Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Jallianwala Bagh massacre Syllabus Prelims –Modern History Context: The Jallianwala Bagh massacre was commemorated recently. About the Jallianwala Bagh massacre:- IMAGE SOURCE: Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (jkdadlani.blogspot.com) The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on 13th April 1919. It accounted for the gruesome execution of hundreds of innocent people by the Gurkha British Indian army on the orders of the then Anglo-Indian Brigadier R.E.H. Dyer. These people were protesting peacefully against the Rowlatt Act 1919. Rowlatt Act 1919: this act was passed on the recommendations of the Sedition Committee chaired by Sir Sidney Rowlatt. It gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities and allowed the detention of political prisoners without trial for two years. Significance of the event:- The Jallianwala Bagh tragedy was one of the causes that led Mahatma Gandhi to begin organising his first large-scale and sustained nonviolent protest (satyagraha) campaign, the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22). The Bengali poet and Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore renounced the knighthood that he had received in 1915. Mahatma Gandhi gave up the title of Kaiser-i-Hind, bestowed by the British for his work during the Boer War. MUST READ: Shaheed Udham Singh SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) During the Indian Freedom Struggle, why did Rowlatt Act arouse popular indignation? (2009) It curtailed the freedom of religion It suppressed the Indian traditional education It authorized the government to imprison people without trial It curbed the trade union activities Kamchatka Peninsula Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Russia’s most active volcano ‘The Shiveluch volcano’ in Russia’s Kamchatka Peninsula erupted recently. About Kamchatka Peninsula:- IMAGE SOURCE: Location of the Kamchatka Peninsula showing the main volcanoes and… | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) The Kamchatka Peninsula is a 1,250-kilometre-long peninsula in the Russian Far East. The Pacific Ocean and the Sea of Okhotsk make up the peninsula’s eastern and western coastlines, respectively. Immediately offshore along the Pacific coast of the peninsula runs the 10,500-metre-deep Kuril–Kamchatka Trench. The Kamchatka Peninsula, the Commander Islands, and Karaginsky Island constitute the Kamchatka Krai of the Russian Federation. The vast majority of the 322,079 inhabitants are ethnic Russians, although about 13,000 are Koryaks (2014). The Kamchatka peninsula contains the volcanoes of Kamchatka, a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The highest peak is the highest active volcano in Eurasia, Klyuchevskaya Sopka (4750 m). The higher parts of Kamchatka are glaciated with an area of about 900 km2 covered by 446 glaciers (Solomina et al., 2007). MUST READ: National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) and India – Russia Relations SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news? (2022) It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around the South China Sea. China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in the East China Sea. A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities. Though the International Court of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them. Q.2)Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Cumbum grapes Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, Tamil Nadu’s Cumbum grapes get a Geographical Indication tag. About Cumbum grapes:- IMAGE SOURCE: Cumbum Valley farmers reap rich harvest with off-season grapes | Chennai News – Times of India (indiatimes.com) Cumbum Panneer Thratchai, also known as Cumbum grapes. It is a variety of grapes grown in the Cumbum Valley located at the Western Ghats in Tamil Nadu, India. Cumbum Valley is the only place in the country where grapes are harvested around the year with three yield seasons. The unique feature is that these grapes are harvested all through the year as opposed to only during January and April in the rest of India. Economical Uses: The grapes grown are suitable for making wine, spirits, jams, canned grape juice and raisins. Since these grapes are produced in two seasons in a year, their yield and returns are exceptionally high. Grapes can be cultivated in a variety of soils including sandy loams, sandy clay loams, red sandy soils, shallow to medium black soils and red loams. Grapes generally require a hot and dry climate during their growth and fruiting periods. It is successfully grown in areas where the temperature range is from 15-40 C. MUST READ: GI tag for Narasinghapettai nagaswaram SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree. Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4 and 5 1, 3 and 4 1,2, 3 and 5 Teja Singh Sutantar Syllabus Prelims –Modern History Context: Recently, Punjab CM unveiled the statue of Teja Singh Sutantar. About Teja Singh

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Mercy petitions Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Supreme Court told the authorities to not delay decisions on mercy petitions of death row convicts. About Mercy petitions:- A mercy petition is filed by a convict to change his/her punishment (especially capital) into a lesser form of punishment.  It is also called clemency petition/plea or executive clemency. It is the convict’s basic right to ask mercy from the Republican head of the State. In India, that is the President. It can be exercised after all the legal remedies were exhausted. A petition can be filed with the President (under Article 72 of the Indian Constitution) or the governor (under Article 161 of the Constitution). A convict under a death sentence is eligible to make the mercy petition.  But it should be filed within seven days, after the dismissal of her/his appeal by the Supreme Court and intimation of the same to the convict by the Superintendent of the Police (SP). The procedure of Mercy Petition:- A convict under the sentence of death is allowed to file a mercy petition within a period of seven days after the date on which the Superintendent of Jail informs him about the dismissal of the appeal or special leave to appeal by the Supreme Court. The petitions are to be presented to the President of India.  