Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: Recently, the last date of submission for the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar was extended. Background:- The Ministry of Women and Child Development has extended the last date of submission for the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar till the 31st of August,2023. About Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar:- IMAGE SOURCE: noticebard.com The Awards are announced on December 26 on ‘Veer Bal Diwas’. Veer Baal Diwas: marks a tribute to the martyrdom of Guru Gobind Singh’s sons. (UPSC CSE: Parkash Purab of Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji) The awards are conferred by the President of India at New Delhi at a special ceremony/function to be held in January every year. Historical Background: It was instituted in 1979 as the National Child Welfare Awards, renamed in 2018 as Bal Kalyan Puraskar. (UPSC CSE: Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA)) Objective: It is organized to celebrate the energy, determination, ability, zeal and enthusiasm of our children. Field: This national-level award is given in the fields of Bravery, Sports, Social Service, Science and Technology, Environment, Arts and Culture, and Innovation. Awarded by: Ministry of Women and Child Development. Eligibility:- A child who is an Indian Citizen and residing in India and is not exceeding 18 years (as of the last date of receipt of application/nomination). The act/incident/achievement should have been within 2 years of the last date of receipt of application/nomination for the year of consideration. The applicant should not be a previous recipient of the same award earlier in any category (including National Child Awards for Exceptional Achievement, as were awarded by the Ministry earlier) Nomination can be done by:- State Governments, Union Territory Administrations, District Collectors/District Magistrates, and Panchayati Raj Institutions. All Central and State School Boards, Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan, Navodaya Vidyalaya Sangathan, National Commission for Protection of Child Rights, State Commissions for Protection of Child Rights and National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child Development. Ministry of Social Justice, Department of Disabilities, Department of School Education in Ministry of Education, all state Departments of School Education, Ministry of Youth Affairs, Department of Sports, Sports Authority of India, Ministry of Culture, Ministry of Science and Technology, Ministry of Environment & Forests, Ministry of Defence, Ministry of Home Affairs, and Press Information Bureau. National Selection Committee. Selection Process The applications received are first scrutinized by the Screening Committee. The final selection is done by the National Selection Committee. Decoration:- Medal Cash prize of Rs. 1,00,000 Certificate and citation The Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar is given under two categories:- Bal Shakti Puraskar It is given by the Government of India every year to recognize exceptional achievements of children in various fieldse., innovation, scholastic achievements, social service, arts & culture, sports and bravery. Eligibility: A child who is an Indian Citizen residing in India and is between 5-18 years of age. Decoration: A medal, a cash prize of Rs. 1,00,000, book vouchers worth Rs.10,000, a certificate and a citation. Bal Kalyan Puraskar It is given as recognition to Individuals and Institutions, who have made an outstanding contribution towards service for children in the field of child development, child protection and child welfare. Eligibility: An individual who is an Indian Citizen residing in India and should have attained the age of 18 years or above (as of 31st August of the respective year). S/he should have worked for the cause of children for not less than 7 years. The institution should not be entirely funded by the government and should have been in the field of child welfare for 10 years and performing consistently in the field. MUST READ: Padma awards SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four INS Utkrosh Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: The Chief of Defense Staff, CDS, General Anil Chauhan inaugurated LRMR Hangar & Dispersal at Naval Air Station, INS Utkrosh in Port Blair. The twin hangar spread over 6000 sq. mt. can accommodate a combination of P8I aircraft with Dronier & Advanced Light Helicopters. It will help in strengthening the security of the Indian Oceans Region. About INS Utkrosh:- It is an Indian naval air station under the joint-services Andaman and Nicobar Command of the Indian Armed Forces. (UPSC CSE: SLBM launch by INS Arihant) Location: Port Blair, Andaman & Nicobar Islands. Commissioning: It was commissioned in This station operates the Do-228 maritime patrol aircraft and a SAR (Search & Rescue) flight of HAL Chetak helicopters. Maritime patrol aircraft (MPA): a fixed-wing aircraft designed to operate for long durations over water in maritime patrol roles. Search and rescue (SAR) service: provided to the survivors of aircraft accidents as well as aircraft in distress (and their occupants) regardless of their nationality. Significance:- The station handles courier flights from the mainland and civil flights to and from Port Blair. It shares airside facilities with Veer Savarkar International Airport which handles civilian traffic. The facilities at INS Utkrosh have been significantly upgraded. The runway has been lengthened to almost 11,000 feet (3,400 m). Except for the civilian terminal operated by the Airports Authority of India, all other air traffic operations over Port Blair are undertaken by INS Utkrosh. MUST READ: Kalvari-Class Submarine INS Vagir SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (2016) Amphibious warfare ship Nuclear-powered submarine Torpedo launch and recovery vessel Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier Directorate of Revenue Intelligence Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence seized over 48 kg of gold paste estimated to be worth 25 crore rupees at Surat

