June 19, 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Assam Rifles Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: In recent times, the Assam Rifles personnel have been facing increased hostility in Manipur. Background:- Normally, there are 20 battalions of the Assam Rifles in Manipur, with the primary mandate of counter-insurgency and border guarding. Since ethnic violence erupted in the state on May 3, 2023, two more battalions were moved in. Due to being tasked with manning “buffer zones” between Meitei- and Kuki-Zomi-dominated territories in Manipur, the Assam Rifles has been facing heat from the Meiteis, with some even demanding its removal from the state. About Assam Rifles:- Establishment:1835. Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs. It is a Central Paramilitary Force under the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF). CAPF: the collective name of central police organizations in India under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). It includes 7 forces: Assam Rifles (AR), Border Security Force (BSF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) and National Security Guard (NSG). Assam Rifles is the oldest Central Para Military Force in India. Historical Background:- The Assam Rifles was set up as Cachar Levy in 1835 to protect British Tea estates and their settlements against tribal raids. Post-Independence, role of the Assam Rifles continued to evolve ranging from:- Conventional combat role: during Sino-India War in 1962 Operating in a foreign land: as part of the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) to Sri Lanka in 1987 (Op Pawan) Peacekeeping role: in the North-Eastern areas of India. Structure of Assam Rifles:- The Force is commanded by an officer of the rank of Lieutenant General of the Army. (UPSC CSE: Administration of Assam Rifles) HQ Directorate General of Assam Rifles: Shillong. MUST READ: Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Renaming Kerala Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: The Kerala Assembly has passed the resolution to rename state as Keralam. Background:- The resolution, moved by Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan, was passed unanimously, with the Congress-led Opposition not suggesting any changes. Formation of Kerala:- 1949: Travancore and Kochi was merged, forming the Travancore-Cochin State. ( Integration of the princely states) State Reorganization Commission recommended the creation of Kerala as a state for Malayalam-speaking people. The state of Kerala came into being on November 1, 1956. In Malayalam, the state was referred to as Keralam, while in English it was Kerala. Origin of the name:- There are several theories about the origin of the name ‘Kerala’. Earliest epigraphic record: Asoka’s Rock Edict II of 257 BC. The inscription refers to the local ruler as Keralaputra (Sanskrit for “son of Kerala”), and also “son of Chera” referring to the Chera dynasty. About ‘Keralam’, scholars believe it could have originated from ‘Cheram’. Significance of the name: ‘Keralam’ aligns more closely with the native pronunciation, historical roots, and cultural identity of the region’s people. Process to rename a state in India:- The proposal has to first come from the state government. Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) Approval: The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) then takes over and gives its consent after it receives No Objection Certificates (NOCs) from several agencies. These agencies include the Ministry of Railways, Intelligence Bureau, Department of Posts, Survey of India, and Registrar General of India. Parliamentary proceedings: If the MHA finds the proposal acceptable and all the necessary NOCs are obtained, a Constitutional amendment bill is initiated. The Bill goes through the usual legislative process in both the Lok Sabha (Lower House) and the Rajya Sabha (Upper House). The Bill requires a simple majority to be passed in each house. After it is passed by both houses if the President gives his assent, the Bill becomes law. Implementation: With the President’s assent, the name change becomes official and the name of the state is changed thereafter. Constitutional provisions for renaming a State:- The renaming of an existing state requires Parliamentary approval under Articles 3 of the Constitution. Introduction: A bill for renaming a state may be introduced in the Parliament on the recommendation of the President State assembly consultation: Before the introduction of the bill, the President shall send the bill to the respective state assembly for expressing their views within a stipulated time. The views of the state assembly are not binding, neither on the President nor on the Parliament. Parliamentary approval: On the expiry of the period, the bill will be sent to the Parliament for deliberation. The bill in order to take the force of a law must be passed by a simple majority. Presidential Approval: The bill is sent for approval to the President. After the approval of the said bill, the bill becomes a law and the name of the state stands modified. MUST READ: Asymmetrical federalism SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Steel Authority of India (SAIL) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The Steel Authority of India (SAIL) has registered a growth of 8 percent in Crude Steel Production and 23 percent in Sales Volumes over the corresponding last year (2022). Background:- This is its best-ever performance in Crude Steel Production and Sales. It added that its turnover has increased by just one percent due to a decline in price realization, irrespective of the increase in the prices. About the Steel Authority of India (SAIL):- Establishment: Ministry: Ministry of Steel and Mines. HQ: New Delhi. Vision: To be the leader in the Indian steel business in quality, productivity, profitability, and customer satisfaction. Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) is one of the largest steel-making companies in India. (PLI Scheme For Specialty Steel) It is one of the Maharatnas of the country’s Central Public Sector Enterprises. Maharatnas : it is a category of Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) that meets certain operational and financial eligibility such as average annual turnover, annual net worth, and net profit after tax. Ownership and Management of SAIL:- The Government of India owns about 65% of SAIL’s equity and retains voting control of the Company. However, SAIL, by virtue of its ‘Maharatna’ status, enjoys significant operational and financial autonomy. Functions of SAIL:- It produces iron and steel at five integrated plants and three special steel plants. It manufactures and sells a broad range of steel products. It handles Strategically Located Integrated Operations with Access to Resource Base Including Large Landbank, Captive Mines. It has an in-house R&D centre, a centre for engineering & technology, and captive engineering shops for Research and Development. Integrated Steel Plants of SAIL:- Bhilai Steel Plant: Chhattisgarh  ( Integrated Steel Hub) Durgapur Steel Plant: West Bengal   Rourkela Steel Plant: Odisha Bokaro Steel Plant: Jharkhand      IISCO Steel Plant: West Bengal   MUST READ: Report SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following minerals: (2020) Bentonite Chromite Kyanite Sillimanite In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2, 3, and 4 only Q.2) Steel slag can be the material for which of the following? (2020) Construction of base road Improvement of agricultural soil Production of cement Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the government said that it has disbursed 2,900 crore rupees till March 2023, under the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme. About Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme:- Launched:2020. To enhance India’s Manufacturing capabilities and Exports, Union Budget 2021-22 announced the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for 13 key sectors. Objectives of the PLI scheme:- To boost domestic manufacturing and cut down on import bills. Introduce non-tariff measures that make imports more expensive. Promote domestic manufacturing by offering production incentives. Attract core knowledge competency and cutting-edge technologies. Promote job generation and employment. Construct district-level export hubs. Salient Features of the PLI Scheme:- Incentives: incentive of 4% to 6% on incremental sales (over base year) of goods manufactured in India and covered under target segments, to eligible companies. Time Period: incentives will be available for a period of five (5) years. Base year for the calculation of incentives: (FY) 2019-20. The Scheme will be implemented through a Nodal Agency which shall act as a Project Management Agency (PMA). Eligibility:- All manufacturing companies which are either Indian or have a registered unit in India will be eligible to apply for the scheme. These companies can either create a new unit or seek incentives for their existing units from one or more locations in India. Exception: all investments done by companies on land and buildings for the project will not be considered for any incentives or determine eligibility of the scheme. Sectors under PLI Scheme:- Mobile Manufacturing and Specified Electronic Components (Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) For Large Scale Electronics Manufacturing) Critical Key Starting materials/Drug Intermediaries & Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients Manufacturing of Medical Devices Automobiles and Auto Components Pharmaceuticals Drugs Specialty Steel Telecom & Networking Products Electronic/Technology Products ( Production Linked Incentive scheme (PLI) for IT Hardware) White Goods (ACs and LEDs) Food Products Textile Products: MMF segment and technical textiles (Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Textiles) High-efficiency solar PV modules Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) Battery Drones and Drone Components Benefits of the PLI Scheme:- Boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in the electronics value chain. Encourage local companies to set up or expand existing manufacturing units. Inviting foreign companies to set up shops in India. Target labor-intensive sectors in the hope to create new jobs in India. MUST READ: Production Linked Incentives in Key Sectors SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? (2022) Farmers harvesting their crops Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics A commercial bank lending money to a trading company A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Increase in the number of Elephants Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent estimates suggest that the number of elephants in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu has increased. Background:- Karnataka’s elephants increased from 6,049 in 2017 to 6,395 in 2023, the reports showed. In Tamil Nadu, there was a rise to 2,961 in 2023 from 2,761 in 2017. Meanwhile, in Kerala, the

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, Union Home Minister Amit Shah hailed the team of National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS) of National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) for winning the Gold Award. Background:- NAFIS won the Gold Award under the Excellence in Government Process Reengineering for Digital Transformation Category-1 of the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG). About National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS) Managed by: National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) at the Central fingerprint bureau, based in New Delhi. Objective: to collect fingerprint data of all the criminals from all the states and the Union Territories. It is a web-based application project. ( NAFIS) It is a country-wide searchable database of crime- and criminal-related fingerprints. Working of NAFIS:- NAFIS assigns a unique 10-digit National Fingerprint Number (NFN) to each person arrested for a crime. This unique ID will be used for the person’s lifetime, and different crimes registered under different FIRs will be linked to the same NFN. Uses:- It enables law enforcement agencies to upload, trace, and retrieve data from the database in real-time on a 24×7 basis. It would help in the quick and easy disposal of cases with the help