The President office seeks cabinet advice. The appeal is examined by the Ministry of Home Affairs and the Ministry before giving recommendations to the President, takes the view of the State concerned. There is no written procedure to deal with mercy petition. President’s pardon/rejection/delay is also subjected to judicial review. However, if a court finds that the process of the decision taken by the President under Article 72 was not arbitrary or unreasonable, the decision then cannot be interfered with. MUST READ: Death Penalty in India SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up a in police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to a such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Magnetoresistance Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the researchers in the UK, have found that graphene displays an anomalous giant magnetoresistance (GMR) at room temperature. About Magnetoresistance:- IMAGE SOURCE: Magnetoresistance Effect uses – Bing images Magnetoresistance is a phenomenon where the electrical resistance of a conductor is affected by magnetic fields in adjacent materials. When the materials are magnetised in the same direction, the electrical resistance in the conductor is low. When the directions are opposite each other, the resistance increases. The magnetoresistance observed in the graphene-based device was found to be “almost 100 times higher than that observed in other known semimetals in this magnetic field range.” Uses:- It is used in hard disk drives and magnetoresistive RAM in computers, biosensors, automotive sensors, microelectromechanical systems, and medical imagers. GMR-based devices are particularly used to sense magnetic fields. MUST READ: Synthetic biology SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to street lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps? (2021) Sodium lamps produce light at 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps. As street lights, sodium lamps have a longer life span than LED lamps. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street lighting. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mahad Satyagraha Syllabus Prelims –Modern Indian History Context: Recently, Mahad Satyagraha by Ambedkar and the foundation event of the Dalit movement were recalled. About Mahad Satyagraha :- IMAGE SOURCE: Ambedkar – Peacockride Dr Babasaheb Ambedkar Life Should Be Great Abstract Wall Poster Vinyl A3 Multicolour Amazon In Electronics | itmoneymaking (manainfinito.com) Mahad Satyagraha was first collective protest of untouchables under the leadership of Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar. Every year, March 20 is observed as Social Empowerment day in India to commemorate the Mahad Satyagraha. Background:- The untouchables were not allowed to use water from Mahad tank. In 1926, Municipal Board of Mahad, Maharashtra passed orders to throw open the famous tank of Mahad city to all communities. High caste Hindus opposed this order of Municipal Board.  In response, Ambedkar organised a conference to support the decision of Municipal Board.  Ambedkar, in his presidential address, stressed the necessity of rooting out ideas of highness or lowness and inculcating self-elevation through self-help, self-respect and self-knowledge. A Satyagraha Conference was organised at Mahad in 1925 which demanded that Hindu society should be organised on the basis of equality and absence of casteism. It was also resolved to burn Manusmriti, as according to Ambedkar, it perpetuated the social, economic, religious and political slavery of the untouchables. MUST READ: B R Ambedkar and Women Empowerment SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Barnawapara wildlife sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Chhattisgarh Forest Department successfully translocated four sub-adult wild buffaloes from Assam to Chattisgarh’s Barnawapara wildlife sanctuary. About Barnawapara wildlife sanctuary:- IMAGE SOURCE: Layout map of the Barnowpara Sanctuary, Raipur Forest Division, C.G .  | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) Barnawapara wildlife sanctuary is located in the district of Raipur in Chhattisgarh. Barnawapara the name coined from village Bar and Nawapara. The rivers Balmedhi, Jonk and Mahanadi are the lifeline river which runs along the sanctuary. River Balamdehi forms the western boundary and Jonk River forms the northeastern boundary of the Sanctuary. The Balar reservoir situated inside the sanctuary supports a number of wetland birds and fishes. Flora: The sanctuary contains major vegetation of Teak, Sal and Mixed forest. Fauna: Cheetal, Sambhar, Nilgai Wild Boar, Sloth Bear, and Wild Dogs, are commonly seen. The Indian Wild Buffalo It is the state animal of Chhattisgarh (India) Habitat: mainly found in the alluvial grasslands, marshes, swamps and river valleys. In India, they are generally concentrated in North East India in Kaziranga National Park, Manas and Dibru-Saikhowa National Parks, Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary and Bura Chapori Wildlife Sanctuary, D’Ering Memorial Wildlife Sanctuary in Arunachal Pradesh. Conservation Status: IUCN: Endangered Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule 1. MUST READ: Tungareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, the such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Consider the following animals (2021) Hedgehog Marmot Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protects its/their vulnerable parts? 1 and 2 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 The Olkiluoto 3 reactor Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, Europe’s most powerful nuclear reactor, The Olkiluoto 3 reactor has completed its test phase in Finland. About the Olkiluoto 3 reactor:- IMAGE SOURCE: Location of the Olkiluoto site in Finland  | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) The Olkiluoto 3 reactor is an EPR (European Pressurized Water Reactor). It is the first new-generation EPR, or European Pressurized Reactor, plant to have gone online in Europe. It is located in Finland. It is built by the French-led Areva-Siemens consortium. It is the most powerful nuclear reactor in Europe. It has a capacity of generating 1,600 megawatts. Construction of Olkiluoto 3 began in 2005. It covers approximately 14% of Finland’s electricity demand. The Olkiluoto 3 is Western Europe’s first new reactor in more than 15 years. It will help Finland to achieve its carbon neutrality targets and increase energy security. MUST READ: India’s Nuclear Energy SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2022) Distance among stellar bodies does not change The gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in straight lines The speed of light is always the same                                                                         Q.2) With reference to the carbon nanotubes, consider the following statement : (2020) They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body. They can be used in biochemical sensors. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 G7 Climate and Environment Ministers’ meeting Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the G7 Climate and Environment Ministers’ meeting concluded. About G7 Climate and Environment Ministers’ meeting:- IMAGE SOURCE: G7 Countries – WorldAtlas G7 Ministers’ Meeting on Climate, Energy and Environment was held in Sapporo, Japan.  