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, IN SPACe, the commercial arm of the Indian Space Research Organisation, ISRO has called for an Expression of Interest from Indian private Industries to manufacture a Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV). Background:- The Chairman of INSPACe, Dr. Pawan Goenka has outlined the objective of involving private players in the manufacturing of Small launchers by saying that this will pave the way for India to become a global hub for small satellite launches. About Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV):- IMAGE SOURCE: Bharat Rakshak SSLV is an indigenously developed mini rocket launcher. (UPSC CSE: ISRO to undertake maiden flight of SSLV) It is the smallest vehicle at ISRO with a 110-ton mass. It is specially designed to carry smaller commercial satellites into the low-earth orbit (LEO) from 200-2,000 km above the Earth’s surface. Low-earth orbit (LEO): an orbit that is relatively close to Earth’s surface. It is normally at an altitude of less than 1000 km but could be as low as 160 km above Earth. It is a three-stage Launch Vehicle configured with three Solid Propulsion Stages and a liquid propulsion-based Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) as a terminal stage. Payload capacity: up to 500 kg. It has the capacity to deliver:- 600 kg to Low Earth Orbit (500 km) or 300 kg to Sun-synchronous Orbit (500 km) Advantages of SSLV:- It is a low-cost launch vehicle. It has a Low turn-around time. It is flexible in accommodating multiple satellites. It has minimal launch infrastructure requirements, etc. It is intended to cater to a market for the launch of small satellites into low earth orbits with a quick turn-around time. It will take only 72 hours to integrate, unlike the 70 days taken now for a launch vehicle. Only six people will be required to do the job, instead of 60 people. It will shift the burden of commercial launches from PSLV. PSLV: is the third generation launch vehicle of India and the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages. The SSLV is likely to cost a fourth of the current PSLV. (UPSC CSE: PSLV-C54 launch) IN-SPACe : Establishment: 2020. HQ: Ahmedabad, Gujrat. Objective: promotion, encouragement and regulation of space activities of both government and private entities. It is an autonomous agency in the Department of Space. (UPSC CSE: IN-SPACe) It also facilitates the usage of ISRO facilities by private entities. Composition: It comprises technical experts for space activities along with safety experts, academic experts and legal and strategic experts from other departments. It also comprises members from the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) and the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) of the Government of India. Functions of IN-SPACe:- To develop a space start-up ecosystem in India. To boost the participation of students in the Indian space sector and develop future space force frontiers. To create international opportunities for Indian space companies. To make India the spaceport and ground station hub for selected countries/regions. To develop space tourism and to spread awareness to the public about space technology and its benefits and role in the everyday life of individuals To develop IN-SPACe talent and knowledgebase. MUST READ: Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Home Minister Amit Shah will address two days G20 Conference on Crime and Security in the Age of Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) and Artificial Intelligence (AI). Background:- Two days G20 Conference on Crime and Security in the Age of NFTs, AI, and Metaverse will be organized in Gurugram, Haryana on the 13th and 14th of July. (UPSC CSE: India and G20 Presidency) The conference will bring together over 900 participants from G20 countries, 9 special invitee countries, international bodies, technology leaders, and domain experts from the country and across the world. About Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs):- IMAGE SOURCE: datasciencecentral.com NFTs are assets in the digital world that can be bought and sold like any other piece of property, but which have no tangible form of their own. (UPSC CSE: Non Fungible Tokens (NFTs)) Anything that can be converted into a digital form can be a Non-Fungible Token (NFT). It includes drawings, photos, videos, GIFs, music, in-game items, selfies etc. Even a tweet can be turned into an NFT, which can then be traded online using cryptocurrency. NFT transactions are recorded on blockchains. Historical Background of NFTs: 2015: Terra Nulius was the first NFT on Ethereum Blockchain. 2017: Then came Curio Cards, CryptoPunks and CryptoCats . 2021: NFTS slowly moved into public awareness, expanding into mainstream adoption in early 2021. Characteristic Features of NFTs:- Blockchain backed: NFTs are different from other digital forms in that they are backed by Blockchain technology. (UPSC CSE: Blockchain Technology and Voting) Exclusive ownership: NFTs can have only one owner at a time. Digital Storage: NFT owners can also digitally sign their artwork and store specific information in their NFTs metadata. Confidentiality: This will be only viewable to the individual who bought the NFT. Conditions to buy NFTs:- Anyone who holds a cryptocurrency wallet can buy an NFT. (UPSC CSE: Cryptocurrency) That is the only prerequisite to purchasing an NFT. One does not need any KYC documents to purchase an art. Risks associated with NFTs:- Risk of Fraud: In the recent past, several incidents of NFT Frauds have been reported. This includes the emergence of fake marketplaces, unverified sellers often impersonating real artists and selling copies of their artworks for half price. Environmental Risks: In

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2023 Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: As per recent announcements, India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2023 will be held from the 27th of October this year in New Delhi. About India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2023:- India Mobile Congress (IMC) is the largest telecom, media, and technology forum in Asia. Organized by: It is jointly organized by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) and the Cellular Operators Association of India (COAI). Mission: to catapult India into the limelight, becoming a beacon of the all-encompassing digital transformation shaping the future. Significance: It is a leading forum for bringing together industry, government, academia, and other ecosystem players. Venue: Pragati Maidan, New Delhi. (UPSC CSE: IMC 2021) Ministry: Minister of Information Technology. This is the seventh edition of Asia’s premier digital technology exhibition. (UPSC CSE: IMC 2021) Aim of IMC 2023: The event will harness India’s potent expertise in cutting-edge technologies such as 5G, 6G, broadcasting, satellite, and semiconductors and sculpt an electric atmosphere where ideas ignite, alliances shape, and digital boundaries are incessantly expanded. Theme of the India Mobile Congress-2023: Global Digital Innovation. Sub Themes of the India Mobile Congress-2023: Engage, Learn, Innovate. The event plays a pivotal role in driving meaningful conversations, facilitating enriching connections, and sparking ingenuity across industries. This year IMC is introducing Aspire, the grand Start-Up event. It will lay emphasis on igniting the future of entrepreneurship growth among young innovators and industry delegates in the telecom and other digital domains. MUST READ: Telecom industry in India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: (2022) Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. In the Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain-based social networks. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than by a corporation Which of the following given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, Union Cooperation Minister Amit Shah addressed the 42nd Foundation Day of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) in New Delhi. Background:- Union Cooperation Minister Amit Shah has said that NABARD is ensuring development and prosperity in rural areas by making rural banking accessible. For the last four decades, NABARD has proved to be the backbone of this country’s rural economy, infrastructure, agriculture, and cooperative institutions. NABARD has a huge role in making every person in the village self-reliant especially the women, through self-help groups and establishing them in society with self-respect. About National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD):- Established: 1982. It is a statutory body under the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act, of 1981. NABARD came into existence in 1982 by transferring the agricultural credit functions of RBI and refinance functions of the then Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC). NABARD today is fully owned by the Government of India. HQ: Mumbai Role of NABARD:- It is an apex institution, which has the power to deal with all matters concerning policy, planning. It deals with the operations in giving credit for agriculture and other economic activities in rural areas. (UPSC CSE: Revised Rural Area Development Plan) It is a refinancing agency for those institutions that provide investment and production credit for promoting several developmental programs for rural development. It is improving the credit delivery system in India. It coordinates the rural credit financing activities while maintaining liaison with the Government of India, State Governments, and also RBI. Functions of NABARD:- It provides refinance for IRDP accounts in order to give the highest share for the support for poverty allevia­tion programs run by IRDP. It also makes the service area plan, to provide backward and for­ward linkages and infrastructural support. NABARD also prepares guidelines for the promotion of group activities under its programs and provides 100% refinance support for them. It is making efforts to establish linkages between the Self-help Group(SHG). It refinances projects that are taken under the ‘National Watershed Development Programme ‘ and the ‘National Mission of Wasteland Development. It also has a system of District Oriented Monitor­ing Studies. (UPSC CSE: Start-Up Village Entrepreneurship Programme) It also supports Vikas volunteer Vahini programs which offer credit and development activities to poor farmers. It also inspects and supervises the cooperative banks and RRBs to periodically ensure the development of rural financing and farmers’ welfare. It recommends licensing for RRBs and Cooperative banks to RBI. It provides assistance and support for the training and development of the staff of various other credit insti­tutions, that are engaged in credit distributions. It also runs programs for agriculture and rural development. MUST READ: Cooperative Sector Reforms SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Muslim World League Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently, President Droupadi Murmu had a meeting with the Secretary General

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Directorate General of foreign trade (DGFT) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the directorate general of foreign trade (DGFT) has imposed restrictions on imports of certain gold jewellery and articles. Background:- Restrictions mean that a license will be required from the government to import these goods. Although, no such permission is required for imports under the India-UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) tariff rate quota ((TRQ). CEPA: It is a kind of free trade pact, which covers negotiation on the trade in services and investment, and other areas of economic partnership. TRQ: It allows a lower tariff rate on imports of a given product up to a specified quantity. About Directorate General of foreign trade (DGFT):- Establishment: 1991. HQ: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Headed by: Director General of Foreign Trade. Objective: promoting India’s exports. Functions of DGCI:- Licensing of imports and exports. Regulate, restrict or prohibit exports and imports. (UPSC CSE: Free Trade Agreements regime) Providing a complete database of all exporters and importers in India. It has the authority to prohibit, restrict, and regulate importers and exporters. It plays an advisory role to the Government on Policy measures pertaining to national and international economic scenarios. It is responsible for formulating and implementing the Foreign Trade Policy. (UPSC CSE: New Foreign Trade Policy) It also issues scrips/authorization to exporters and monitors their corresponding obligations. MUST READ: Moratorium on e-commerce trade SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-! : Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second-largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Third G20 Sherpas Meet Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: The third Sherpas meeting under India’s G20 Presidency began in Hampi, Karnataka recently. About G20 Sherpas: A Sherpa is a personal representative of the leader of a member country at an international Summit meeting such as the G20. The Sherpa engages in planning, negotiation and implementation tasks through the Summit. They coordinate the agenda, seek consensus at the highest political levels, and participate in a series of pre-Summit consultations to help negotiate their leaders’ positions. Sherpas are career diplomats or senior government officials appointed by the leaders of their countries. There is only one Sherpa per Summit for each member country; he/she is assisted by several sous Sherpas. G20 Sherpa Meeting under India’s G20 Presidency: The former CEO of NITI Aayog, Amitabh Kant is the G20 Sherpa from India. The 1st Sherpa Meeting of India’s G20 Presidency was held on 04 December 2022, in Udaipur Rajasthan. The Second G20 Sherpas meeting under India’s G20 Presidency, chaired by India’s G20 Sherpa Shri Amitabh Kant took place in the picturesque village of Kumarakom, Kerala, from March 30 to April 2, 2023. G20:- Establishment: 1999. (UPSC CSE: G20) Members: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the U.K., the U.S. and the European Union. Presidency of the G20: it rotates every year among members. The country holding the presidency, together with the previous and next presidency-holder, forms the ‘Troika’. India assumed the presidency of the G20 grouping from Indonesia, in 2022 and will hold the post for a year. During India’s presidency, India, Indonesia and Brazil will form the troika. The G20 does not have a permanent secretariat or Headquarters. About Hampi:- IMAGE SOURCE: Condé Nast Traveller India Hampi comprises mainly the remnants of the capital city of the Vijayanagara Empire. Vijayanagara Empire: the last great Hindu Kingdom dating 14th-16th century CE. Hampi was the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire in the 14th century. Discovery: The ruins at Hampi were brought to light in 1800 by an engineer and antiquarian named Colonel Colin Mackenzie. (UPSC CSE: Hampi Stone Chariot) Hampi was the capital city during the four different dynasties:- Sangama (1336 to 1485 CE): Founded by Harihara I. Saluva (1485 to 1503 CE): Founded by Saluva Narasimha. Tuluva (1491 to 1570 CE): Founded by Tuluva Narasa Nayaka and the most famous king was Krishnadeva Raya. Aravidu (1542 to 1646 CE): Founded by It is located in the Tungabhadra basin in Bellary District, Central Karnataka. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is called the “World’s Largest Open-air Museum”. (UPSC CSE: Hampi World Heritage site) It is also known as Pampa Kshetra, Kishkindha Kshetra and even Bhaskara Kshetra. Characteristic features of temples at Hampi: wide chariot streets flanked by a row of pillared mandapas. Famous places: Krishna temple complex, Narasimha, Ganesa, Hemakuta group of temples, Achyutaraya temple complex, Vitthala temple complex, Pattabhirama temple complex, Lotus Mahal complex, etc. MUST READ: Kingdom of Vijayanagara SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well-known (2023) capital cities ports centres of iron-and-steel making shrines of Jain Tirthankaras

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Avian Influenza Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Ongoing avian influenza outbreaks in animals are raising concerns about the potential risks to humans, according to a joint statement issued by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO), the World Health Organization (WHO), and the World Organization for Animal Health (WOAH). About Avian Influenza:- IMAGE SOURCE: The Conversation Avian influenza or bird flu refers to the disease caused by infection with avian (bird) influenza (flu) Influenza A viruses. (UPSC CSE: Bird flu) Influenza viruses There are four types of influenza viruses: types A, B, C and D. Influenza A viruses: infect humans and many different animals. Influenza B viruses: circulate among humans and cause seasonal epidemics. Influenza C viruses: can infect both humans and pigs but infections are generally mild and are rarely reported. Influenza D viruses: primarily affect cattle and are not known to infect or cause illness in people. Influenza A viruses are the only influenza viruses known to cause flu pandemics. These are divided into subtypes based on two proteins on the surface of the virus: hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N). These subtypes include: A(H5N1), A(H7N9), and A(H9N2). H5N1 virus occurs mainly in birds and is highly contagious among them. HPAI Asian H5N1 is especially deadly for poultry. Avian influenza is a highly contagious viral disease. It can infect domestic poultry and other bird and animal species. Avian influenza viruses do not normally infect humans. However, sporadic human infections with bird flu viruses have occurred. Risk: The primary risk factor for humans is exposure to infected live or dead poultry or contaminated environments, such as live bird markets. Prevention:- Controlling the disease in the animal source is critical to decreasing the risk to humans. Travelers to countries and people living in countries with known outbreaks should avoid poultry farms, entering areas where poultry may be slaughtered, and contaminated with faeces from poultry or other animals. Quality surveillance in both animal and human populations, thorough investigation of every human infection and risk-based pandemic planning is essential. Treatment:- Antiviral drugs: Neuraminidase inhibitors like oseltamivir, and zanamivir, can reduce the duration of viral replication and improve prospects of survival. Treatment period: recommended for a minimum of 5 days but can be extended until there is satisfactory clinical improvement. Vaccination:- No vaccine for the prevention of avian influenza infections in humans is commercially available. (UPSC CSE: Vaccine Development for COVID-19) MUST READ: AB-PMJAY and COVID treatment SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four India Government Mint Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the 120th anniversary of the Indian Government Mint was celebrated in Hyderabad with commemorative souvenir coins. Background:- These souvenir coins were crafted of silver, copper, and serve as a tribute to the rich legacy and contributions of the Indian Government Mint in the field of coinage and minting. Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Ltd (SPMCIL) Chairman and Managing Director SK Sinha released the commemorative coins.  About Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Ltd (SPMCIL) It is a wholly owned Schedule ‘A’ Miniratna Category-I company of t Government of India. Establishment: 2006. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. Objectives To be a leader in the manufacturing of currency, coins and security products through process excellence and innovation. Functions::- Conducting printing and minting activities of the Government of India. Developing state-of-art currency, coins and diversified security products in a transparent, cost-effective and efficient manner. Constantly focusing on benchmarking, process automation, applied R & D, indigenization and the triple bottom line people, planet and profit. Ensuring Employees, Customers and Stakeholders’ delight. Production of Currency and Bank Notes, Security Paper, Non-Judicial Stamp Papers, Postal Stamps & Stationery. It also includes producing Travel Documents viz. Passport and Visa, Security certificates, Cheques, Bonds, Warrants, Special Certificates with security features, Security Inks, Circulation & Commemorative Coins, Medallions, Refining of Gold & Silver, and Assay of Precious Metals. About India Government Mint:- IMAGE SOURCE: https://www.spmcil.com/en/about-us/#history India Government Mints (IGM) the units of Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Ltd (SPMCIL). There are four such units:- India Government Mints (IGM) Mumbai: it was established in 1829, and is one of the oldest mints in India. India Government Mints (IGM) Hyderabad: The present mint started in 1997 at Cherlapally. India Government Mints (IGM) Kolkata: The new mint was established in 1952 and became a unit of SPMCIL during corporatization in 2006. India Government Mints (IGM) Noida: it is the only Mint established in the post-independence era.(UPSC CSE: Kushans and Coins in India) IGMs offer a comprehensive range of services covering every stage of the minting process – from planning to the finished products. They utilize advanced technology, innovation, quality and reliable delivery methods. They strictly follow global laboratory standards. (UPSC CSE: India’s Digital rupee: CBDC) MUST READ: Binance SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to (2023) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms · an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward a type

