through all modes including offline, and online through electronic means, teleshopping, multi-level marketing, or direct selling. Definition of misleading advertisement: The Act defines “misleading advertisement” in relation to any product or service as “an advertisement, which:- Falsely describes such product or service. Gives, a false guarantee to, or is likely to mislead the consumers as to the nature, substance, quantity, or quality of such product or service. Conveys an express or implied representation which, if made by the manufacturer or seller or service provider thereof, would constitute an unfair trade practice. Deliberately conceals important information. Rights of consumers:- Six consumer rights have been defined in the Act, including:- Right to safety, right to be Informed, right to choose, right to be heard, right to seek redressal, and right to consumer education. About Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA):- Establishment: 2020. Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs. HQ: Delhi. Objective: To protect the rights of the consumer by cracking down on unfair trade practices, and false and misleading advertisements that are detrimental to the interests of the public and consumers. The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) is an authority constituted under Section 10(1) of The Consumer Protection Act, 2019. Composition:- Head: Chief Commissioner Members: two other commissioners as members. One of these will deal with matters relating to goods while the other will look into cases relating to services. Investigation Wing: The CCPA will have an Investigation Wing, headed by a Director General. District Collectors: They too, will have the power to investigate complaints of violations of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and false or misleading advertisements. Powers and Functions of CCPA:- Inquire or investigate matters relating to violations of consumer rights or unfair trade practices Suo moto, or on a complaint received, or on a direction from the central government. Recall goods or withdrawal of services that are “dangerous, hazardous, or unsafe. Pass an order for a refund of the prices of goods or services so recalled to purchasers of such goods or services. Impose a penalty of up to Rs 10 lakh, with imprisonment of up to two years, on the manufacturer or endorser of false and misleading advertisements. The penalty may go up to Rs 50 lakh, with imprisonment up to five years, for every subsequent offense committed by the same manufacturer or endorser. Ban the endorser of a false or misleading advertisement from making an endorsement of any products or services in the future. File complaints of violation of consumer rights or unfair trade practices before the District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, and the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission. MUST READ: New consumer rights law SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? (2022) Farmers harvesting their crops Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics A commercial bank lending money to a trading company A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Spamouflage Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Meta recently, claimed that it is fighting a Chinese ‘Spamouflage‘ operation. About Spamouflage:- It is an online Chinese spam operation. (Cyberattacks) It pushes positive narratives about China and negative commentary about the United States, Western foreign policies, and critics of the Chinese government. Origin: China. Targets: Taiwan, the United States, Australia, Britain, Japan, and global Chinese-speaking audiences. It mimicked websites of mainstream news outlets in Europe and posted stories about Russia’s war on Ukraine and then spread it online. (Cybercrime) The accounts in the campaign have a tendency to intersperse political posts. It has been active on over 50 platforms and forums, including Facebook, Instagram, TikTok, YouTube, and X (formerly Twitter). Companies involved in the campaign were recently sanctioned by the European Union. MUST READ: Global Cybersecurity SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The terms ‘Wanna Cry, Petya, and Eternal Blue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to (2023) Exo-planets Crypto-currency Cyber attacks Mini satellites Q.2) With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? (2023) Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units Create meaningful short stories and songs Disease diagnosis Text-to-speech conversion Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 5th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) BS 6 Stage II Electrified Flex fuel vehicle Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The World’s first prototype of the BS 6 Stage II ‘Electrified Flex fuel vehicle’ was launched recently. Background:- These vehicle technologies will provide the opportunity for greater substitution of petrol by Ethanol as it is capable of using any of the higher blends of ethanol mix beyond 20%. About Electrified Flex fuel vehicle:- IMAGE SOURCE: U.S. Department of Energy Flex-fuel vehicles (FFV) are capable of running on 100% petrol,100% bio-ethanol, or a combination of both. These vehicles are equipped with engines that can adjust their fuel mixture based on the available fuel blend. Electrified