The participating leaders committed to work towards ensuring carbon-free electricity production by 2035 and “accelerating” the phase-out of coal. This is significant as the G7 nations account for a quarter of global carbon emissions. Key highlights of Carbon-Free Power By 2035:- Acceleration of renewable energy: The countries agreed to accelerate solar and wind energy investments to produce 1,000 gigawatts (GW) by 2030 from solar power and 150 GW of wind power from off-shore platforms. This move is in line with recent reports by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) to ensure that global temperatures do not increase by more than 1.5°C of pre-industrial levels by the end of the century. Elimination of subsidies: The countries reaffirmed their commitment to the elimination of inefficient fossil fuel subsidies by 2025. Phasing out of inefficient fossil fuel subsidies is a key component of the Paris Agreement. Removal of government support towards fossil-fuel-driven power: The countries emphasized that, with the exception of a few clearly defined circumstances that are consistent with a 1.5°C warming limit and the goals of the Paris Agreement, they have stopped all new direct government support for unabated international thermal coal power generation by the end of 2021 and public support for the international unabated fossil fuel energy sector in 2022. The group will each provide an update on their approach to implementation by the end of 2023. The ministers have agreed to prioritize steps toward phasing out “unabated” coal power generation plants that do not employ mechanisms to capture emissions and prevent them from escaping into the atmosphere. The G7 countries have endorsed Japan’s national strategy that emphasizes clean coal, hydrogen, and nuclear energy to

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Farm Distress Index Syllabus Context: Recently, Farm Distress Index reported farm distress in different parts of the country. About Farm Distress Index:- IMAGE SOURCE: farmer-suicide-info.jpg (800×729) (yourstory.com) Farm Distress Index is developed by Central Research Institute for Dryland Agriculture (CRIDA). CRIDA:- It is an institute under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research. It was est. 1985 HQ: Hyderabad It is a constituent organisation of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), an autonomous body of the Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India. It is part of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) funded project on ‘Farmers Distress and Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojna (PMFBY)’. Farm Distress Index is an early warning system based on a 21-question survey that captures the financial, economic, and emotional health status of farmers in vulnerable areas. The index can sense imminent distress at least 3-4 months ahead of its actual occurrence. Significance: This index can be used by policymakers and the government to plan and design a timely and targeted method of supporting distressed farmers. Farm distress continues to be reported from different parts of the country. Left unattended, the distress can lead to suicides by farmers. MUST READ: Farm reforms SOURCE: BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? (2022) Farmers harvesting their crops Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics A commercial bank lending money to a trading company A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-term credit support is given to farmers for which of the following purposes? (2020) Working capital for maintenance of farm assets harvesters, Purchase of combine tractors and mini trucks requirements of farm Consumption households Post-harvest expenses Construction of family house and setting up of village cold storage facility Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 5 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2,3,4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Harpoon missiles Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, China warned the U.S. as Taiwan mulls buying 400 Harpoon missiles. About Harpoon missiles:- IMAGE SOURCE: Harpoon Missile – Think Defence Harpoon missiles are the Torpedoes lightweight missiles and Harpoon air-launched missiles. The Harpoon is a U.S.-designed subsonic antiship cruise missile. It has been in service since 1977. Numerous variants have been produced since its inception, including air-, ship-, and sub-launched versions. Salient Features:- PAYLOAD:224 kg PROPULSION: Turbojet, solid propellant RANGE:90 – 240 km SPEED: 0.85 Mach (High subsonic), 291.55 m/s RANGE: 250 km OPERATORS: United States, Australia, Bahrain, Belgium, Brazil, Canada, Chile, Denmark, Egypt, Germany, Greece, Indonesia, Iran, Israel, India, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, Netherlands, Pakistan, Poland, Portugal, South Korea, Saudi Arabia, Singapore, Spain, Taiwan, Thailand, Turkey, UAE, United Kingdom, and Venezuela. MUST READ:  Vertical Launch Short Range Surface to Air Missile SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to (2020) Voyager-2 New Horizons LISA Pathfinder Evolved LISA Malcolm Adiseshiah Award 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: Recently, Utsa Patnaik, a renowned economist of national and international repute, has been selected for the Malcolm Adiseshiah Award 2023:- About Malcolm Adiseshiah Award 2023:- The award is given every year by the Malcolm & Elizabeth Adiseshiah Trust. It is one of the most prestigious national awards in India. It recognizes and honours the outstanding contributions of social scientists to the field of development studies. The award includes a citation and prize money of Rs 2 lakh. The Malcolm Adiseshiah Award for distinguished contributions to Development Studies carries a cash award of Rs. 1 lakh and a citation. Malcolm Sathiyanathan Adiseshiah (1910 – 1994), was an Indian development economist and educator. In 1976 he was awarded the Padma Bhushan. Past Indian recipients:- Bina Agarwal, Professor, in 2002 Jandhyala B G Tilak, Professor, in 2003 Dipankar Gupta, Professor, in 2004 Amita Baviskar, Associate Professor, 2005 Prabhat Patnaik economist and political commentator, 2022 MUST READ: Digital India Awards SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of (2017) Privileges Restraints Competition Ideology Buddhism Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: India will be hosting a two-day international Buddhist conference soon. About Buddhism:- IMAGE SOURCE: BUDDHISM FACTS – Bing images Buddhism is based upon the teachings, and life experiences of its founder Siddhartha Gautam, born circa 563 BCE. Buddha asked his followers to avoid the two extremes of indulgence in worldly pleasure and the practice of strict abstinence and asceticism. He ascribed instead the ‘Madhyam Marg’or the middle path which was to be followed. Four noble truths of Buddhism are: They are the