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) PM-MITRA Syllabus Prelims –Government Schemes Context: In a recent tweet, Prime Minister Narendra Modi said that the PM-MITRA mega textile parks will bolster productivity, foster innovation and generate many employment opportunities. About PM-MITRA:- IMAGE SOURCE: yojanapandit.com Launched: 2021. The setting up of 7 PM MITRA Parks was announced in the Union Budget for 2021-22 and later approved by the Central Government. (UPSC CSE: PM MITRA) Ministry: Ministry of Textiles Objective: It aspires to fulfil the vision of building an Aatmanirbhar Bharat and to position India strongly on the Global textiles map. Key Features of PM MITRA:- The PM MITRA scheme is inspired by the 5F vision – Farm to Fibre to Factory to Fashion to Foreign. PM MITRA Parks will be developed by a Special Purpose Vehicle which will be owned by the State Government and Government of India in a Public Private Partnership (PPP) Mode. (UPSC CSE: PM MITRA Parks) The Park will have:- Core Infrastructure: Incubation Centre & Plug & Play facility, Developed Factory Sites, Roads, Power, Water and Waste Water system, Common Processing House & CETP and other related facilities e.g. Design Centre, Testing Centers etc. Support Infrastructure: Workers’ hostels & housing, Logistics Park, warehousing, medical, training & skill development facilities. Competitiveness Incentive Support (CIS) of ₹300 Crore will also be provided to each PM MITRA park for the early establishment of textiles manufacturing units in PM MITRA Park. Advantages of PM MITRA:- PM MITRA Parks aim to have world-class industrial infrastructure. They will attract cutting-edge technology and boost FDI and local investment in the textiles sector. The Parks offer an opportunity to create an integrated textiles value chain right from spinning, weaving, processing/dyeing and printing to garment manufacturing at 1 location. Integrated Textile Value chain at 1 location will reduce the logistics cost of the Industry. Intended to generate 1 lakh direct and 2 lakh indirect employment per park. 7 Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel (PM MITRA) Parks are aimed at helping India to achieve the United Nations Sustainable Development Goal 9: “Build resilient infrastructure, promote sustainable industrialization and foster innovation”. MUST READ: Textile Industry in India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (2022) Central Statistics Office Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade Labour Bureau National Technical Manpower Information System Bhoomi Samman 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: As per recent announcements, President Droupadi Murmu will present Bhoomi Samman awards in New Delhi. Background:- Rural Development and Panchayati Raj Minister stated this event is extremely significant for Revenue and Registration functionaries of the State, who would receive the “Bhoomi Samman” for the first time in the last 75 years for their outstanding performance. He further said that the “Bhoomi Samman” Scheme is a fine example of Centre-State cooperative federalism based on trust and partnership. About Bhoomi Samman 2023:- Launched: 2023. Presented by: President of India. Presented at: Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Rural Development. Selection Process:- The grading has been done on the basis of the performance of Districts as reflected in the Management Information System (MIS) of the Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP) and as reported by the State/UT Governments. (UPSC CSE: SVAMITVA Scheme) Platinum Grading is given to the Districts which have completed saturation i.e. 100% targets in the respective core components of DILRMP. (UPSC CSE: Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) scheme) Nine State Secretaries and 68 District Collectors of the various Districts will be presented with “Bhoomi Samman” recognizing their efforts in achieving outstanding performances.  MUST READ: Revised Rural Area Development Plan Formulation and Implementation (RADPFI) Guidelines SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: India accounts for 3·2% of the global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Local Currency Settlement (LCS) system Syllabus Prelims –International Relations/Economy Context: Recently, India and UAE signed a historic Memorandum of Understanding on Local Currency Settlement (LCS) system. Background:- The agreement was signed between the Reserve Bank of India and the Central Bank of the UAE. Objective: to revolutionize cross-border transactions between the two nations. About Local Currency Settlement (LCS) system:- IMAGE SOURCE: blogspot.com The Local Currency Settlement (LCS) system enables exporters and importers to invoice and pay in their respective domestic currencies. The LCS system between India and UAE allows for the use of the Indian Rupee and UAE Dirham in bilateral trade. It is India’s first-ever LCS arrangement. This innovative system is expected to have a transformative impact on transaction costs and processing time. It is anticipated to have a ripple effect on global economic engagements, encouraging

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Export Preparedness Index 2022 report Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, NITI Aayog released the Export Preparedness Index 2022 report. About Export Preparedness Index 2022 report:- Released by: Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog. This is the third edition of the Export Preparedness Index (EPI). EPI is a comprehensive tool which measures the export preparedness of the States and UTs in India. (UPSC CSE: Export Preparedness Index 2021) Objectives of the report:– To present a comprehensive picture of a state’s and UT’s export preparedness. To highlight the achievements of states/UTs and encourage peer learning among the states/UTs. To uphold the spirit of competitive federalism. Assessment Process:- EPI assess the performance of the States and UTs across four pillars – Policy, Business Ecosystem, Export Ecosystem, and Export Performance. Each pillar is composed of sub-pillars, which in turn capture a state’s performance using relevant indicators. Policy Pillar It evaluates states’ and UTs’ performance based on its adoption of export-related policy ecosystem at a state and district level as well as the institutional framework surrounding the ecosystem. Significance of the report:- It gives an overview of the country’s sector-specific export performance. It highlights the need to develop our districts as export hubs in the country and undertakes a district-level analysis of merchandise exports in the country. The index undertakes a comprehensive analysis of States and UTs across export-related parameters in order to identify their strengths and weaknesses. Key Highlights of Export Preparedness Index 2022 report:- The report discusses India’s export performance amid the prevailing global trade context in FY22. (UPSC CSE: Export Preparedness Index 2020) The coastal states have performed well. Top performers: Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Gujarat. The higher average of coastal states represents their better preparedness and higher contribution to national export. 