of a centralized fingerprint database. National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) Established: 1986. HQ: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs. Objective: To function as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators. It was set up based on the recommendations of the National Police Commission (1977-1981) and the MHA’s Task Force (1985). Important publications of NCRB:- Accidental Deaths & Suicides in India. (NCRB Report ) Prison Statistics India. Fingerprints in India. (Facial recognition technology) Report on missing women and children in India. MUST READ: NATGRID and NCRB SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? (2020) Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units Create meaningful short stories and songs Disease diagnosis Text-to-speech conversion Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 3, and 5 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2, 4, and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of (2020) Digital security infrastructure Food security infrastructure Health care and education infrastructure Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure Luna 25 mission Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Luna 25 mission was launched by Russia. Background:- Russia launched its first mission to the surface of the Moon in nearly half a century, in a bid to be the first country to land on the lunar south pole. About Luna 25 mission:- IMAGE SOURCE: iki.rssi.ru Launched: 2023. Launched by: Roscosmos. Roscosmos: the State Space Corporation of Russia that is responsible for space flights, aerospace research, and cosmonautics programmes. Take off: Vostochny cosmodrome, Russia. Landing Site: southwest of the Manzini crater. It is also called the Luna-Glob-Lander. It is a Russian lunar lander mission. It is to carry thirty kilo grams of scientific instruments including a robotic arm and drilling hardware to collect soil samples. It will study the south pole of the moon. ( Moon’s Wobble Effect) Objectives of Luna 25 mission:- To study the composition of the polar regolith. To study the plasma and dust components of the lunar polar exosphere. MUST READ: Supermoon SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6, and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on it. Nagzira National Park Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a two-year-old female tiger from Nagzira National Park, was killed after being run over by a speeding car. About Nagzira National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: toptourguide.com Location: Gondia and Shandara Districts of Maharashtra. It has connectivity with the major tiger reserves in Central India like, Kanha and Pench tiger reserve in Madhya Pradesh, Tadoba-Andhari Tiger reserve in Maharashtra, etc. Topography: The landscape of Navegaon Nagzira National Park is characterized by undulating terrain with gentle hills and valleys. Water bodies: The prominent water bodies within the national park include Navegaon Lake, Nagzira Lake, and the Itiadoh Dam. Climate: It experiences a tropical monsoon climate. Vegetation: Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest which includes dry mixed forests to moist forest type. Flora: Terminalia tomentosa, Lagerstroemia parviflora, Anogeisus lotifolia, Pterocarpus marsupium, Diospyrus melanoxylon, etc. Fauna: Tiger, Panther, Small Indian Civet, Palm Civet, Wolf, Jackal, Wild Dog, Sloth Bear Flying Squirrel, Gaur, Sambar, etc. Timeline:- 1970: It was declared a Wildlife Sanctuary. ( Navegaon-Nagzira Tiger Reserve) 2012: the state government announced to merging this sanctuary with another national park to include in Tiger Project. 2013: It was notified as 46th tiger reserve of India. Other Tiger Reserves in Maharashtra:- Melghat Tiger reserve (1974) Tadoba Tiger Reserve (1993) Pench Tiger

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Gallantry awards Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: President Droupadi Murmu approved 76 Gallantry awards on the eve of Independence Day. Background:- These include four Kirti Chakra, all posthumous, 11 Shaurya Chakras, including five posthumous, two Bar to Sena Medals (Gallantry), 52 Sena Medals (Gallantry), three Nao Sena Medals (Gallantry) and four Vayu Sena Medals (Gallantry). About Gallantry Awards:- These gallantry awards are announced twice a year. The first on the occasion of Republic Day and then on the occasion of Independence Day. Order of precedence: Param Vir Chakra, the Ashoka Chakra, the Mahavir Chakra, the Kirti Chakra, the Vir Chakra, and the Shaurya Chakra. All the gallantry awards may be awarded posthumously. Historical Background:- Post-independence, the first three gallantry awards namely Param Vir Chakra, Maha Vir Chakra, and Vir Chakra. They were instituted by the Government of India on 26th January 1950. Thereafter, other three gallantry awardse. Ashoka Chakra Class-I, Ashoka Chakra Class-II, and Ashoka Chakra Class-III were instituted by the Government of India on 4th January 1952. These awards were renamed Ashoka Chakra, Kirti Chakra, and Shaurya Chakra respectively in January 1967. MUST READ: Padma awards SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Bindeshwar Pathak Syllabus Prelims – Important Personalities Context: The founder of ‘Sulabh International’ Bindeshwar Pathak passed away. He was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 1991. About Sulabh International:- Founded: 1970. Founded by: Dr Bindeshwar Pathak. HQ: New Delhi. Objectives: to achieve equitable sanitation and hygiene for all. It has been at the forefront of the Government of India’s flagship Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (Clean India Campaign) with a focus on ending open defecation. It stresses adopting a gender-inclusive approach in its intervention programmes. It has been awarded the Gandhi Peace Prize for 2016. ‘SULABH MUSEUM OF TOILETS’, was rated by Time magazine as One of the 10 unique museums in the world. Areas of Functioning:- Equitable sanitation (Preventive Measures for Manual Scavenging) Rural sanitation Urban Sanitation Water for all Community toilets in slums (Stop Manual Scavenging) Fecal sludge Management Awareness and advocacy Ensuring the Dignity of Manual Scavengers MUST READ: Manual Scavenging in India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution: (2023) Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution. There is no known ·safe level of exposure to mercury. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)? (2022) CCO is the major source of coal Statistics in the Government of India. It monitors the progress of the development of Captive Coal/ Lignite blocks. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to the acquisition of coal-bearing areas. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 4 Rashtrapati Bhavan Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: On the occasion of 77th Independence Day, President Droupadi Murmu on August 15 hosted ‘At Home’ reception at Rashtrapati Bhavan in Delhi. About Rashtrapati Bhavan:- Location: on Rajpath, New Delhi, India. It is situated on Raisina Hill. Designed by: Sir Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker. Built in 1929. The Rashtrapati Bhavan (‘Presidential Palace’) is the official residence of the President of India. This presidential residence took seventeen years to build and was finished in 1929. The presidential office, guest rooms, and staff rooms are among the more than 300 rooms. It employs 750 people, including 245 working in the President’s Secretariat. The King George V’s silver chair, can be found at the Gift Museum of Rashtrapati Bhavan, where he sat at the Delhi Durbar in 1911. The Ashoka Hall of Rashtrapati Bhavan is used for ceremonial functions such as the swearing-in of Ministers. Rashtrapati Bhavan Museum It is a world-class museum inside the Bhavan with a high-tech story-telling format. It is a contextual narrative woven around original exhibits. Rashtrapati Bhavan Mughal Garden The designs for the Mughal Gardens were created by Sir Edwin Lutyens as early as 1917. MUST READ: C.Rajagopalachari (1878-1972) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora River. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal River. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari River. Tampara Lake Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology/Geography Context: National Green Tribunal (NGT) has asked the Odisha government to stop ‘illegal’ construction in and around Tampara Lake. Background:- The National Green Tribunal, Eastern Zone, has directed the Odisha government not to go ahead with ‘illegal’ construction in and around Tampara Lake, a designated Ramasar site and one of the largest picturesque freshwater lakes of the State. ( NGT) About Tampara Lake:- Location: Ganjam district, Odisha. Formed: 1766. Formation:

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Atal Bihari Vajpayee Syllabus Prelims –Important Personalities Context: Recently, the Vice President of India paid homage to Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee on his Punya Tithi on 16th August. About Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee:- He was Prime Minister thrice in 1996, 1998-1999, and 1999-2004. Birth: 25, December 1924. Born in Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh. Death:16, August 2018. Sadaiv Atal: the Samadhi of Atal Bihari Vajpayee. Political Career:- He was the first non-Congress PM to have finished a full term. He was elected 10 times to the Lok Sabha from four different States. He was twice a member of the Rajya Sabha. His birthday, December 25, is observed as Good Governance Day by the government. Awards:- 2015: He was awarded India’s highest civilian honor, Bharat Ratna. 1992: He was also awarded Padma Vibhushan. (Padma awards) Ideology:- He advocated and practiced positive nationalism. He proudly took Hindi to the UN first time and spoke it in the General Assembly. Important Initiatives:- He conducted the nuclear test in Pokhran in 1998. He himself rode a bus to Lahore in 1999 for Indo-Pak peace. He initiated the Delhi Metro rail as a mass transit system. He brought in National Highway Development Project leading to East West North South Corridor or the Golden Quadrilateral. He envisaged and executed the first round of Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana which connected rural India greatly. The New Telecom Policy of 1999 brought in by him was also a crucial part of the Indian telecom revolution.  Flagship Policy Initiatives:- Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan: Launched in 2000-2001 to provide free and compulsory education to children between 6 to 14 years. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana: it was launched on 25th December 2000 to provide all-weather access to unconnected habitations. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas: these conventions are being held every year since 2003.  MUST READ: Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyay SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The world’s second tallest statue in the sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja? (2022) The best means of salvation was devotion. Vedas are eternal, self-existent, and wholly authoritative. Logical arguments were meant for the highest bliss. Salvation was to be obtained through meditation. Q.2) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only PM Vishwakarma scheme Syllabus Prelims –Government Schemes Context: Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the ‘PM Vishwakarma’ scheme. Background:- The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi approved a new Central Sector Scheme “PM Vishwakarma” with a financial outlay of Rs.13,000 crore for a period of five years (FY 2023-24 to FY 2027-28). About PM Vishwakarma scheme:- IMAGE SOURCE: oneindia.com Launched: 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME). It is a Central Sector Scheme. Objectives of PM Vishwakarma scheme:- To strengthen and nurture the Guru-Shishya parampara or family-based practice of traditional skills by artisans and craftspeople working with their hands and tools. To improve the quality, as well as the reach of products and services of artisans and craftspeople. To ensure that the Vishwakarmas are integrated with the domestic and global value chains. Salient Features