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Mission 50K-EV4ECO Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, SIDBI launched a new financing solution for electric vehicle space under the scheme ‘Mission 50K-EV4ECO’. About Mission 50K-EV4ECO:- Objective: to promote the growth and development of the value chain of India’s electric vehicle industry. It is expected to promote EV adoption and strengthen associated infrastructure in the country. The project prioritizes the uptake of 2-wheeler, 3-wheeler, and 4-wheeler EVs through direct and indirect lending. The objective of this scheme is to provide access to affordable financing for electric vehicles and to develop charging infrastructure, including battery swapping. The scheme is the precursor to the EVOLVE scheme by SIDBI-World Bank. It provides better financing terms and other solutions to address the issues faced in the EV ecosystem in India. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI):- SIDBI was set up in 1990, under an Act of the Indian Parliament. Headquarters: Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, India Chairman & Managing Director: Shri Sivasubramanian Ramann It acts as the Principal Financial Institution for the Promotion, Financing and Development of the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise (MSME) sector as well as for the coordination of functions of institutions engaged in similar activities. The Shares of SIDBI are held by the Government of India and twenty-two other institutions / public sector banks/insurance companies owned or controlled by the Central Government MISSION: To facilitate and strengthen credit flow to MSMEs and address both financial and developmental gaps in the MSME eco-system. VISION:- To emerge as a single window for meeting the financial and developmental needs of the MSME sector to make it strong, vibrant and globally competitive. To position SIDBI Brand as the preferred and customer-friendly institution and For enhancement of shareholder wealth and highest corporate values through a modern technology platform. SIDBI is implementing the PSIG programme funded by UKAid through Department for International Development (DFID), UK. SIDBI has been implementing the “Poorest States Inclusive Growth (PSIG) Program”. It is funded by UK Government through the Department for International Development (DFID), UK since April 2012. The program aimed at enhancing income and employment opportunities of the poor, especially women, in the four poorest States of Bihar, MP, Odisha and UP by enabling the target group to participate and benefit from wider economic opportunities and growth. The program has come to a successful end in March 2020. To take the PSIG legacy forward, Swavalamban Resource Facility (SRF) has since been launched within the P&D Vertical of the Bank. MUST READ: Deep-sea Mining for Building EV Batteries SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”? (2022) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country Ignoring the consequences of disastrous ecological while infrastructure development undertaking Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme Limited Purpose Clearing Corporation (LPCC) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, SEBI released guidelines on an upfront contribution by issuers for LPCC’s Settlement Guarantee Fund. About Limited Purpose Clearing Corporation (LPCC):- LPCC is an entity established by SEBI. It will undertake the activity of clearing and settlement of repo rate transactions. The new framework will come into force from May 1.  Under the framework, an amount of 0.5 basis points of the issuance value of debt securities per annum based on the maturity of debt securities will be collected by the stock exchanges and placed in an escrow account before the allotment of the debt securities. This amount is applicable on a public issue or private placement of debt securities. The stock exchanges would transfer the amounts so collected to the bank account of the LPCC within one working day of the receipt of the amount and inform the details of the same to the LPCC. The details of the amounts so collected would also be disclosed by the stock exchanges on their website.  LPCC would provide an illustration of the calculation of the amounts to be contributed by the eligible issuers. AMC Repo Clearing Limited (ARCL) has been granted recognition as LPCC by SEBI. ARCL:- It was incorporated in April 2021. It is recognized in principle by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) under Stock Exchanges and Clearing Corporations (SECC) Regulations, 2018.  ARCL is a Central Counter Party (CCP) offering clearing and settlement services to all trades executed on NSE and BSE under triparty repo in corporate debt securities with robust risk management along with a guarantee mechanism. The mechanism will be used to settle:- disputes between clearing members contention between the clearing members and their clients differences between the LPCC and its vendors disputes between clearing members or its clients and the LPCC. The disputes arising between clearing members of the LPCC will be settled by conciliation and/or by an arbitration panel consisting of three clearing members, other than the clearing members who are party to the dispute. The decision of the arbitration panel would be final and binding on the parties. In case a clearing member or the LPCC is not satisfied then the disputes would be resolved under the procedure laid down in the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. The eligible issuers would be notified by the LPCC as per its risk management policy, Significance: A well-functioning repo market contributes to the development of the debt securities market by way of boosting the liquidity of the underlying debt securities and allowing market participants to monetize their debt holdings without selling the underlying, thus meeting their temporary need for funds. MUST READ: Long-Term SOURCE: BUSINESS LINE

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th April 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Hakki Pikkis Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs Context: Members of the Hakki Pikki tribal community from Karnataka are stuck in violence-hit Sudan. About Hakki Pikkis: Source:            Indian Express Hakki in Kannada means ‘bird’ and Pikki means ‘catchers’. They are a semi-nomadic tribe, traditionally of bird catchers and hunters. They are divided into four clans, called Gujaratia, Panwar, Kaliwala, and Mewaras. There was a hierarchy among the clans, with the Gujaratia at the top and the Mewaras at the bottom. They move in groups from place to place in search of livelihood. Hakki Pikki people are believed to hail originally from the bordering districts of Gujarat and Rajasthan. They arrived in Karnataka via Andhra Pradesh, as they still remember a place called “Jalapally” near Hyderabad as their ancestral home, where their forefathers lived for a considerable period. They are now spread across south India. Their population in Karnataka is 11,892, and they live majorly in Davangere, Mysuru, Kolar, Hassan, and Shimoga districts. Source:    Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above are correct? (CSP 2019) 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 SpaceX Starship Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: SpaceX’s Starship, the world’s biggest rocket, exploded during its first test-flight to space. About Starship: Source:           https://c.realme.com SpaceX’s Starship spacecraft and Super Heavy rocket – collectively referred to as Starship. It is the first stage, or booster, of the Starship launch system. Powered by 33 Raptor engines using sub-cooled liquid methane (CH4) and liquid oxygen (LOX). The Raptor engine is a reusable methane-oxygen staged-combustion engine that powers the Starship system Super Heavy is fully reusable and will re-enter Earth’s atmosphere to land back at the launch site. Starship spacecraft is the second stage of the Starship system. It is also capable of point-to-point transport on Earth, enabling travel to anywhere in the world in one hour or less. It is a fully reusable transportation system designed to carry both crew and cargo to Earth orbit, the Moon, Mars, and beyond. It is the world’s most powerful launch vehicle ever developed, capable of carrying up to 150 metric tons fully reusable and 250 metric tons expendable. Objectives the goal is to make Starship reusable and bring down the price to a few million dollars per flight. The eventual objective is to establish bases on the Moon and Mars and put humans on the “path to being a multi-planet civilization Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface. Q.2) The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to Voyager-2 New Horizons LISA Pathfinder Evolved LISA Global Food Policy Report 2023 Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently, the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI) published Global Food Policy Report, 2023 which said that investing in early warning systems is essential to save lives, livelihoods and money. Key highlights of the report: The report called for a more proactive response to food system shocks with a focus on three key areas: Crisis prediction and preparation Building resilience before and during crises Making crisis response supportive and inclusive of women, forced migrants and other vulnerable groups. It advocated for strengthening agrifood value chains to support livelihoods and food security during crises. It advised governments to maintain a business environment that fosters flexibility, and technical and financial innovation. In 2021, some 768 million people across the world were undernourished, according to the Food and Agriculture Organization’s State of Food Security and Nutrition Report. This was well above the 572 million reported in 2014. In 2022, the food insecurity was exacerbated by the Russia-Ukraine war and related spikes in food and fertiliser prices. In fact, the fertiliser prices rose by 199 per cent between May 2020 and the end of 2022, stated the World Economic Forum recently. As a result, there has been an increase in the number of people at risk due to food insecurity, hunger, and malnutrition. In 2022, as many as 205 million people in 45 countries experienced crisis-level acute food insecurity or worse, nearly double the number in 2016, the IFPRI report highlighted. International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI): It was established in 1975 and provides research-based policy solutions to sustainably reduce poverty and end hunger and malnutrition in developing countries. Headquarters: Washington, D.C It is a research centre of CGIAR, which is the world’s largest agricultural innovation network. Its research focuses on five strategic research areas: Fostering Climate-Resilient and Sustainable Food Supply Promoting Healthy Diets and Nutrition for Al Building Inclusive and Efficient Markets, Trade Systems, and Food Industry Transforming Agricultural and Rural Economies Strengthening Institutions and Governance Source:    DTE Exobiology Extant Life Surveyor (EELS) Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) is developing Snake-like Robot Exobiology Extant Life Surveyor (EELS). NASA plans to send EELS to Enceladus. About Exobiology Extant Life Surveyor (EELS): EELS is a mobile instrument system

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd April 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) State of World Population (SOWP) Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs Context: The United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) has recently released its report- State of World Population (SOWP). Key highlights of the report: Source:              Hindustan Times The population of the world is 8,045 million. The largest share in population has age between 15- 64 years (65%), followed by the 10-24 years (24%) and above 65 years of age (10 %). China and India accounts for the largest populations in Asia, with more than 1.4 billion each in 2022. India is now the most populous country in the world, outstripping China’s population. The rate of global population growth has fallen and is less than 1 % since 2020. India’s demography: Age group: Source: Indian Express 68% belongs to the 15-64 years and 26% belongs to the 10-24 years. Result: India is one of the youngest countries in the world with 50% of its population below the age of 25. The fertility rate in India has been steadily dropping and is lower than 2.1 children per woman. Reason of decline: use of contraceptive methods, spacing of pregnancies, access to health care, impetus to family planning, increasing wealth and education. Life expectancy for men is 71 years, while it is lower for women at 74 years. Key projections: The global population could grow to around 8.5 billion in 2030, 9.7 billion in 2050 and 10.4 billion in 2100. Maximum increase till 2050 will be concentrated in: the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Egypt, Ethiopia, India, Nigeria, Pakistan, the Philippines and the United Republic of Tanzania. If India’s population continues to grow at the current pace, it would double from the present value in the next 75 years. Outlook for population growth Latest projections suggest that the rate of global population growth has fallen, and has been at less than 1 per cent since 2020. This is largely due to declining fertility. Around two thirds of people live in a country or area with a total fertility rate at or below 2.1 children per woman (also called “replacement fertility” rate or “zero-growth fertility” rate). In 1950 the global fertility rate stood at 5. Already 60% of the world’s population lives in a region where the fertility rate is below replacement level, up from 40% in 1990. Migration as driver of growth: It is international migration that is now the driver of growth in many countries, with 281 million people living outside their country of birth in 2020. Migration has also occurred due to war, famines, and other catastrophes. South Asia clocks some of the highest emigration trends, with India seeing an estimated net outflow of 3.5 million between 2010 and 2021. Pakistan has the highest net flow of migrants of 16.5 million during the same period. Birth rate: Despite the continuing decline in the average