Flex Fuel Vehicles are an advanced version of FFVs. They are able to operate on both ethanol-based fuels and electricity. ( The technology powering hybrid electric vehicles) They provide increased fuel efficiency. They reduce emissions compared to traditional gasoline-only vehicles. An Electrified Flex Fuel Vehicle has both a Flexi Fuel engine and an electric powertrain. This gives it the ability to provide the dual benefit of higher ethanol use and much higher fuel efficiency. A Strong Hybrid Electric Vehicle (SHEV), can provide 30-50% higher Fuel Efficiency as it can run 40-60% in EV mode with engine shut off. The world’s 1st BS-6 Stage-II, Electrified Flex fuel vehicle, has been developed by Toyota Kirloskar Motor. It has both a flex-fuel engine as well as an electric powertrain, thereby offering higher use of ethanol combined with better fuel efficiencies. About Bharat Stage VI (BS VI): It is a set of emission standards established to regulate the level of air pollutants emitted from internal combustion and spark-ignition engine equipment. BS-VI contains enhanced fuel quality, and reduced the permissible Sulphur content by 80%, from 50 Parts Per Million (ppm) to a maximum of 10 ppm. India has made it mandatory to follow BS-VI emission (from previously BS-IV) norms in two phases:- Phase 1: Effective from April 1, 2020. It witnessed substantial reductions in permissible pollutant limits, setting new standards for emissions. Phase 2: Initiated on April 1, 2023. It focuses on Real Driving Emission (RDE) testing which measures emissions emitted by a vehicle while in real-world driving conditions. MUST READ: (Flex Fuel Technology) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for (2021) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world. Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading. Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries. Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit of time. Q.2) “R2 Code of Practices” constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2021) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry. Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention. Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands. ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources. Personalized Adaptive Learning (PAL) Syllabus Prelims – Government initiatives Context: The National e-Governance Division (NeGD) recently announced plans to integrate Personalised Adaptive Learning (PAL) into its existing Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA) platform. Background:- PAL’s software-based approach will allow each student to have an individualized learning experience over the course of the curriculum based on their unique needs and abilities. The Ministry of Education intends to begin PAL implementation for challenging subjects like Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics for Classes 9 to 12. By focusing on these subjects, the initiative aims to improve learning outcomes and school retention rates, addressing the issue of dropouts after Class 10. About Personalised Adaptive Learning (PAL):- It is an educational approach that uses technology, particularly artificial intelligence (AI), to customize the learning experience for individual students. (A new global standard for AI ethics) It is based to cater individual student’s unique needs, abilities, and progress. It employs AI to monitor student progress and identify areas of difficulty. For instance, if a student makes a mistake in a calculation, the system detects it and redirects the student to relevant foundational content, ensuring a better understanding of the concept. PAL adapts to the unique progress and challenges faced by each student, offering a more effective and engaging learning experience. Benefits of PAL:- Personalized Study Plans. Support for Special Needs. Flexibility in Learning. Challenges faced by states in implementing PAL:- States like Assam and Haryana have faced budget constraints when implementing PAL. While Assam discontinued the project due to funding issues. Haryana found the streaming costs for content to be prohibitively high, leading to a standstill in the adoption process. About DIKSHA:- Launched: 2017. Ministry: Ministry of Education. DIKSHA is the platform for providing quality e-content for school education in States/UTs and QR-coded Energized Textbooks for all grades. It aids teachers in learning and training themselves for which assessment resources will be available. It houses digitized National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) textbooks, teaching videos, and practice questions. It also has assistive technologies for learners with disabilities, but it’s a static content repository. MUST READ: Regulating Artificial Intelligence SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? (2020) Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units Create meaningful short stories and songs Disease diagnosis Text-to-speech conversion Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2, 4, and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 CSIR PRIMA ET11 Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, CSIR-CMERI developed a Compact Electric Tractor- CSIR PRIMA ET11. About CSIR PRIMA ET11:- Developed by: CSIR-CMERI. CSIR PRIMA ET11 is

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