of PM Vishwakarma scheme:- The artisans and craftspeople will be provided recognition through a PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card. Credit Support: Credit of up to Rs.1 lakh (First Tranche) and Rs.2 lakh (Second Tranche) will be given with a concessional interest rate of 5%. Skill learning: The Scheme will further provide Skill Upgradation, Toolkit Incentives, Incentives for Digital Transactions, and Marketing Support. Training: Skill development programs encompass both basic and advanced training. Stipend: Participants are entitled to a stipend of Rs 500 per day during their training period. Modern Tools and Equipment: Beneficiaries are eligible for financial support of up to ₹15,000 to procure modern tools, enhancing their efficiency and productivity. Sectors: Eighteen traditional trades will be covered in the first instance under PM Vishwakarma. These trades include (i) Carpenter (Suthar); (ii) Boat Maker; (iii) Armourer; (iv) Blacksmith (Lohar); (v) Hammer and Tool Kit Maker; (vi) Locksmith; (vii) Goldsmith (Sonar); (viii) Potter (Kumhaar); (ix) Sculptor (Moortikar, stone carver), Stone breaker; (x) Cobbler(Charmkar)/ Shoesmith/Footwear artisan; (xi) Mason (Rajmistri); (xii) Basket/Mat/Broom Maker/Coir Weaver; (xiii) Doll & Toy Maker (Traditional); (xiv) Barber (Naai); (xv) Garland maker (Malakaar); (xvi) Washerman (Dhobi); (xvii) Tailor (Darzi); and (xviii) Fishing Net Maker. Eligibility Criteria: – Indian Citizenship: Applicants must be Indian. Artisan or Craftsman: The applicant should be a traditional artisan or craftsman. Age Limit: No Age Limit for applying to the scheme Benefits of PM Vishwakarma scheme:- The scheme will provide support to artisans and craftspeople in rural and urban areas across India. It caters to both urban and rural areas, facilitating employment. (MSME Sustainable (ZED) Certification Scheme) Funding for training programs to enhance traditional skills. MUST READ: PM SVANidhi scheme SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) INS Visakhapatnam & INS Deepak Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: Recently, the Indian Naval Ships INS Visakhapatnam & INS Deepak made a port call in Bahrain. Background:- Indian naval ships’ port call in Bahrain will further strengthen the ties between the two nations. About INS Visakhapatnam:- Commissioned: November 21, 2021. Propulsion: It is propelled by four Gas Turbines, in a Combined Gas and Gas (COGAG) configuration. Speed: It is capable of achieving speeds in excess of 30 knots. It is the lead ship of the P15B class of guided missile stealth destroyers. P15B class: These ships are amongst the most technologically advanced Guided Missile Destroyers in the world. They are equipped with BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles and long-range Surface-to-Air Missiles (SAM). It is one of the largest destroyers in Indian Navy service. Visakhapatnam class ships are follow-on of the Kolkata class destroyers (P-15A). About INS Deepak:- Commissioned:2011 Speed: maximum speed of 20 knots. The ship has state -of -the art aviation facilities. It can operate various types of helicopters from its deck including the Seeking and the indigenously manufactured ALH. (SLBM launch by INS Arihant) MUST READ: INS Mormugao SOURCE: NEWSONAIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (2016) Amphibious warfare ship Nuclear-powered submarine Torpedo launch and recovery vessel Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier Q.2) With reference to the Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (2014) It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver a one-tonne nuclear warhead about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Graphene-Aurora Program Syllabus Prelims – Science and technology Context: Recently, the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY) launched the ‘Graphene-Aurora program’ at a function in Maker Village Kochi, Kerala. About Graphene-Aurora Program:- Launched:2023. Ministry: Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY). Objectives: fostering innovation and commercialization of graphene technologies in Kerala. Salient Features of the Graphene-Aurora Program:- It shall nurture the deep/emerging Graphene technology & innovation ecosystem. It will guide, develop, implement, and support SMEs and startups to commercialize developed graphene technologies for scale adoption. A not for profit company called ‘India Graphene Engineering and Innovation Centre (I-GEIC)’ shall be set up. I-GEIC’s establishment will bridge the gap between research and commercialization, supporting startups and industries. The program’s focus on emerging graphene technology is expected to position India as a leader in the global new materials market. Funding: The program shall be implemented by Digital University Kerala with joint funding from MeitY, the Government of Kerala, and Industry partners. About Graphene It is a single layer (monolayer) of carbon atoms. It is the world’s thinnest, strongest, and most conductive material of both electricity and heat. Properties: High thermal stability; High elasticity; High electrical conductivity; etc. It conducts electricity better than copper. Uses of Graphene:- Graphene’s unique characteristics make it a versatile material with various potential applications across different industries. It is used in electronics for creating faster and more efficient devices. (Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) For Large Scale Electronics Manufacturing) It is used in materials science for reinforcing composites. It is used in energy storage for enhancing battery performance. It is used in medical fields for drug delivery and biosensors, among other uses. (Graphene Mask Inactivates Coronaviruses) MUST READ: Silicon Diplomacy SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022) Cloud Services Quantum Computing Visible Light Communication Technologies Wireless Communication Technologies Q.2) Consider the following communication technologies: (2022) Closed-circuit Television Radio Frequency Identification Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies? 1 and 2 only. 