number of births per woman, the total annual number of births has remained stable at around 140 million since the late 1980s. It is due to the youthful age distribution of the global population. In 2021, 134 million babies were born worldwide. In the future, the number of new-borns is expected to slightly increase to reach 138 million annually between 2040 and 2045, despite the continuous decline in the average number of births per woman. In 2021, most births worldwide occurred in the two most populous regions—Asia and sub-Saharan Africa. Life Expectancy: One of the reasons for population growth globally flagged by the UNFPA has been that of increasing life expectancy. Fertility rates and mortality rates have been dropping in various parts of the world with better access to health care and improving standards of living. Life expectancy among men now stands at 71 years while among women it stands at 76 years. Globally, life expectancy reached 72.8 years in 2019, an increase of almost 9 years since 1990. Source:  Hindustan Times Must Read: Demographic Dividend R21 / Matrix-M Malaria Vaccine Syllabus Prelims: Science and Technology In News: After Ghana, Nigeria’s approval of malaria vaccine will help world achieve WHO goal of reducing malaria cases, deaths by 90% by 2030. About R21 / Matrix-M Malaria Vaccine: The R21, otherwise referred to as Matrix-M malaria vaccine, is the second vaccine ever developed for a disease. The first-ever malaria vaccine, RTS, S or Mosquirix was approved by the WHO in 2021. Since 2015, 9 countries have been certified by the WHO Director-General as malaria-free, including Maldives, Sri Lanka , Kyrgyzstan, Paraguay, Uzbekistan, Argentina, Algeria, China (2021) and El Salvador (2021). Initiatives to Curb Malaria Global Initiatives: The WHO has also identified 25 countries with the potential to eradicate malaria by 2025 under its ‘E-2025 Initiative’. WHO has initiated the High Burden to High Impact (HBHI) initiative in 11 high malaria burden countries, including India. Implementation of “High Burden to High Impact (HBHI)” initiative has been started in four states i.e. West Bengal and Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh. Indian Initiatives: The Government of India set a target to eliminate malaria in India by 2027. It developed a National Framework for Malaria Elimination (2016-2030) National Strategic Plan for Malaria Elimination for 5 years. Launched in 2017 It provided a roadmap to end malaria in 571 districts out of India’s 678 districts by 2022. Malaria Elimination Research Alliance-India (MERA-India) Established by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) Source:   DTE MUST READ:   CRISPR Biotechnology Previous Year Questions Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st April 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 24th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Logistic Performance Index Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, India climbed 6 places on World Bank’s Logistic Performance Index. About Logistic Performance Index:- The Logistics Performance Index (LPI), developed by the World Bank Group. It is an interactive benchmarking tool created to help countries identify the challenges and opportunities they face in their performance on trade logistics and what they can do to improve their performance. It is the weighted average of the country’s scores on the six key dimensions: Efficiency of the clearance process (i.e., speed, simplicity and predictability of formalities) by border control agencies, including customs. Quality of trade and transport-related infrastructure (e.g., ports, railroads, roads, information technology). Ease of arranging competitively priced shipments. Competence and quality of logistics services (e.g., transport operators, customs brokers). Ability to track and trace consignments. Timeliness of shipments in reaching destinations within the scheduled or expected delivery time. The LPI 2023 allows for comparisons across 139 countries. The 2023 LPI for the first time measures the speed of trade with indicators derived from big datasets tracking shipments. India’s new ranking on Logistics Performance Index 2023 is 38. India was ranked 44th on the index in 2018 and has now climbed to 38th in the 2023 listing. According to the report, India’s rank moved up five places in infrastructure score from 52nd in 2018 to 47th in 2023. It climbed to the 22nd spot for international shipments in 2023 from 44th in 2018 and moved four places up to 48th in logistics competence and equality. MUST READ: National Logistics Policy SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Rapid Financing Instruments” and “Rapid Credit Facilities” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) Consider the following: (2021) Foreign currency convertible bonds Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions Global depository receipts Non-resident external deposits Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments? 1, 2 and 3 3 only 2 and 4 1 and 4 Caribbean Community and common market (CARICOM) Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar, co-chaired the 4th India-CARICOM ministerial meeting with his Jamaican counterpart. About CARICOM:- IMAGE SOURCE: What is Caricom? | Multimedia | teleSUR English The Caribbean Community and common market (CARICOM or CC) is an intergovernmental organisation that is a political and economic union of 15 member states (14 nation-states and one dependency) throughout the Americas and the Atlantic Ocean. It was established in 1973. CARICOM is the oldest surviving integration movement in the developing world. Objective: promote economic integration and cooperation among its members, to ensure that the benefits of integration are equitably shared, and to coordinate foreign policy. CARICOM has 15 members including Antigua and Barbuda, Bahamas, Barbados, Belize, Dominica, Grenada, Guyana, Haiti, Jamaica, Montserrat, St. Kitts and Nevis, St Lucia, St. Vincent and the Grenadines, Suriname, and Trinidad & Tobago. The Chairmanship of the Community is rotated every six months among the member countries. The CARICOM Single Market and Economy are intended to benefit the people of the region by providing more and better opportunities to produce and sell goods and services and to attract investment. India-CARICOM :- Prime Minister of India had a meeting with 14 leaders of the CARICOM group of countries on the sidelines of the United Nations General Assembly in New York in 2019. The meeting deliberated on the steadily intensifying and deepening relations India provided immediate financial assistance of USD 1 million to recover from the destruction caused by Hurricane Dorian in the region and the worst-hit island of the Bahamas. India announced a USD 14 million grant for community development projects in the CARICOM and another 150 million Line of Credit for solar, renewable energy climate-change-related projects. The Government of India funded the US$ 1.166 million information technology and communication infrastructure, computer software and community studio at the CARICOM Secretariat in 2005-2006. India’s External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar co-chaired the 4th India-CARICOM ministerial meeting and discussed a range of issues, including trade, climate change and counterterrorism. MUST READ: Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In which one of the following groups are all four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea Q.2) Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as the ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started the implementation of its from 25th May 2018? (2019) Australia Canada The European Union The United States of America Darwin’s theory of evolution Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the scientific community voiced against NCERT’s decision to remove Darwin’s theory of biological evolution from Class 10 CBSE textbooks. About Darwin’s theory of evolution:- IMAGE SOURCE: Darwin’s theory of biological evolution info – Bing images Charles Darwin is known as the father of evolution due to his contribution to the establishment of the theory of evolution. Darwin published his concept of evolution in his book entitled “The Origin of Species”. Ideas by Darwin on the theory of natural selection:- The species keep on changing or evolving with time. As the environment changes, the requirements of the organisms also change and they need to adapt to their new environment. According to the natural requirements, the phenomenon of change over a period of time is known as adaptation. According to Darwin’s theory, only higher changes tend to get naturally selected and lower ones are automatically eliminated. This leads to progressive evolution and not all the adaptations are able to contribute. All the organisms had a common ancestor at some point in time and this kept on diverging since then according to Darwin. As per Charles Darwin, evolution is a gradual and slow process. Darwinism consists of five principles which are: Over-production or prodigality of

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 24th April 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) First Ever Census on Water Bodies in India Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the first-ever Census on Water Bodies in India took place. About First Ever Census on Water Bodies in India:- IMAGE SOURCE: India’s first water body census: How was it done, what does the report say | Explained News,The Indian Express The first-ever census of water bodies across the nation was conducted by the Ministry of Jal Shakti. The census provides a comprehensive inventory of India’s water resources, including natural and man-made water bodies like ponds, tanks, lakes, and more, and collects data on the encroachment of water bodies. The Census also highlighted disparities between rural and urban areas and varying levels of encroachment and revealed crucial insights into the country’s water resources. The census was launched under the centrally sponsored scheme, “Irrigation Census” in convergence with the 6th Minor Irrigation Census in order to have a comprehensive national database of all water bodies. The census also took into account all types of uses of water bodies like irrigation, industry, pisciculture, domestic/ drinking, recreation, religious, groundwater recharge etc. Key Findings:- 24,24,540 water bodies have been enumerated in the country, out of which 97.1% are in rural areas and only 2.9% are in urban areas. Top 5 States in terms of the number of water bodies are West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Assam which constitute around 63% of the total water bodies in the country. Top 5 States in terms of the number of water bodies in urban areas are West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh and Tripura. The top 5 States in rural areas, are West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Assam. 59.5% of water bodies are ponds, followed by tanks (15.7%), reservoirs (12.1%), Water conservation schemes/percolation tanks/check dams (9.3%), lakes (0.9%) and others (2.5%). 55.2% of water bodies are owned by private entities whereas 44.8% of water bodies are in the domain of public ownership. Out of all publicly owned water bodies, the maximum water bodies are owned by Panchayats, followed by State Irrigation/State WRD. Out of all privately owned water bodies, the maximum water bodies are in hands of Individual owners/farmers followed by groups of individuals and other private bodies. Top 5 States which lead in the privately owned water bodies are West Bengal, Assam, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Jharkhand. Out of all ‘in use’ water bodies, major water bodies are reported to be used in pisciculture followed by Irrigation. Top 5 States wherein major use of water bodies is in pisciculture are West Bengal, Assam, Odisha, Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh. Top 5 States wherein major use of water bodies is in irrigation are Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, West Bengal and Gujarat. 78% of water bodies are man-made water bodies whereas 22% are natural water bodies.  1.6% (38,496) water bodies out of all the enumerated water bodies are reported to have encroached out of which 95.4% are in rural areas and the remaining 4.6% in urban areas. The information on the water spread area was reported in respect of 23,37,638 water bodies.  Out of these water bodies, 72.4% have a water spread area of fewer than 0.5 hectares, 13.4% have a water spread area between 0.5-1 hectare, 11.1% have a water spread area between 1-5 hectares and the remaining 3.1% of water bodies have water spread area more than 5 hectares. MUST READ: Water Crisis in India SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? (2022) Cauvery Manjira Pennar Tungabhadra Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2022) Reservoirs        :     States Ghataprabha   :     Telangana Gandhi Sagar  :     Madhya Pradesh Indira Sagar    :     Andhra Pradesh Maithon           :     Chhattisgarh How many pairs given above are not correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs PAY Only three pairs All four pairs Farmer producer Organizations Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recent reports show that big corporations with power over farmer producer companies are diluting their purpose. About Farmer producer Organizations:- IMAGE SOURCE: Farmers Producers Organization : Growth Engine for Indian Agriculture (ddmdeoria14.blogspot.com) Farmer Producer Organisation (FPO) is a generic name, which refers to the farmer producers organization incorporated/ registered either under Part IXA of Companies Act or under Co-operative Societies Act of the concerned States. The concept behind Farmer Producer Organizations is that farmers, who are the producers of agricultural products, can form groups. To facilitate this process, the Small Farmers’ Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) was mandated by