73 per cent of districts in the country have an export action plan, and over 99 per cent are covered under the One District One Product scheme. One District One Product scheme: The initiative aims to select, brand, and promote at least One Product from each District (One District – One Product) of the country for enabling holistic socioeconomic growth across all regions. (UPSC CSE: One District One Product(ODOP)) It was launched by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries. 100 districts in the country are responsible for nearly 87 per cent of the country’s export. Lack of adequate transport connectivity: the report mentions that the absence of air connectivity hampers the movement of goods across regions especially in the landlocked states. Recommendations of the report:- For the states which are lagging in terms of export commission, the central government should extend support to enable them to build the necessary ecosystem to facilitate their export. Indian states need to invest in research and development for developing market-specific products and improving product quality. MUST READ: India’s Agricultural and processed food products exports SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: India accounts for 3·2% of the global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to (2023) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms · an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market. Employees’ State Insurance Scheme (ESIC) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: As per the recent data of the Employees’ State Insurance Scheme (ESIC), more than 20 lakh new employees enrolled in ESI Scheme in May. About Employees’ State Insurance Scheme (ESIC):- The Employees’ State Insurance Scheme (ESI)is an integrated measure of social Insurance embodied in the Employees’ State Insurance Act, of 1948. (UPSC CSE: ESIC) Implementing Agency: Employees’ State Insurance Corporation. Applicability of ESI Scheme:- It applies to factories and other establishments Road Transport, Hotels, Restaurants, Cinemas, Newspaper, Shops, and Educational/Medical Institutions wherein 10 or more persons are employed. However, in some States threshold limit for coverage of establishments is still Beneficiary Selection:- Employees of the aforesaid categories of factories and establishments, drawing wages up to Rs.15,000/- a month, are entitled to social security cover under the ESI Act. ESI Corporation has also decided to enhance the wage ceiling for coverage of employees under the ESI Act from Rs.15,000/- to Rs.21,000. Coverage of the ESI Scheme:- 1952: In the beginning, the ESI Scheme was implemented at just two industrial centers in the country, namely Kanpur and Delhi Funding of ESI Scheme:- The Employees’ State Insurance Scheme (ESI Scheme) is financed by contributions from employers and employees. The rate of contribution by employer is 3.25% of the wages payable to employees. The employees’ contribution is at the rate of 75% of the wages payable to an employee. Employees’ State Insurance Corporation Establishment: 1952. It is a state-run organization set up under the Employee State Insurance Act of 1948. Objective: It is responsible for overseeing the ESI plan. Ministry: The Ministry of Labour & Employment. HQ: New Delhi. Function: It provides socio-economic protection to the worker population and immediate dependent or family covered under the ESI scheme. MUST READ: Finding Unemployment Benefits SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments, and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (2022) Central Statistics Office Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade Labour Bureau National Technical Manpower Information System Q.2)  Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Veer Savarkar International Airport Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the integrated terminal building of Veer Savarkar International Airport, at Port Blair, Andaman &Nicobar. . About Veer Savarkar International Airport It is located 2 km south of Port Blair. It is the main airport of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands of India. In 2002, Port Blair Airport at Andaman and Nicobar’s Island was renamed after Veer Savarkar International Airport. The Airport’s architecture is inspired by nature. It features a shell-shaped architecture that depicts the sea and islands. The airport design was structured keeping in mind the ecological aspect of the island and some of the sustainability features. These include like a double insulated roofing system to reduce heat gain and skylights to provide maximum inlet of abundant natural sunlight during day time to reduce artificial light usage inside the building. It is a civil airport, and its facilities are shared with the Indian Navy. Administration: The terminal is managed by the Airports Authority of India, while the traffic is handled by the Indian Navy. (UPSC CSE: Reforms In Civil Aviation Industry) About Veer Savarkar He was a freedom fighter and politician. Born May 28, 1883. He was born in Maharashtra’s Nashik. Death: February 26, 1966. Savarkar entered the Hindu Mahasabha and popularized Chandranath Basu’s term Hindutva to establish a collective “Hindu” identity as an essence of Bharat (India). He coined the Hindu nationalist ideology of He founded the organizations Abhinav Bharat Society and Free India Society. Abhinav Bharat Society (Young India Society): it was an Indian Independence secret society founded by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar and his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar in The Free India Society: it was formed by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in London in 1906. He organized a youth group named ‘Mitra Mela’ in 1899. He was the president of Hindu Mahasabha from 1937 to 1943. He was the first to acknowledge the mutiny of 1857 as the first struggle for Independence. He wrote the book ‘The History of the War of Indian Independence’. He championed atheism and rationality and disapproved of orthodox Hindu belief. He even dismissed cow worship as superstitious. He created the Aryan Weekly, a handwritten weekly in which he published illuminating articles on patriotism, literature, history, and science. He was sentenced to 50 years in the cellular jail of Andamans for revolting against the Morley-Minto reforms (Indian Councils Act 1909) in 1911. He was a critic of the Indian National Congress and its acceptance of India’s partition and of Mahatma Gandhi. MUST READ: Kushinagar International Airport SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal, designated as the Governor General of India? (2023) The Regulating Act The Pitt’s India Act The Charter Act of 1793 The Charter Act of 1833 Q.2) Consider the following freedom fighters (2023) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The 19th session of the Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA) was held in Rome, Italy. About Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA):- Established in 1983. The Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA) is the only permanent intergovernmental body focused on conserving all types of biodiversity for food and agriculture. Members: The Commission consists of 179 Member States and the European Union. Membership of the Commission is open to all Members of FAO. (UPSC CSE: 42nd Session of FAO Conference) Objective: to promote international policies for the sustainable use and conservation of genetic resources for food and agriculture, while also ensuring that benefits derived from biodiversity are fairly and equitably shared. The Commission offers a unique platform for its members and other stakeholder to promote a world without hunger by fostering the use and development of the whole portfolio of biodiversity important to food security and rural poverty. The CGRFA meets regularly to address policies on genetic resources for food and agriculture.(UPSC CSE: – GM Crops and their regulation) 19th session of the CGRFA Venue: FAO headquarters in Rome, Italy.(UPSC CSE: Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Animal Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (WG AnGR)) Date: from 17 to 21 July 2023. Organized by: Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO). Focus areas: the state of the world’s forest and plant genetic resources, access and benefit-sharing policies, and biotechnologies for the conservation and sustainable use of genetic resources. The Commission will also discuss:- a Framework for Action on Biodiversity for Food and Agriculture. the role of genetic resources for food and agriculture in mitigation of and adaptation to climate change microorganism and invertebrate genetic resources, including pollinator and biological control agents MUST READ: Food Security in India SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: According to the United. Nations ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’, India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year. Statement-II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of the world’s population living in its territory. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) “The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) National Co-Operative Consumers Federation of India Limited (NCCF) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Department of Consumer Affairs directed the National CO-Operative Consumers Federation of India Limited (NCCF) and National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd (NAFED) to sell tomatoes at a retail price of 70 rupees per kg. Background:- The tomatoes procured by NCCF and NAFED had been retailed at 90 rupees per kg initially and then reduced to 80 rupees per kg from 16th July. The reduction to 70 rupees per kg will further benefit the consumers. About National Co-Operative Consumers Federation of India Limited (NCCF) Establishment: 1965. Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. HQ: New Delhi. NCCF is the apex body of consumer cooperatives in the country. (UPSC CSE: India’s Cooperative Sector) It is registered under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002. Shareholding: Government of India owns 42%. Objectives of NCCF:- Render technical guidance and assistance to improve and increase their operation and management efficiency. Create and promote the formation of cadres of employees. Hold seminars, conferences, and meetings and undertake publicity, propaganda and similar other activities. Establish trade connections with manufacturers, their authorized distributors and suppliers/dealers including Government agencies and cooperative organizations. Import and export of agricultural commodities. Collect and disseminate necessary marketing intelligence for the benefit of its member institutions. Establish testing laboratories for testing consumer goods. To act as agents of Central/State Government or undertaking/corporation or cooperative institutions or any business enterprises for the purpose of sale, storage and distribution of consumer goods approved by the Board of Directors from time to time entrusted by Central/State Governments. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd (NAFED) Establishment: 1958. (UPSC CSE: NAFED) Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. HQ: New Delhi. It is an apex organization of marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce in India. It is registered under the Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002. Objectives: to promote Cooperative marketing of agricultural produce to benefit the farmers. Agricultural farmers are the main members of NAFED. They have the authority to say in the form of members of the General Body in the working of NAFED. MUST READ: Primary agricultural credit societies (PACS) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) India has more arable area than China. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China: How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? (2020) Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Social Capital Development Free electricity supply to farmers Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system Setting up cold storage facilities by the governments. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 5 only 1, 3, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, and 6 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Black Sea Grain initiative Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, India has voiced support for the UN’s efforts in continuing the Black Sea Grain initiative. Background:- India’s reaction came after Russia announced it was terminating the implementation of the UN-brokered deal that allowed the export of grain and related foodstuffs and fertilizers from Ukrainian ports. About the Black Sea Grain initiative:- IMAGE SOURCE: UN Signed in 2022. (UPSC CSE: Black Sea Grain Initiative) Signed at Istanbul. The deal, brokered by the United Nations (UN) and Turkey. Objective: to limit food price inflation emanating from supply chain disruptions because of Russian actions in the world’s ‘breadbasket’ by ensuring an adequate supply of grains. Time Period: Initially it was stipulated for a period of 120 days. It was to provide a safe maritime humanitarian corridor for the Ukrainian export of food grains. Need for the deal:- Ukraine is one of the world’s largest grain exporters. However, since Russia invaded Ukraine, exports of grain, food and fertilizers from both countries have been significantly hit. (UPSC CSE: Russia-Ukraine War.) The disruption