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 PM e-bus Sewa scheme Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the PM e-bus Sewa scheme. Background:- The scheme will add 10,000 e-buses to city bus services across the country. About PM e-bus Sewa scheme:- Launched: 2023. (Electric Vehicles (EVs)) Objectives: enhancing urban bus operations with 10,000 electric buses on a Public Private Partnership (PPP) model. Salient Features of PM e-bus Sewa scheme:- Under PM-eBus Sewa Scheme 10,000 e-buses will be deployed across cities in the country. The scheme will cover cities of Three lakh and above population as per census 2011. This will include all the Capital cities of Union Territories, North Eastern Region, and Hill States. Under this scheme, priority will be given to cities having no organized bus service. The Scheme has two segments: Segment A – Augmenting the City bus services:(169 cities) The approved bus scheme will augment city bus operations with 10,000 e-buses on Public Private Partnership (PPP) model. PPP mode: an arrangement between government and private sector for the provision of public assets and/or public services. Segment B– Green Urban Mobility Initiatives (GUMI): (181 cities) The scheme envisages green initiatives like bus priority, infrastructure, multimodal interchange facilities, Charging infrastructure, etc. Support for Operation: Under the scheme, States/Cities shall be responsible for running the bus services and making payments to the bus operators. The Central Government will support these bus operations by providing subsidies to the extent specified in the proposed scheme. Funding: It has been allocated a total funding of Rs 57,613 crore. Out of this financial provision, the central government will contribute Rs 20,000 crore, while the remaining portion will be covered by the state governments. Coverage: The scheme will cover cities with 3 lakhs and above population and priority will be given to cities not having organized bus services. Benefits of PM e-bus Sewa scheme:- The scheme will promote e-mobility. (Challenges of Electric Vehicles) Cities will be supported for the development of charging infrastructure under Green Urban Mobility Initiatives. Adoption of Electric mobility will reduce noise and air pollution and curb carbon emission.  MUST READ: Hybrid Electric Vehicles (HEV)

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) COVID-19 variant EG.5.1 Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, doctors have urged people to stay vigilant against COVID-19 variant EG.5.1. Background:- On August 9, the World Health Organization (WHO) designated the latest COVID variant, EG.5.1, unofficially known as, Eris, as a variant of interest. The overall risk evaluation by WHO places this variant at a low level. About COVID-19 variant EG.5.1.:- Other name: First documented: February 17, 2023. Origin: The majority of these sequences originated from China, followed by the United States of America, the Republic of Korea, Japan, Canada, and Australia. It is a descendant of Omicron. It is a descendant of the XBB 1.9.2 variant sharing a similar spike amino acid profile with XBB 1.5. 5 carries an additional F456L amino acid mutation in the spike protein, compared to the parent XBB.1.9.2 subvariant and XBB.1.5. Spread: According to the WHO, infections have been reported in 51 countries, including China, the US, the Republic of Korea, Japan, etc. MUST READ: iNCOVACC SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN Digi Locker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3, and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Sulina Channel Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recently, the Sulina Channel has provided Ukraine with an alternative trade route for its grain after Russia withdrew from the Black Sea grain deal. Background:- Russia, targeted ports and grain storage facilities along the Danube River in Ukraine in overnight drone strikes on August 16, 2023. Russia also withdrew from the Black Sea grain deal in July 2023. Amidst this, the Danube Delta has provided Ukraine with an alternative passage in the form of the Sulina Channel to help secure its grain requirements. About Sulina Channel:- IMAGE SOURCE: intechopen.com Location Southeastern part of Romania. Length: approximately 64 km long. It connects the Danube River, with the Black Sea. (Loss of the ‘Moskva’ & Black Sea) It provides a direct route for maritime transportation Historical Background:- The construction of the Sulina Channel dates back to the 19th century. It was developed to improve the navigation of large ships and vessels in and out of the Danube Delta. Significance:- It is a significant watercourse for shipping and navigation. It is a vital trade route for cargo vessels, commercial ships, and other maritime traffic entering or leaving the Black Sea region. Danube: second-longest river in Europe, after the Volga (Russia). Ukrainian grain ships sail from ports like Izmail and Reni on the Chilia Channel to Sulina. Here the cargo is transferred to larger vessels. These vessels proceed to Constanta, Romania’s major seaport. This route falls under NATO’s surveillance and protection. This ensures a degree of security against Russian aggression. MUST READ: Russia-Ukraine War SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2023) Bulgaria Czech Republic Hungary Latvia Lithuania Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q.2) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores The region along North African shores stretches from Egypt to Morocco The region along the Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa The entire coastal areas of the Mediterranean Sea Kharif crops Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: According to the recent data released, the sowing area of rice and coarse cereals increased under Kharif crops this year as compared to last year. Background:- According to data released by Union Agriculture Ministry today, the sowing area of rice has increased from 345 lakh hectares to over 360 lakh hectares. The sowing area of coarse cereals has also increased from 173 lakh hectares to over 176 lakh hectares. About Kharif crops:- Based on seasons, crops in India are classified into the following:- Kharif crops Rabi crops Zaid crops Kharif crops, are cultivated and harvested in the monsoon season. Naming: The word “Kharif” is Arabic for autumn, since the season coincides with the beginning of autumn or winter. Sowing: These are sown at the beginning of a monsoon season. Harvesting: and farmers harvest them at the end of the season. Time Period: from June to September. The Kharif season may differ in every state of the country. Features: One of the important features of Kharif crops is that they need a lot of water and hot weather for proper growth. Kharif crops examples: Rice, Cotton, Maize, etc. (UPSC CSE: Government announces hike in MSP for Kharif season) Production:- India is the second-largest producer of rice in the world after China. (Minimum Support Prices) India accounts for approximately 20% of the world’s rice production. MUST READ: The Millet mission SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger( Guizotia aoyssinica) seeds. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in:    (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Gabon’s debt-for-nature swap deal Syllabus Prelims –Geography/International Relations Context: Recently, Gabon announced a $500 million

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Green Hydrogen Standard Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: The Government has notified the Green Hydrogen Standard for India for the progress of the National Green Hydrogen Mission. About Green Hydrogen Standard:- Issued in 2023. Issued by: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy Objectives: progress of the National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM). NGHM: It is a part of the National Hydrogen Mission (NHM) which was announced by the finance minister in the Union Budget 2021-22. Its objective was to make India a global hub for the production and export of green hydrogen and fulfill India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). The Ministry of New & Renewable Energy has defined Green Hydrogen through these standards. The standard, outlines the emission thresholds that must be met in order for hydrogen produced to be classified as Green. Definition: Green Hydrogen is defined as having a well-to-gate emission including water treatment, electrolysis, gas purification, drying, and compression of hydrogen of not more than 2 kg CO2 equivalent/kg H2. The definition encompasses both electrolysis-based and biomass-based hydrogen production methodology. Electrolysis: a chemical process that involves using an electric current to drive a non-spontaneous chemical reaction. Methodology: A detailed methodology for measurement, reporting, monitoring, on-site verification, and certification of green hydrogen and its derivatives shall be specified by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. Bureau of Energy Efficiency, Ministry of Power: it shall be the Nodal Authority for accreditation of agencies for the monitoring, verification, and certification of Green Hydrogen production projects. Significance:- The Green Hydrogen Standard bring a lot of clarity to the Green Hydrogen community in India and was widely awaited. With this, India became one of the first few countries in the world to announce a definition of Green Hydrogen. Green hydrogen:- Hydrogen is a chemical element with the symbol H and atomic number 1. (Hydrogen Fuel Cell for Vehicles) It exists only in combination with other elements. Thus, it has to be extracted from natural compounds, like water. Based on the extraction process, Hydrogen is categorized into:- Grey hydrogen: produced from fossil fuels. Blue hydrogen: produced from fossil fuels with carbon capture and storage. Green Hydrogen: produced entirely from renewable power sources. ( Green Hydrogen). Advantages of Green Hydrogen:- Environment Friendly. Reduced Dependence on Rare Minerals. Reduces Import Bill. Efficient utilization of Renewable Energy. MUST READ: India’s first pure green hydrogen plant commissioned SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements: (2023) None of them uses seawater. None of them is set up in a water-stressed district. None of them is privately owned. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency International Olympiad on Astronomy and Astrophysics (IOAA) Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: India secured Second Rank at the 16th International Olympiad on Astronomy and Astrophysics (IOAA). Key highlights of IOAA 2023:- The United Kingdom clinched the lead with five Golds. India has secured Second Rank with four medals. About International Olympiad on Astronomy and Astrophysics (IOAA):- Edition: 16th. Organized by: International Olympiad on Astronomy and Astrophysics (IOAA). Venue: Chorzów, Poland. First IOAA: was held from 30th November to 9th December 2007. Objective: to commemorate the 80th birth anniversary of the King Bhumibol Adulyadej of Thailand and the 84th birth anniversary of the Princess Galyani Vadhana of Thailand. (India & Thailand) MUST READ: Chess Olympiad SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Commonwealth Parliamentary Association (CPA) Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla  inaugurated the 9th India Region Conference of the Commonwealth Parliamentary Association (CPA). Background:- It was the 9th India Region Conference of the Commonwealth Parliamentary Association (CPA). Theme: Strengthening Democracy and Good Governance in the Digital Age. About Commonwealth Parliamentary Association (CPA):- Founded: 1911. HQ: London, UK. Historical Background:- The CPA was founded in 1911 as the Empire Parliamentary Association (EPA). It was registered as a charity on 22 October 1971 under the laws of the United Kingdom. Salient Features:- It is an association to serve the Parliamentarians of the Commonwealth Countries. Objective: to promote closer understanding and cooperation for common purposes between those engaged in the Parliamentary form of Countries of the Commonwealth. Mission: to promote knowledge of the constitutional, legislative, economic, social, and cultural aspects of parliamentary democracy, with particular reference to the countries of the Commonwealth. It provides the machinery for regular consultation and exchange of ideas and information among members of Commonwealth Parliaments. India’s commonwealth membership:- India was a dominion from 1947 to 1950 till our constitution became effective. 1949: India’s constituent assembly ratified the membership of the association declaring continuation of full membership. India has been playing an important role at the Commonwealth Heads of Government Meet (CHOGM). 1983: India also hosted the 24th commonwealth summit in New Delhi. MUST READ: (Commonwealth & Commonwealth Advantage) SOURCE:

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: A new report by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) has stated that robust raw material supply chain is key to Africa’s growth. Background:- Africa can emerge as a significant manufacturing hub for tech-intensive sectors like automobiles, mobile telephones, renewable energy, and health care by harnessing its vast resources of raw materials, according to the report. The report provided insights into how Africa can diversify its supply chain in knowledge and technology-intensive sectors like automobiles, mobile telephones, renewable energy, and health care. About United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD):- Established: 1964. It is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly. HQ: Geneva, Switzerland. Membership: it has a membership of 195 countries. India is a member. UNCTAD is the UN’s leading institution dealing with trade and development. UNCTAD is part of the UN Secretariat. It is one of the largest in the UN system. Functions of UNCTAD:- It supports developing countries to access the benefits of a globalized economy more fairly and effectively. It provides economic, trade analysis, and facilitates consensus building. It offers technical assistance to help developing countries use trade, investment, finance, and technology for inclusive and sustainable development. Along with other UN departments and agencies, it also measures the progress made in the Sustainable Development Goals, as set out in Agenda 2030. (Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) India) Important Publications by UNCTAD:- Trade and Development Report: annual. (UNCTAD Trade & Development Report 2021) World Investment Report: annual. The Least Developed Countries Report: annual.( UNCTAD REPORT ON FDI FLOWS) MUST READ: India-Africa: Challenges & Way Ahead SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Rapid Financing Instruments” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Floodwatch Syllabus Prelims – Disaster Management Context: Recently, the Central Water Commission launched Mobile App ‘Floodwatch’. About CWC: Establishment: Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Head: chairman, with the status of Ex-Officio Secretary to the Government of India. Headquarters: New Delhi. It is an attached office of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation. It is entrusted with the general responsibilities of initiating, coordinating, and furthering in consultation with the State Governments concerned, schemes for control, conservation, and utilization of water resources throughout the country. It also undertakes the investigations, construction, and execution of any such schemes as required. About Floodwatch:- Launched: 2023. Launched by: Central Water Commission (CWC). Objectives: using mobile phones to disseminate information related to the flood situation and forecasts up to 7 days on a real-time basis to the public. Salient Features of Floodwatch:- It provides essential information regarding flood situations in the country. (Nature’s Warning: Floods) Bilingual: The in-house developed user-friendly app has readable and audio broadcast and all the information is available in 2 languages, viz. English and Hindi. Real-time flood monitoring: users can check up-to-date flood situations throughout the country. The app utilizes near real-time river flow data from various sources. It also provides flood forecasts at the nearest location. (Urban Flooding) Flood advisory: users can check the flood advisory at the station nearest to them. Forecast using an Interactive Map: users can check the CWC Flood Forecast (up to 24 hours) or Flood Advisory (up to 7 days). They can do so either by directly selecting the station from the map or can search for the name of the station in the search box. The location will be zoomed in on the map when the name of the station will be selected from the dropdown. State-wise/Basin-wise Flood Forecast: The app provides State-wise/Basin-wise Flood Forecast (up to 24 hours) or Flood Advisory (up to 7 days). This can be accessed by selecting specific stations, state-wise or basin-wise from the dropdown menu. Easy access: The app can be downloaded free of charge from the Google Play Store. The app will also be available on Apple iOS soon. Advanced technologies: It utilizes advanced technologies such as satellite data analysis, mathematical modeling, and real-time monitoring to deliver accurate and timely flood forecasts.  MUST READ: Urbanisation and Urban floods SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? (2022) Cauvery Manjira Pennar Tungabhadra Matti banana Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, the Matti banana variety was granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag. About Matti banana:- They are indigenous to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu. (Dragon Fruit) Kanyakumari was then part of Travancore. It thrives in the unique climate and soil. It flourishes mainly in Kalkulam and Vilavancode taluks. It is known as ‘Baby Banana’. Its low total soluble solids content (TSSC) makes it suitable as a baby food. There are six known types of the Matti banana:- Nal Matti: a yellowish-orange colour and fine aroma. Theyn [honey] Matti’s: pulp tastes like honey. Kal Matti gets its name from the calcium oxalate crystals forming in its pulp and black dots on the skin. Nei Matti: exudes the aroma of ghee. Sundari Matti: a Matti clone, with its elongated fingers, thick peel, and creamy white rind. MUST READ: Crop in news: Jackfruit SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to, the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board