the Department of Agriculture and Cooperation, Ministry of Agriculture, Govt. of India, to support the State Governments in the formation of the Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs). Objectives of FPOs:- To provide a holistic and broad-based supportive ecosystem to form new FPOs to facilitate the development of vibrant and sustainable income-oriented farming and for overall socio-economic development and wellbeing of agrarian communities. To enhance productivity through efficient, cost-effective and sustainable resource use. To provide handholding and support to new FPOs up to five years from the year of its creation. To provide effective capacity building to FPOs to develop agriculture entrepreneurship skills. Benefits Emanating From FPO:- FPOs can engage farmers in collective farming and address productivity issues emanating from small farm sizes. Provide additional employment generation due to the increased intensity of farming. Negotiating With Corporates: FPO can help farmers compete with large corporate enterprises in bargaining, as it allows members to negotiate as a group and can help small farmers in both input and output markets. Economics of Aggregation: The FPO can provide low-cost and quality inputs to member farmers. Social Impact: Social capital will develop in the form of FPOs, as it may lead to improved gender relations and decision-making of women farmers in FPOs. Formation and Promotion of 10,000 Farmer Producer Organisations :- It was launched by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare in 2020. It is a Central sector scheme . Objective: to provide hand-holding support to FPCs and to meet the target of creating 10,000

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th April 2023 Read More »

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) State Finances: A Study of Budgets of 2022-23 Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the State Finances: A Study of Budgets of 2022-23 report suggested that States’ gross fiscal deficit is set to fall in 2022-23. About State Finances: A Study of Budgets of 2022-23:- IMAGE SOURCE: Summary of the Economic Survey 2022-23 | A2Z Taxcorp LLP State Finances: A Study of Budgets of 2022-23″ is a report by RBI. It is a comprehensive analysis of the financial position of the Indian states, including the trends and challenges in their revenue and expenditure. Key Findings of the Report:- According to the RBI report, states’ debt is expected to decrease to 29.5% of GDP in 2022-23, compared to 31.1% in 2020-21. The report also highlights that this is still higher than the 20% recommended by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee in 2018. States are anticipating an increase in non-tax revenue, which is generated from sources such as fees, fines, and royalties. This increase is likely to be driven by revenue from industries and general services. The report notes that states are expecting to see an increase in revenue from various sources such as State GST, excise taxes, and sales taxes in the 2022-2023 fiscal year. Measures Suggested in the Report:- The report suggests that debt consolidation should be a priority for state governments. Debt consolidation: the process of combining multiple debts into a single, more manageable debt. By allocating more resources to key sectors such as healthcare, education, infrastructure, and green energy, the states can promote economic growth and development. The report is proposing that it would be beneficial to establish a fund that would be used to buffer capital expenditure during periods of strong revenue growth. In order to attract private investment, state governments should focus on creating a favourable environment for the private sector to operate and grow. States also need to encourage and facilitate higher inter-state trade and commerce to realize the full benefit of spillover effects of state capex across the country. MUST READ: RBI- Integrated Ombudsman Scheme SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2021) The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?(2021) Cut in tax rates accompanied by an increase in interest rate Increase in expenditure on public projects Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate Reduction of expenditure on public projects State Wide Attention on Grievances by Application of Technology (SWAGAT) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: PM Modi is to attend the 20th anniversary of SWAGAT initiative in Gujarat via video conferencing soon. About State Wide Attention on Grievances by Application of Technology (SWAGAT):- IMAGE SOURCE: State Wide Attention on Grievances by Application of Technology (SWAGAT), India (slideshare.net) The SWAGAT initiative of the Government of Gujarat was started in 2003. It is an innovative concept that enables direct communication between the citizens and the Chief Minister, as also between the citizens and other functionaries of the Government. The fourth Thursday of every month is designated as SWAGAT day, wherein the highest office in administration attends to the grievances of the common man. There is a three-tier grievance redressal system under SWAGAT – at State, District andTaluka levels. It is now extended to the village level also. Grievances submitted at the taluka and district levels are first resolved by the authorities at the respective levels and, thereafter, all pending grievances are reviewed by the Chief Minister himself. An applicant under SWAGAT is given a unique ID through which he/she can access the case details and status online. Complaints are divided into three categories Policy Matters-where a gap in the policy requires attention Long Pending -where the case has remained unresolved for at least 6 months after initial application. First Timer – cases are first referred to the concerned subordinate office for attention. The focus in SWAGAT is primarily on the long pending issues. SWAGAT program up to the village level, named as GRAM SWAGAT, was launched on 1st February 2011. SWAGAT Online program going rural has helped the rural people living even in the remotest corner of the state to get their problems solved quickly. Following impacts have been noticed of the SWAGAT initiative:- Public accountability has been strengthened Citizen satisfaction increased as grievances were attended at the highest level Monitoring system focuses attention on unresolved cases Transparency is brought about as all stakeholders are present during the interaction with Chief Minister Inputs from all – citizens, officers and elected representatives- leads to fair decisions Activates local level administration by requiring local level grievance to be resolved to the extent possible before they escalate to state level. MUST READ: Grievance Appellate Committees (GACs) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2020) Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only Q.2) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some

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