in supplies resulted in rising prices. This added to the burden of an already existing food crisis in some countries. In a bid to address this crisis and ensure the smooth movement of supplies amidst the ongoing war, the United Nations and Turkey brokered the Black Sea Grain Initiative on 22 July 2022. The central idea was to calm markets by ensuring an adequate supply of grains, thereby limiting food price inflation. About the Black Sea:- IMAGE SOURCE: Britannica Location: between Eastern Europe and Western Asia in the Atlantic Ocean. Major rivers: Danube, Dnieper, and Don. Bordering countries: Bulgaria, Georgia, Romania, Russia, Turkey, and Ukraine. Important water bodies around the Black Sea:- The Black Sea ultimately drains into the Mediterranean Sea via the Turkish Straits and the Aegean Sea. Bosporus Strait: connects the Black Sea to the Sea of Marmara. Strait of the Dardanelles: connects the Sea of Marmara to the Aegean Sea. Kerch Strait: connects the Black Sea to the Sea of Azov. MUST READ: Loss of the ‘Moskva’ & Black Sea SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2023) Bulgaria Czech Republic Hungary Latvia Lithuania Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q.2) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores The region along North African shores stretches from Egypt to Morocco The region along the Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa The entire coastal areas of the Mediterranean Sea Index of Industrial Production (IIP) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recent reports show that the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) grew by 5.2 per cent in May 2023 from 4.2 per

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Prime Minister Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, a review meeting on the Prime Minister Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) scheme was held. Background:- The Secretary, of the Department of Financial Services exhorted the banks to expeditiously clear the sanction and disbursement pendency of applications. He further urged banks to devise a strategy and step up the efforts to increase the digital onboarding of street vendors and scale up their digital payments. About PM SVANidhi scheme:- IMAGE SOURCE: makspay.com Launched in 2020. (UPSC CSE: PM SVANidhi scheme) Ministry: Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs. Implementation agency: Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). Objective: Providing affordable Working Capital loans to street vendors to resume their livelihoods that have been adversely affected due to the Covid-19 lockdown. The scheme intends to facilitate collateral-free working capital loans of up to INR10,000/- of one-year tenure, to approximately 50 lakh street vendors. It is a Central Sector Scheme. Central sector schemes: schemes with 100% funding by the Central government and implemented by the Central Government machinery. Duration of the scheme: The duration of the scheme initially was until March 2022. It has been extended till December 2024.  Features of the scheme:- Loan limit: Vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to Rs. 10,000.This loan is repayable in monthly instalments for the tenure of one year. No collateral is required to avail of the loan. Processing fee: There is no processing fee to apply for the scheme, making it cost-effective for street vendors. Loan repayment period: one year. Interest subsidy: On timely/ early repayment of the loan, an interest subsidy @ 7% per annum. It will be credited to the bank accounts of beneficiaries through Direct Benefit Transfers on a quarterly basis.  Eligibility Criteria:- The eligible vendors are identified as per the following criteria:- Certificate of Vending/Identity Card: Street vendors in possession of a Certificate of Vending/Identity Card issued by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs). The vendors, who have been identified in the survey but have not been issued a Certificate of Vending/Identity Card; Provisional Certificate of Vending would be generated for such vendors through an IT-based Platform. Urban Local Bodies(ULBs) are encouraged to issue such vendors the permanent Certificate of Vending and Identification Card immediately and positively within a period of one month Letter of Recommendation: Street Vendors, left out of the ULB-led identification survey or who have started vending after completion of the survey and have been issued a Letter of Recommendation (LoR) to that effect by the ULB/Town Vending Committee (TVC). Advantages of the scheme:- The scheme promotes digital transactions through cash-back incentives up to an amount of Rs. 100 per month. The scheme encourages entrepreneurship. It also helps to create employment opportunities. (UPSC CSE: Programme of Socio-Economic Profiling of PM SVANidhi launched) MUST READ: SVANidhi se Samriddhi program SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Government set the target for building more than one crore houses by the end of 2024 under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) About Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U):- Launched in 2015. (UPSC CSE: PMAY-U) Ministry: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). Objective: to improve the affordability of land and property amidst the continuous surge in prices. It is a Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS) and is also known by the name “Housing for All by 2022″. Individuals availing loans to buy residential property or land or to construct homes would be eligible for interest subsidies on the said credit. Eligibility under the scheme:- Economically Weaker Section (EWS): households with annual income up to ₹ 3, 00,000. Low-Income Group (LIG): households with annual income between ₹ 3, 00,001 and ₹ 6, 00,000. Middle Income Group-1 (MIG-1): households with annual income between ₹ 6, 00,001 and ₹ 12, 00,000. Middle Income Group-2 (MIG-2): households with annual income between ₹ 12, 00,001 and ₹ 18, 00,000. The applicant or his/her family members must not own a pucca house in any part of the country. The town/city in which the family resides must be covered under the scheme. The family MUST NOT have previously availed the benefits of any housing-related schemes set up by the Government of India. Benefits under the scheme:- Slum rehabilitation: of eligible Slum Dwellers with the participation of private developers using land as a resource. Promotion of Affordable Housing: through Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS). Affordable Housing in Partnership with Public & Private Sectors: Central Assistance per EWS house in projects where 35% of houses are for EWSs. Subsidy for Beneficiary-Led individual house construction /enhancement: For individuals of the EWS category requiring individual houses (separate project for such beneficiaries) MUST READ: Affordable Rental Housing Complexes (ARHCs) as a sub-scheme of Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI